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  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their son might have delayed puberty. On examination, he has very little pubic hair and the testicular volume is 3ml. Bilateral gynaecomastia is also observed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most overt phenotypic features of Klinefelter syndrome are caused by testosterone deficiency and, directly or indirectly, by unsuppressed follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones. Affected men typically have (in decreasing order of frequency): infertility, small testes, decreased facial hair, gynecomastia, decreased pubic hair, and a small penis. Because of their long legs, men with Klinefelter syndrome often are taller than predicted based on parental height. Body habitus may be feminized. In childhood, when there is a relative quiescence in the hormonal milieu, ascertainment of the syndrome may be difficult because the effects of hypogonadism (i.e., small external genitalia and firm testes) may be subtle or not present at all.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 17 year old boy presented with complaints of pain in his right...

    Correct

    • A 17 year old boy presented with complaints of pain in his right lower limb. The pain tends to occur more at night and is not associated with physical activity. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer: Osteoid osteoma

      Explanation:

      Osteoid osteoma is a bone forming tumour which affects individuals in the second decade of life. The patient presents with a history of pain in the lower limbs which is mostly at night and responds to NSAIDS. If the pain doesn’t respond to NSAIDS, then other differentials should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      51.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Renal tubular acidosis affects the reabsorption of bicarbonate in the proximal tubule or...

    Correct

    • Renal tubular acidosis affects the reabsorption of bicarbonate in the proximal tubule or excretion of hydrogen ions from the distal tubule. Which of the following is a key difference in clinical presentation of these two types of renal tubular acidosis?

      Your Answer: Renal stone formation

      Explanation:

      Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) is characterised by a decreased hydrogen ion excretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the collecting duct of the distal nephron. The resultant acidosis causes calcium and phosphates to be released from bones to buffer the acidosis causing hypercalciuria. This precipitates calcium compounds in the kidney, predisposing it to renal stone formation. On the other hand, proximal renal tubular acidosis is characterised by an impairment in bicarbonate resorption. Both types lead to metabolic acidosis and electrolyte imbalances including potassium depletion. Children often present with failure to thrive. One way to differentiate between the two conditions is with an acid challenge test. In proximal RTA (type 2) administering an ammonium chloride load will decrease the urinary pH whereas in distal disease (type 1), the urine pH will not decrease below 5.3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A strict gluten-free diet is a dietary treatment for coeliac disease.Which one of...

    Correct

    • A strict gluten-free diet is a dietary treatment for coeliac disease.Which one of the following statements concerning the gluten-free diet is correct?

      Your Answer: Buckwheat is suitable in a gluten-free diet

      Explanation:

      Buckwheat is not wheat. It’s a seed rather than a grain, which means it’s gluten-free and safe for people with celiac disease and non-celiac gluten sensitivity. It is an excellent source of fibre and nutrients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 6 year old with a recent history of ear infection, now represents...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old with a recent history of ear infection, now represents with bilateral, erythematous and bulging tympanic membranes. His parents claim the boy also has hearing difficulty. Otoscopy reveals an effusion on the left side. Doctors suggest to perform Weber and Rinne tests. Which of the following is consistent with a left-sided middle ear effusion?

      Your Answer: Weber’s localising to right, Rinne negative on left, Rinne positive on right

      Correct Answer: Weber’s localising to left, Rinne negative on left, Rinne positive on right

      Explanation:

      When a child does not hear the sound in the middle during Weber test, it means they either they have a conductive hearing loss on the side they hear the sound, or a sensorineural hearing loss on the opposite side. Rinne’s test helps distinguish between the two. In this particular case, the hearing loss is most probably conductive due to the middle ear effusion. Therefore, Weber’s test should be localised to the left and Rinne’s should be positive on the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      130.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency by her parents who report...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency by her parents who report that she has had multiple collapsing episodes over the past week. Each time she would collapse with the eyes shut and regain consciousness after 2 to 5 min with general weakness. The collapse is not followed by a post ictal state. The patient feels well and normal between these episodes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Complex partial seizure

      Correct Answer: Vasovagal syncope

      Explanation:

      A vasovagal episode or vasovagal syncope is the most common form of reflex syncope. Reflex syncope is a general term used to describe types of syncope resulting from a failure in autoregulation of blood pressure, and ultimately, in cerebral perfusion pressure resulting in transient loss of consciousness. The mechanisms responsible for this are complex and involve both depression of cardiac output as well as a decrease in vascular tone. Other types of reflex syncope include carotid sinus syncope and situational syncope, for instance, cough or micturition syncope. Vasovagal syncope may be triggered by pain or emotional upset, although frequently a specific trigger cannot be identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following ages should a child be expected to draw a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following ages should a child be expected to draw a line and start cutting with scissors?

      Your Answer: 2- 2 1/2 years

      Explanation:

      Fine motor development involves greater use of the hands to perform more precise tasks. By 6 -12 months children should be able to reach for small objects and pass an object from one hand to the other. From 1 -2 years they can perform more complex tasks such a building a tower of blocks, feeding themselves, and turning knobs. In terms of pencil skills, they should be able to imitate scribbles and then spontaneously scribble. By the age of 2 years they can draw a line, and by three they can draw a circle. From the age of 3.5 they can draw a cross, 4.5 – a square, 5 – a triangle, and 6 a diamond.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for...

    Correct

    • A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for 6 months. Her physical examination revealed no abnormality. A CT scan of the head revealed a suprasellar mass with calcifications, eroding the surrounding sella turcica. The lesion is likely to represent:

      Your Answer: Craniopharyngioma

      Explanation:

      Craniopharyngiomas (also known as Rathke pouch tumours, adamantinomas or hypophyseal duct tumours) affect children mainly between the age of 5 and 10 years. It constitutes 9% of brain tumours affecting the paediatric population. These are slow-growing tumours which can also be cystic, and arise from the pituitary stalk, specifically the nests of epithelium derived from Rathke’s pouch. Histologically, this tumour shows nests of squamous epithelium which is lined on the outside by radially arranged cells. Calcium deposition is often seen with a papillary type of architecture.
      ACTH-secreting pituitary adenomas are rare and mostly microadenomas. Paediatric astrocytoma’s usually occur in the posterior fossa. Although null cell adenomas can cause mass effect and give rise to the described symptoms, they are not suprasellar. Prolactinomas can also show symptoms of headache and disturbances in the visual field, however they are known to be small and slow-growing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 11-year-old boy presents with complaints of deep pain in his right leg...

    Correct

    • An 11-year-old boy presents with complaints of deep pain in his right leg for the past four weeks. His mother describes him as ‘being off-colour’ of late. The physical examination of the child revealed no findings. Blood investigations reveal: Hb: 11.5 g/dL (13-18) WBC Count: 2.0 x 109/L (4-11) Differential Count: Neutrophils: 0.5 x 109/L (1.5-7.0) Lymphocytes: 1.4 x 109/L (1.5-4.0) Platelet count: 160 x 109/L (150-400) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate: 50 mm in the 1st hourUrea and electrolytes were found to be within the normal range. An MRI showed diffuse uptake in both femurs, which are highly suggestive of tumour infiltration. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The clinical features and the presentation of this child and the MRI findings are highly suggestive of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.Anaemia and neutropenia, with a borderline platelet count as well as the tumour infiltration on both femurs on the MRI scan, are suggestive of a widespread Marrow disorder. Based on the age of the patient, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is more appropriate as it is more common than acute myeloid leukaemia in children and can present with bony pain in this age group.Other options:- Acute myeloid leukaemia: Although this is the most common leukaemia that is seen in adults, it rarely presents in children. – Ewing’s sarcoma: This would usually present in a more unilateral manner, and would only be associated with cytopenia if there was direct bone marrow involvement.- HIV infection: It would be very rare in this group. HIV infection can cause a wide array of signs and symptoms, but we are told that the MRI scan is highly suggestive of tumour infiltration, which would be uncommon in this condition. – Juvenile arthritis: It is much less common. There is also nothing to find on examination, such as swollen or painful joints, which would usually be seen in this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopenia

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis

      Explanation:

      Vitamin E deficiency in premature infants has been described as being associated with low haemoglobin levels in the 2nd month of life, haemolytic anaemia associated with thrombocytosis. Recently, low vitamin E concentrations were suspected as being associated with sudden death in infancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A young man has ingested 25 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg. What is...

    Correct

    • A young man has ingested 25 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg. What is the suggested minimum time interval between ingestion and measuring the blood plasma paracetamol levels?

      Your Answer: 4 hours

      Explanation:

      The post-ingestion plasma level, which is required in order to guide the treatment, reaches a peak at 4 hours. Levels requiring antidote (N-acetyl cysteine) include: 100 mcg per ml at 4 hours, 35 mcg per ml at 10 hours and 25 mcg per ml at 12 hours. These levels are in conjunction with the levels recorded and they should all be put down on a treatment nomogram.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She is found to have gestational diabetes and ultrasonography estimates a fetal macrosomia. BP is 127/72 mmHg. This primigravida is at greatest risk for which of the following obstetric emergency?

      Your Answer: Shoulder dystocia

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the fetal anterior shoulder impacts against the maternal symphysis following delivery of the vertex. Less commonly, shoulder dystocia results from impaction of the posterior shoulder on the sacral promontory. Risk Factors for Shoulder DystociaMaternalAbnormal pelvic anatomyGestational diabetesPost-dates pregnancyPrevious shoulder dystociaShort statureFetalSuspected macrosomiaLabour relatedAssisted vaginal delivery (forceps or vacuum)Protracted active phase of first-stage labourProtracted second-stage labour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given...

    Correct

    • In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given the treatment experienced a side effect, compared to 0 out of the 25 patients given the placebo. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Fisher’s exact test should be used to compare the significance of the difference

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test would have been a useful test to compare the proportions in the scenario. However, due to the small sample size, Fisher’s exact test can be applied to analyse the significance of the difference. Adequate information is not given to determine what sample sizes were used to test the efficacy of the treatment, and to tell whether the treatment should be discontinued without further analysis on the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There is a known local outbreak of E coli 0157:H7, and his initial bloods show evidence of acute renal failure. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following investigation results would be expected?

      Your Answer: Right-shift of the white blood cells

      Correct Answer: Fragmented red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli. The laboratory results will usually include fragmented RBCs, decreased serum haptoglobin, reduced platelet count, nonspecific WBC changes, and normal coagulation tests (PTT included).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are epileptiform. Her mother reports that she appears to just 'stop', sometimes even in mid conversation, for several seconds at random times during the day. During these episodes, she can be unresponsive to questioning and has no recollection of them.Which of these drugs is contraindicated in this condition?

      Your Answer: Clonazepam

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history points to absence seizures. Carbamazepine has been shown to aggravate generalized seizure types, especially absence seizures, because it acts directly on the ventrobasal complex of the thalamus which is critical to the neurophysiology of absence seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees....

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees. Swelling is also observed. He has a history of a right red eye which did not resolve with antibiotics. What should you exclude first?

      Your Answer: Blepharitis

      Correct Answer: Iritis

      Explanation:

      The child has symptoms and signs suggestive of an inflammatory arthropathy. This is why he should firstly be referred for an eye exam to exclude iritis or treat it if present. – Amblyopia is not directly associated with inflammatory arthropathies unless they had recurrent ocular involvement.- Blepharitis is not an associated finding in a child with inflammatory arthropathy.- Episcleritis may occur, and is often non-sight threatening, and therefore would not be the main cause for concern.- Optic neuropathy in juvenile inflammatory arthritis has been reported, although it is rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      100.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 15-year-old boy presents with a concern that he is the shortest in...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with a concern that he is the shortest in his class, and his voice has not 'broken' yet. A thorough examination reveals that his sexual development is within the normal range, and he is reassured that puberty occurs at different times for everyone. Which of the following cells in the testes secrete testosterone?

      Your Answer: Leydig cells

      Explanation:

      The cells in the testes that secrete testosterone are the Leydig cells.Other cells in testes include:- Spermatogonia: These are undifferentiated male germ cells which undergo spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules of the testes.- Sertoli cells: They are a part of the seminiferous tubule of the testes, cells are activated by FSH and nourish developing sperm cells.- Myoid: They are squamous contractile cells which generate peristaltic waves, they surround the basement membrane of testes.- Fibroblasts: Cells which synthesise collagen and the extracellular matrix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely...

    Correct

    • Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely to have achieved?

      Your Answer: Make good cuts with scissors

      Explanation:

      At the age of three years a child is to be able to dress and undress himself with supervision, eat with a spoon and fork, build a tower with 9 cubes, give their full name and copy a circle. The child will not be able to make good cuts with scissions until he is about 5 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which among the following genetic conditions, does NOT present with cataracts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following genetic conditions, does NOT present with cataracts?

      Your Answer: Wilson disease

      Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (also known as von Recklinghausen disease) does not present with cataracts.The eye findings in NF1 are Lisch’s nodules, which are pigmentary lesions seen on the iris and constitute one of the major diagnostic features in this condition. Note:Interestingly, in another syndrome closely related to it, Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF-2), cataracts can occur. Early detection in family members may be made by finding lens opacities (both congenital polar cataracts and posterior lenticular opacities). Other options:- Incontinentia pigmenti is an X-linked dominant disorder with pigmentary skin changes, mental retardation and eye involvement in 40% of cases. – Myotonic dystrophy is a triplet-repeat disorder with neurological symptoms and cataracts. – Lowe syndrome (oculo-cerebro-renal syndrome) is an X-linked recessive condition. Males with this X-linked recessive condition have cataracts, hypotonia, mental retardation, generalised aminoaciduria and renal tubular acidosis with hypophosphatemia. – Wilson disease is an inborn error of copper metabolism. The clinical features include hepatic involvement, progressive neurological features, eye involvement, including Kayser–Fleischer rings and cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents to the clinic with a history of swelling of both wrists. He has been complaining of painful legs and his parents are concerned about his bandy legs. The child was breastfed until 6 months of age, with solids being introduced in the diet later. At 12 months of age the child suffered from a non-stick fracture of the radius after falling at the nursery. Which condition is the child most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Non-accidental injury

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D-deficient rickets

      Explanation:

      The signs and symptoms of vitamin D-dependent rickets begin within months after birth, and most are the same for all types of the condition. The weak bones often cause bone pain and delayed growth and have a tendency to fracture. When affected children begin to walk, they may develop abnormally curved (bowed) legs because the bones are too weak to bear weight. Impaired bone development also results in widening of the metaphysis, especially in the knees, wrists, and ribs. Some people with vitamin D-dependent rickets have dental abnormalities such as thin tooth enamel and frequent cavities. Poor muscle tone (hypotonia) and muscle weakness are also common in this condition, and some affected individuals develop seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer: Pontine cistern

      Correct Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The correlation coefficient is used to determine whether there is a mathematical linear...

    Correct

    • The correlation coefficient is used to determine whether there is a mathematical linear relationship between diastolic blood pressure and serum cholesterol levels in a group of patients with hypertension (both variables have a normal distribution).Which of the following five coefficients is described?

      Your Answer: Parametric Pearson’s correlation coefficient

      Explanation:

      Correlation is a bivariate analysis that measures the strength of association between two variables and the direction of the relationship.Pearson r correlation: Pearson r correlation is the most widely used correlation statistic to measure the degree of the relationship between linearly related variables. Pearson’s correlation coefficient is the test that measures the statistical relationship, or association, between two continuous variables. It is known as the best method of measuring the association between variables of interest because it is based on the method of covariance. It gives information about the magnitude of the association, or correlation, as well as the direction of the relationship.The non-parametric Spearman or Kendall rank correlation coefficient is used if neither variable has a normal distribution or the sample size is small (i.e. <20).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      158.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 19-year-old girl presents with polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, and new-onset nocturnal...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old girl presents with polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, and new-onset nocturnal enuresis. A urine dipstick reveals no glucose or ketones, but her pregnancy test is positive.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gestational diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      The presenting features with the positive pregnancy test are highly suggestive of gestational diabetes mellitus.Diabetes Insipidus:It is much less common than gestational diabetes mellitus. It is characterised by the inability to concentrate urine, with marked thirst.Presenting symptoms include polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, nocturnal enuresis.Physical examination may reveal features of dehydration and an enlarged bladder.Investigations include biochemical analysis for electrolytes, urine and plasma osmolality, fluid deprivation test, and cranial MRI.The main differential diagnosis is for diabetes insipidus is psychogenic polydipsia.There are three broad categories of diabetes insipidus (DI): – Central (cranial) DI: It is the most common form of diabetes insipidus.It occurs due to decreased secretion of ADH. It usually occurs due to hypothalamic disease and may show response to low-dose desmopressin.- Peripheral (nephrogenic) DI:It is characterised by the resistance of the kidney to ADH.It usually does not respond to low-dose desmopressin.- Gestational DI:It is rare and is mostly seen in teenage pregnancy.It usually presents in the third trimester and often resolves 4-6 weeks post-partum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      103.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A family of five members presents to the genetics clinic for further evaluation....

    Correct

    • A family of five members presents to the genetics clinic for further evaluation. The father, one boy and one girl present with a short stature, large heads, short digits, and trident hands. Genetic evaluation reveals they are all heterozygotes for a specific mutation. The rest of the family, the mother and the other daughter, do not carry this mutation. What is the pattern of inheritance?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance

      Explanation:

      In this case, the affected individuals are all heterozygotes. Therefore, the mutation is autosomal dominant. Also, the mother does not carry the mutation, further confirming the autosomal dominant nature of the disease, which is most probably achondroplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 17-month-old boy is brought by his mother to the hospital. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-month-old boy is brought by his mother to the hospital. She is concerned that he is having symptoms of itching, being very upset and unsettled. They hail from a low socioeconomic background and have poor living conditions. On examination, an itchy, papular rash is noted on the palms of his hands specifically in the web spaces between the fingers, as well as in the groin region. He was normothermic. The mother explains that his sister also has similar symptoms.What is the most probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Poxvirus

      Correct Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s presenting symptoms is Sarcoptes scabeii.Scabies:The boy in the scenario presents with a pruritic rash affecting the palms of the hands, especially in the web spaces between the fingers. Additionally, the fact that his sister is showing similar symptoms is an indication of its infectivity. The female Sarcoptes scabiei var hominis mite burrows into the webs of fingers and the sides of digits as seen in the child.This parasitic skin infestation presents typically with nocturnal itching. Other options:- Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1): This can affect this age group but would usually present with a vesicular perioral rash with associated erythema. – Human papillomavirus (HPV): Cutaneous human papillomavirus infection causes warts, which can form a dome and fleshy shaped lesions on the palms of the hands, but these are not usually itchy. Similar to the causative agent in the boy, they are contagious.- Poxvirus: These viruses cause molluscum contagiosum which presents as dome-shaped lesions anywhere on the body, rather than specifically in palms of hands or finger webs as seen in the boy. Poxviruses are also very infectious.- Staphylococcal infection: This causes impetigo, which presents with yellow discharge and underlying erythema. Impetigo is not usually itchy and can present on any part of the body, rather than the specific areas seen in the boy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which among the following is a type of acquired anterior pituitary disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following is a type of acquired anterior pituitary disorder?

      Your Answer: Agenesis of the corpus callosum

      Correct Answer: Pituitary adenoma

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, pituitary adenoma is an acquired anterior pituitary disorder which represent between 10 and 25% of all intracranial neoplasms.Other options:- Agenesis of the corpus callosum is characterised by the partial or complete absence of the corpus callosum. This condition is associated with pituitary hormone deficiencies.- Congenital disorders such as hydrocephalus or arachnoid cysts may be a cause of precocious puberty.- Pituitary hypoplasia and septo-optic dysplasia are congenital disorders of the pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the given bioactive factors is NOT a component of normal human...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given bioactive factors is NOT a component of normal human breast milk?

      Your Answer: Macrophage

      Correct Answer: Basophil

      Explanation:

      Human breast milk composition is best suited to meet all the growth and development requirements of a baby. It contains numerous biochemicals ranging from macronutrients, micronutrients, minerals, immunoglobulins, inflammatory markers, and growth factors. The major bioactive factors found in human breast milk are: immunoglobulins (IgA, IgG, and IgM), cells (macrophages and stem cells), growth factors (epidermal growth factor, tumour necrosis factor-alpha, transforming growth factor-beta, and vascular endothelial growth factor), cytokines, chemokines, hormones, metabolic hormones, glycans, and mucins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies?

      Your Answer: The impregnated female mite tunnels into the dermis

      Correct Answer: Positive mineral oil mount is diagnostic

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of scabies can often be made clinically in patients with a pruritic rash and characteristic linear burrows. Definitive testing relies on the identification of mites or their eggs, eggshell fragments, or scybala. This is best undertaken by placing a drop of mineral oil directly over the burrow on the skin and then superficially scraping longitudinally and laterally across the skin with a scalpel blade. (Avoid causing bleeding.) Scraping 15 or more burrows often produces only 1 or 2 eggs or mites, except in a case of crusted scabies, in which many mites will be present. The sample is placed on a microscope slide and examined under low and high power. Potassium hydroxide should not be used, since it can dissolve mite pellets. Failure to find mites is common and does not rule out the diagnosis of scabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 15-year-old boy was admitted to the hospital with suspected appendicitis. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy was admitted to the hospital with suspected appendicitis. On examination, the maximum tenderness was at the McBurney's point. What is the surface landmark of McBurney's point?

      Your Answer: 2/3rds laterally along the line between the umbilicus and the midpoint of the inguinal canal

      Correct Answer: 2/3rds laterally along the line between the umbilicus and the anterior superior iliac spine

      Explanation:

      McBurney’s point is found 2/3rds of the way along an imaginary line that runs from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine on the right-hand side. On examination, features of generalised peritonitis can be observed if the appendix has perforated.Retrocecal appendicitis may have relatively fewer signs.Digital rectal examination may reveal boggy sensation if a pelvic abscess is present.Diagnosis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers coupled with compatible history, and examination findings.Ultrasound is useful in females where pelvic organ pathology can be a close differential diagnosis. Although it is not always possible to visualise the appendix on ultrasound, the presence of free fluid (always pathological in males) should raise suspicion. Ultrasound examination can also show evidence of luminal obstruction and thickening of the appendix.Management: Definitive management of appendicitis and appendicular perforation is appendicectomy which can be performed via either an open or laparoscopic approach.Simultaneous administration of metronidazole reduces wound infection rates. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage. Patients without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to have aspirated a Lego piece which he was seen playing with. Where would you expect the piece to be?

      Your Answer: Terminal bronchiole of the right lung, lower lobe

      Correct Answer: Right main bronchus

      Explanation:

      Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space and impossible for the seed to lodge here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 10-year-old boy presents with a bloating sensation with crampy abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presents with a bloating sensation with crampy abdominal pain and diarrhoea, passing stools for up to 5 times a day. Following his return from a recent holiday in Egypt, he had been to the local pool a few days ago. He recalls that the stool floats in the toilet water and that he has not passed any blood in his stools. What is the most likely cause for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cryptosporidium

      Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Explanation:

      The most likely causative organism for the symptoms of this child is Giardia lamblia.Giardiasis results in fat malabsorption thus giving rise to greasy stools. It is resistant to chlorination, hence has a risk of transfer in swimming pools.World Health Organisation definitions- Diarrhoea: > 3 loose or watery stool per day- Acute diarrhoea < 14 days- Chronic diarrhoea > 14 daysConditions that usually present as acute diarrhoea:- Gastroenteritis: It may be accompanied by abdominal pain or nausea/vomiting.- Antibiotic therapy: Can occur following antibiotic therapy, especially common with broad spectrum antibiotics.Conditions that usually present as chronic diarrhoea:- Irritable bowel syndrome: It is a very common disease.The most consistent features are abdominal pain, bloating and change in bowel habit. Patients may be divided into those with diarrhoea predominant IBS and those with constipation-predominant IBS.Features such as lethargy, nausea, backache and bladder symptoms may also be present in these patients.- Ulcerative colitis: It presents as bloody diarrhoea. Patients can also present with crampy abdominal pain and weight loss. Faecal urgency and tenesmus may be seen.- Crohn’s disease: It is also associated with crampy abdominal pains and diarrhoea. Bloody diarrhoea less common than in ulcerative colitis. Other features include malabsorption, mouth ulcers perianal disease and intestinal obstruction – Colorectal cancer: It is very rare in children. The symptoms depend on the site of the lesion but include diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia and constitutional symptoms like weight loss and anorexia.- Coeliac disease: In children, it may present with failure to thrive, diarrhoea and abdominal distension.Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcaemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand.What is the treatment of choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone administration

      Correct Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation

      Explanation:

      This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:Short statureStocky habitusObesityDevelopmental delayRound faceDental hypoplasiaBrachymetacarpalsBrachymetatarsalsSoft tissue calcification/ossificationThe goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A new-born delivered at term with a birth weight of 2.5kgs was admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born delivered at term with a birth weight of 2.5kgs was admitted to the NICU with suspected congenital TB. Her mother is HIV positive and is on HAART, recently diagnosed with tuberculosis 1 week ago. All of the following are features of congenital tuberculosis EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Low birth weight

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Congenital TB symptoms typically develop during the second or third week of life and include poor feeding, poor weight gain, cough, lethargy, and irritability. Other symptoms include fever, ear discharge, and skin lesions.Signs of congenital TB include failure to thrive, icterus, hepatosplenomegaly, tachypnoea, and lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 5-day-old infant is admitted to the ward. She was born at full...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-day-old infant is admitted to the ward. She was born at full term by normal vaginal delivery weighing 3.48kg and has been breastfed since birth. She has now lost 11% of her birth weight and bilirubin is above the phototherapy line. On examination, her fontanelle is soft, CRT<2 seconds, she is active and alert. U&Es have been sent, and the sodium on a blood gas is 144. You have started phototherapy, but still, need to make a plan about fluids and feeding. Mother wants to continue breastfeeding but is also happy to introduce some formula milk. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: IV fluids at 180mls/kg/day

      Correct Answer: Offer NG or cup feeds alongside breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding– this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother, who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother, who is worried that her daughter might be using illicit substances. The patient is sweating and appears agitated, talkative and is repeatedly clenching her jaw. She has generalized piloerection. She has most likely taken which of the following substances?

      Your Answer: Amphetamine

      Correct Answer: MDMA (ecstasy)

      Explanation:

      3,4-methylenedioxy-methamphetamine (MDMA) is a synthetic drug that alters mood and perception (awareness of surrounding objects and conditions). It is chemically similar to both stimulants and hallucinogens, producing feelings of increased energy, pleasure, emotional warmth, and distorted sensory and time perception. MDMA’s effects last about 3 to 6 hours, although many users take a second dose as the effects of the first dose begin to fade. Over the course of the week following moderate use of the drug, a person may experience:irritabilityimpulsiveness and aggressiondepressionsleep problemsanxietymemory and attention problemsdecreased appetitedecreased interest in and pleasure from sex

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid: ...

    Incorrect

    • Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid:

      Your Answer: Has greater volume

      Correct Answer: Is relatively rich in glucose

      Explanation:

      The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. Ensuring the right amount of body water is part of fluid balance, an aspect of homeostasis. The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all fluids outside the cells. This fluid can be divided into three fluid departments: interstitial (in the tissue spaces) fluid, blood plasma and lymph, and specialised compartments called transcellular fluid. The extracellular fluid surrounds all the cells in the body and is in equilibrium with the intracellular fluid. So, its composition must remain fairly constant even though substances are passing into and out of the cells. The interstitial fluid, though called a fluid, is in a reality a gel-like composition made up of: water, proteoglycan molecules and collagen. The extracellular fluid constitutes 40% of total body water, with intracellular fluid making up the remaining 60%. It is relatively rich in glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 13-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a history of multiple episodes...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a history of multiple episodes of generalized tonic-clonic seizures for the past week. Prior to this, he has had multiple admissions for the same reason and has been on anti-epileptic drugs since the age of 11 months with poor control. He was born of non-consanguineous parents with an uneventful birth history. There is no history of seizures in other family members. On examination, he has multiple hyperpigmented papules over the nasolabial region suggestive of adenoma sebaceum. A full body examination revealed a total of 5 hypopigmented ash leaf macules over the lower limbs along with a shagreen patch over the lateral aspect of the left buttock. The mode of inheritance of the boy's condition has a pattern similar to that of:

      Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis Type 1

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable diagnosis for this patient would be tuberous sclerosis which is an autosomal dominant condition.Among the options provided, only Neurofibromatosis Type 1 is inherited by an autosomal dominant pattern. Other options:- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is an example of an imprinting disorder and results from abnormalities of inheritance or methylation of chromosome 11p15.- Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition.- Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is an example of an X-linked recessive condition.- Hypophosphataemic (Vitamin D resistant) rickets is an X-linked dominant condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A female presents to obstetric triage at 24 weeks with cramping pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A female presents to obstetric triage at 24 weeks with cramping pain and is threatening preterm labour. The parents would like to know the statistics relating to survival and outcome if their baby is born at this gestation. Which particular study would be useful to review before this consultation?

      Your Answer: SafeBoosC

      Correct Answer: EPICURE

      Explanation:

      EPICure is a series of studies of survival and later health among babies and young people who were born at extremely low gestations – from 22 to 26 weeks.Boost II is a double-blind randomised controlled trial (RCT) comparing the effects of targeting arterial oxygen saturations between 85% and 89% versus 91% and 95% in preterm infants.OSCAR Xe is not the name of a study. Baby-OSCAR is an RCT to determine whether a confirmed large patent ductus arteriosus in very premature babies should be treated with ibuprofen within 72 hours of birth.SafeBoosC is a trial to examine if it is possible to stabilise the cerebral oxygenation of extremely preterm infants in the first 72 hours of life with the use of NIRS oximetry and a clinical treatment guideline. TOBY Xe is an RCT looking at the neuroprotective effects of hypothermia combined with inhaled xenon following perinatal asphyxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of the following is not included in the management of preterm babies...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not included in the management of preterm babies with respiratory distress syndrome?

      Your Answer: Oxygen administration

      Correct Answer: Dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      A preterm with respiratory distress syndrome presents with the condition as a result of immature lungs and inadequate surfactant production. Management of RDS therefore includes surfactant therapy, oxygen administration and mechanical ventilation, as well as measures such maintaining acid base levels and blood haemoglobin in an intensive care unit. Dexamethasone is not shown to be particularly effective when given to a preterm, but can however be used to prevent or decrease RDS severity when given to the mother before delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A child presents to the clinic with the complaints of pale stools and...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents to the clinic with the complaints of pale stools and jaundice. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: LFT

      Correct Answer: US abdomen

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from obstructive jaundice. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the superior diagnostic tool in detecting and assessing biliary system obstruction, because it is easy, available, accurate and non-invasive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic by his parents who say...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic by his parents who say that he has had frequent breath holding spells which occur almost 4 times per week. Which of the following nutritional deficiency most often results in the breath holding spells like the ones experienced by this child?

      Your Answer: Zinc

      Correct Answer: Iron

      Explanation:

      Breath-holding spells are usually caused by either a change in the child’s breathing or a slowing of the heart rate. In some children, breath-holding spells may be related to iron deficiency anaemia, a condition in which the body doesn’t produce a normal number of red blood cells. Conclusion: Not only Iron deficiency anaemia but also iron deficiency alone without anaemia is associated with a risk of high-frequency cyanotic breath holding spells. Iron therapy results in reduction in spells’ frequency which was correlated with increasing ferritin and iron levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A boy with Duchene muscular dystrophy and healthy parents is expecting a new...

    Incorrect

    • A boy with Duchene muscular dystrophy and healthy parents is expecting a new brother. What are the chances that his brother develops the same disease after birth?

      Your Answer: 0.25

      Correct Answer: 0.5

      Explanation:

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance. Since the first son is affected by the disease, it means that the mother is a carrier. The male children will inherit the Y chromosome from their father and the X chromosome from their mother, having 50% chances of inheriting the X chromosome with the affected gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following...

    Incorrect

    • During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following nerves is at risk of injury as the duct is mobilised?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Lingual nerve

      Explanation:

      The lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct, and thus, is at risk of injury as the submandibular gland is mobilised. The lingual nerve provides sensory supply to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.Note:- Submandibular duct (Wharton’s duct): It opens lateral to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth. It is around 5 cm in length.- Lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct. As the duct passes forwards, it crosses medial to the nerve, above it and then crosses back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Consider the following study:Healthy individuals are assessed according to their current body mass...

    Incorrect

    • Consider the following study:Healthy individuals are assessed according to their current body mass index (BMI). Two years later, their health status is reassessed, and the relationships with their earlier BMI were determined.What is the type of epidemiological study described above?

      Your Answer: Retrospective

      Correct Answer: Cohort

      Explanation:

      The study described in the question is a ‘cohort’ study.Other options:A prospective observational study – When groups are classified according to one or more factors at a given time and followed forward to determine outcomes (usually some health status)- Although there is in one sense a control group (those who do not develop the health problem), this is not generally called a ‘controlled’ trial. – An ecological study would look at outcomes in different groups (countries or regions usually) who follow different practices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 14-year-old girl with HIV develops jaundice while being treated for overwhelming sepsis....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl with HIV develops jaundice while being treated for overwhelming sepsis. Blood investigations reveal:ALT: 50 IU/L (0–45) Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 505 IU/L (0–105)Which of the following medications has she most likely been administered in the course of her treatment?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Based on the presentation, she probably was administered co-amoxiclav.The liver function tests are highly suggestive of cholestatic jaundice, which is a classic adverse dug reaction related to co-amoxiclav use.Other options:- Erythromycin is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal (GI) disturbance.- Gentamicin is more commonly associated with renal impairment.- Meropenem does not commonly cause cholestasis but is associated with transaminitis.- Vancomycin is associated with red man syndrome on fast administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?

      Your Answer: Child-onset polycystic kidney disease

      Correct Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

      Explanation:

      Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is a genetic disorder inherited in autosomal dominant fashion. It is caused by the mutations of the VHL gene located on chromosome 3. The syndrome is characterized by the creation of multiple benign and malignant tumours involving various bodily systems along with the formation of numerous visceral cysts, including the renal and epididymal cysts. Down’s syndrome is associated with renal cysts, but it does not follow the autosomal dominant mode of inheritance, rather it is caused by non-disjunction of chromosome 21 during meiosis. Exomphalos is a defect of the medial abdominal wall leading to abnormal protrusion of abdominal viscera through it. It is not associated with renal cysts. Turner’s syndrome may be associated with renal cysts formation, but it is not transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. Polycystic kidney disease of childhood follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with dyspnoea. He looks distressed and has a heart rate of 180 bpm and a blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg. His respiratory rate is 37/min and his O2 saturation is 83% in room air. His temperature is 38C. His mother cannot speak English and neither does the child. The doctors observe that the boy has marked recession and a tracheal tug. He is crying and holding his chest. You immediately put the child on high flow oxygen, perform a chest X-ray and blood tests. The x-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. The blood results show:Hb:6g/dl, MCV:85fl, MCHC:36.0g/dl, WBC:19.6x109/l, neutrophils:15.3x109/l, PLT:350x109/l, CRP:50. His mother shows you that the child has been taking folic acid, hydroxyurea and Penicillin V daily, by pulling some tablets from her bag. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sickle cell chest crisis

      Explanation:

      The child is suffering from acute sickle cell crisis, a complication of sickle cell disease. It is characterised by a new segmental pulmonary infiltrate consistent with consolidation together with one or more new respiratory symptoms.The mainstay of treatment is oxygen support, (ventilation if required), hydration, antibiotics and analgesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - When assessing language development, which of the following is typical of a 2...

    Incorrect

    • When assessing language development, which of the following is typical of a 2 1/2-year-old child?

      Your Answer: Narrate stories

      Correct Answer: Ask 'where' questions

      Explanation:

      Language/Communication milestones of 2 years old:Points to things or pictures when they are named Knows names of familiar people and body parts Says sentences with 2 to 4 words Follows simple instructions Repeats words overheard in conversation Points to things in a book

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A neonate presents with hypospadias and impalpable testes.Which of the following statements is...

    Correct

    • A neonate presents with hypospadias and impalpable testes.Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Undescended testes are associated with subfertility even if very early orchiopexy is performed

      Explanation:

      Undescended testis (UDT) is a common abnormality, affecting about 1/20 males at birth. Half of these have delayed testicular descent, with the testis in the scrotum by 10-12 weeks after term. Beyond this spontaneous descent is rare. Current treatment recommendations are that UDT beyond 3 months need surgery between 6-12 months of age. Some children have scrotal testes in infancy but develop UDT later in childhood because the spermatic cord does not elongate with age, leaving the testis behind as the scrotum moves further from the groin. The maldescended testis suffers heat stress when not at the lower scrotal temperature (33 degrees Celsius), interfering with testicular physiology and development of germ cells into spermatogonia. Recent evidence suggests orchidopexy between 6-12 months improves germ cell development, with early reports of improved fertility, but no evidence yet for changes in malignancy prognosis.Hypospadias is also a common abnormality in new-born males, affecting about 1/150 boys. Androgens control masculinization of the genital tubercle into penis between 8-12 weeks’ gestation, with tabularization of the urethra from the perineum to the tip of the glans. If this process is disrupted hypospadias occurs, with a variable proximal urethral meatus, failed ventral preputial development producing a dorsal hood, and discrepancy in the ventral versus dorsal penile length, causing a ventral bend in the penis, known as chordee. Surgery to correct hypospadias is recommended between 6-18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 2-month-old infant was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-month-old infant was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with a complaint of excessive crying during urination. The urine culture of the infant revealed E.coli. Which of the following investigations should be done next?

      Your Answer: CT kidney

      Correct Answer: US

      Explanation:

      Urine culture confirms a diagnosis of a UTI. A kidney ultrasound will be the next best investigation because it will help us to visualise the bladder, kidneys, and ureters to rule out any congenital obstruction in the urinary tract that might be the actual cause of infection in this 2-month old girl.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 6-year-old girl develops central precocious puberty. Which of the following conditions is...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl develops central precocious puberty. Which of the following conditions is the most likely aetiology for her condition?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally early age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. Precocious puberty may be central (true) or peripheral (false) based on the aetiology. Central precocious puberty is due to the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which in turn leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics at an earlier than usual age. Central precocious puberty is mostly idiopathic, but other causes include congenital or prolonged, untreated hypothyroidism, congenital or acquired central nervous system pathologies, and several genetic syndromes like Silver-Russell syndrome. The other mentioned choices cause peripheral or false precocious puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents...

    Correct

    • A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents take him to their GP, worried that he isn't communicating with them like he used to.What is the most likely complication of meningitis that he developed?

      Your Answer: Sensorineural deafness

      Explanation:

      Possible complications include:- Hearing loss (which may be partial or total)- problems with memory and concentration- problems with coordination and balance- learning difficulties (which may be temporary or permanent)- epilepsy (Seizures)- cerebral palsy- speech problems- vision loss (which may be partial or total)As hearing loss is the most common complication of meningitis people recovering from the condition are usually given a hearing test to assess their hearing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the case of a mother with HIV infection?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine transmission of HIV occurs in up to 40% of untreated maternal infections

      Correct Answer: The risk of HIV vertical transmission is increased by concurrent maternal Hepatitis C infection

      Explanation:

      To prevent mother to child transmission in the case of an HIV infected mother, guidelines have been put in place in the that guide practices. During pregnancy the risk of intrauterine transmission is quite low, as is the risk of transmission during vaginal delivery. As a result the number of women that choose to have caesarean sections have fallen, with vaginal births increasing by 40%. One factor that can however increase the risk of mother to child HIV transmission is concurrent Hepatitis C infection which double the risk of vertical transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 13 yr. old boy presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion. According...

    Incorrect

    • A 13 yr. old boy presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion. According to his mother who was also present, his exercise tolerance has been gradually worsening for the past weeks. It has reached the point where he is unable to participate in his weekly soccer match. Cardiac catherization was performed and the results are given below. Oxygen Saturation Levels:
      • Superior vena cava: 73%
      • Right atrium: 71%
      • Right ventricle: 72%
      • Pulmonary artery: 86%
      • Left ventricle: 97%
      • Aorta: 96%
      Pressure Measurements:
      • Right atrium: 6 mmHg
      • Pulmonary artery: 53/13 mmHg
      • PCWP (Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure): 15 mmHg
      • Left ventricle: 111/10 mmHg
      • Aorta: 128/61 mmHg
      Which of the following is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      Key observations in the results:

      1. Oxygen Saturation Step-Up:
        • There is a significant step-up in oxygen saturation from the right ventricle (72%) to the pulmonary artery (86%). This suggests the presence of left-to-right shunting of blood.
      2. Pressure Differences:
        • The pressure in the pulmonary artery is elevated (53/13 mmHg), indicating pulmonary hypertension.

      Differential Diagnosis:

      1. Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA):
        • PDA can cause increased pulmonary blood flow, leading to a step-up in oxygen saturation in the pulmonary artery. The pulmonary artery pressures can also be elevated due to increased blood flow.
      2. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension:
        • Typically presents with elevated pulmonary pressures but does not usually show a step-up in oxygen saturation.
      3. Pulmonary Stenosis:
        • Would result in elevated right ventricular pressure but would not explain the step-up in oxygen saturation.
      4. Septum Primum Atrial Septal Defect (ASD):
        • Would result in a step-up in oxygen saturation from the right atrium to the right ventricle, not between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery.
      5. Tetralogy of Fallot:
        • Characterized by right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, VSD, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an overriding aorta. Oxygen saturation levels would typically be lower in the systemic circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains of anaesthesia of the web spaces between his first and second toes. Injury to which of the following nerves leads to this presentation?

      Your Answer: Sural nerve

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve lies in the anterior muscular compartment of the lower leg and can be compromised by compartment syndrome affecting this area. It provides cutaneous sensation to the first web space. The superficial peroneal nerve provides more lateral cutaneous innervation.Origin: It originates from the common peroneal nerve, at the lateral aspect of the fibula, deep to peroneus longus. Root values of common peroneal nerve: L4, L5, S1, and S2.Course and relation: It pierces the anterior intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Following which, it passes anteriorly down to the ankle joint, midway between the two malleoli. It terminates in the dorsum of the foot.Throughout the course it innervates:- Tibialis anterior- Extensor hallucis longus- Extensor digitorum longus- Peroneus tertius- Extensor digitorum brevisAt its termination, it innervates the skin in the web space between the first and second toes.Actions performed by the muscles supplied by the nerve:- Dorsiflexion of ankle joint- Extension of all toes- Inversion of the foot

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 15-year-old girl has a 5-day history of fever, general malaise and headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl has a 5-day history of fever, general malaise and headache and has developed diffuse raised oedematous papules. These lesions are typical of erythema multiforme. Which one of the following is true?

      Your Answer: The lesions have an asymmetrical distribution

      Correct Answer: The lesions will heal without scarring

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme lesions typically heal without scarring. Other options:- In erythema multiforme, lesions are typically symmetrical and acral, i.e. on the hands, feet and limbs. – HSV is a common cause of erythema multiforme in children, accounting for at least 50% of cases| the lesions typically have damaged skin in the centre and are dusky and bullous (in contrast to urticaria, where the centre of the lesion is normal).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he has achieved normal developmental miles stones so far?

      Your Answer: Remove one item of clothing on request (e.g. sock)

      Correct Answer: Pick up a raisin between forefinger and thumb

      Explanation:

      In a child with an age of 12 months – pincer grasp should be well developed. It is essential to have a good grasp of important milestones. Most 12-month-old children will be mobile, by standing holding onto a support, lifting one foot and moving it sideways (‘cruising’ around the furniture). They will demonstrate a neat pincer grasp, e.g. picking up a raisin or piece of paper between the tip of the index finger and the thumb. Words (or meaningful word-like utterances) are produced, but words are not usually chosen and put together deliberately by a child until after the second birthday (typically around the age of 30 months). Word combinations used earlier than this are likely to be an echo of a learnt phrase which may be understood by the child to be one single word even though they are a combination of more than one word (e.g. daddy, home). Building a tower of three cubes and following a one-step command such as ‘take off your socks’, is expected at 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic hepatitis B. The mothers latest results are as follows:HBsAg PositiveHBeAg PositiveWhat is the most appropriate strategy for reducing the vertical transmission rate?

      Your Answer: Give the mother hepatitis B immunoglobulin shortly before birth + the newborn hepatitis B vaccine

      Correct Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      The Green Book guidelines report in an active infection (HBeAg+ and HBsAg+) to give the vaccine as well as immunoglobulin. If antibodies are present it is not active infection (anti-Hbe) and then in that case only the vaccine, and no immunoglobulin, would be given. The presence of HBeAg means a person is infectious and can transmit to other people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are small soft and located in the scrotum.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mumps orchitis

      Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) is due to isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. The hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 5 week old boy presents for developmental assessment. Clinical examination reveals a...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 week old boy presents for developmental assessment. Clinical examination reveals a bluish, well-circumscribed lesion located on the bridge of the nose. It measures 5 mm in diameter and feels firm to the touch. Parents admit that the mass was not present at birth. They have noticed that the lesion gets bigger when the baby cries and then it gets back to its initial size. Doctors suspect a capillary haemangioma. What would you advise the parents?

      Your Answer: Referral to a plastic surgeon is required for consideration of removal of the lesion

      Correct Answer: Arrange follow-up for the child in the outpatient clinic to monitor the growth of the lesion over the coming weeks

      Explanation:

      Capillary haemangiomas (strawberry naevi) are very common benign tumours that may appear in infancy. This particular case requires a close follow-up to monitor the naevus’ size and make sure it doesn’t expand or gets bigger, affecting the baby’s visual field.It is more common in preterm babies and girls are 3x more commonly affected than boys. It presents at birth in 30%, and is a focal and solitary in 80% of cases, most commonly found on the head and neck (60%), followed by the trunk (25%) and extremities (15%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A study done on a group of epileptics records the numbers of...

    Incorrect

    • A study done on a group of epileptics records the numbers of seizures in the weeks before and after a dietary intervention. The decrease in seizures is on average 20. (95% CI=15 to 25| P=0.0024)Which of the following options is true?

      Your Answer: There cannot be any confounding because the patients act as their own controls

      Correct Answer: This is a before and after study with no control group and so the results should be viewed with great caution

      Explanation:

      While the results of this before and after study can provide some preliminary insight into the effects of the dietary intervention, the results should be viewed with great caution as they may be considered merely anecdotal. The lack of a control group contributes to confounding the data. Therefore, while the difference may be statistically significant and the confidence interval is compatible with a fall in the number of seizures after therapy, the results cannot be introduced as the standard without a control group to compare with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Which is not a variation of lichen planus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is not a variation of lichen planus?

      Your Answer: Planopilaris

      Correct Answer: Sclerotic

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation of lichen planus has several variations, as follows:- Hypertrophic lichen planus- Atrophic lichen planus- Erosive/ulcerative lichen planus- Follicular lichen planus (lichen planopilaris)- Annular lichen planus- Linear lichen planus- Vesicular and bullous lichen planus- Actinic lichen planus- Lichen planus pigmentosus- Lichen planus pemphigoides

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - Which of the given statements is correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given statements is correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome?

      Your Answer: The karyotype is 47, XYY

      Correct Answer: Fertility is affected

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter’s syndrome is the most common sex chromosome linked disorder with a karyotype of 47XXY. The incidence of the disease is 1 in 500-1000 male births. Childhood presentation consists of unusual growth spurt along with learning difficulties and delayed speech. The adolescence is marked by abnormal sexual maturation leading to hypogonadism and sub-fertility in adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Which of the following segments of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following segments of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization?

      Your Answer: QRS complex

      Correct Answer: T wave

      Explanation:

      The T wave represents ventricular repolarization. Other options:- P wave:Depolarization that spreads from the SA node throughout the atria. The wave lasts 0.08 to 0.1 seconds (80-100 ms).The isoelectric period after the P wave represents the time in which the impulse is travelling within the AV node.- P-R interval:Time from the onset of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex. The wave ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 seconds in duration.Represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization- QRS complex:It represents ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds.- ST-segment:The isoelectric period following the QRS. It represents the period in which the entire ventricle is depolarized and roughly corresponds to the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential- U wave: It is a small positive wave which may follow the T wave. It represents the last remnants of ventricular repolarization.- Q-T intervalIt represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur, and therefore roughly estimates the duration of an average ventricular action potential.The interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate.At high heart rates, ventricular action potentials shorten in duration, which decreases the Q-T interval. Therefore the Q-T interval is expressed as a corrected Q-T (QTc) by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval (interval between ventricular depolarizations). This allows an assessment of the Q-T interval that is independent of heart rate.The normal corrected Q-Tc interval is less than 0.44 seconds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A two-sample t-test comparing weight loss after two different diet regimes yield a...

    Incorrect

    • A two-sample t-test comparing weight loss after two different diet regimes yield a P-value of 0.001.Which one of the following statements can be deducted from this finding?

      Your Answer: One treatment regime leads to a much bigger weight loss

      Correct Answer: The difference would have occurred by chance for a study of this size only once in 1000 times if the two regimes did not differ in their effect

      Explanation:

      The P value is defined as the probability under the assumption of no effect or no difference (null hypothesis), of obtaining a result equal to or more extreme than what was actually observed. The P stands for probability and measures how likely it is that any observed difference between groups is due to chance. Being a probability, P can take any value between 0 and 1. Values close to 0 indicate that the observed difference is unlikely to be due to chance, whereas a P value close to 1 suggests no difference between the groups other than due to chance. Thus, it is common in medical journals to see adjectives such as “highly significant” or “very significant” after quoting the P value depending on how close to zero the value is.A lower p-value is sometimes interpreted as meaning there is a stronger relationship between two variables. However, statistical significance means that it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true (less than 5%).To understand the strength of the difference between two groups (control vs. experimental) a researcher needs to calculate the effect size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 12-year old boy with cystic fibrosis is here for his annual review....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year old boy with cystic fibrosis is here for his annual review. Which of the following diets is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: High calorie and high fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for evening meal

      Correct Answer: High calorie and high fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for every meal

      Explanation:

      The management of cystic fibrosis requires a multidisciplinary approach, starting with a planned diet.The critical points of this management approach are:Chest physiotherapy and postural drainage – the parents are usually taught to do this.Deep breathing exercises,High calorie, high fat intake with vitamin supplementation.Pancreatic enzyme supplements with meals.Heart-lung transplantation would be the definitive treatment.Note: Previously, a high-calorie, low-fat diet was recommended to reduce steatorrhea. However, it is no longer the desired approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A new-born infant deteriorates on the postnatal ward. The child is breathless with...

    Correct

    • A new-born infant deteriorates on the postnatal ward. The child is breathless with no murmurs, 3 cm liver edge, and poor femoral pulses. She is acidotic with elevated lactate. Mum did not attend the antenatal screening. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the aorta may be defined as a constricted aortic segment that comprises localized medial thickening, with some infolding of the medial and superimposed neointimal tissue.The presence of associated defects and aortic arch anomalies, the extent of patency of the ductus arteriosus, the rapidity of the process of closure of the ductus arteriosus, and the level of pulmonary vascular resistance determine the timing of clinical presentation and the severity of symptoms. Young patients may present in the first few weeks of life with poor feeding, tachypnoea, and lethargy and progress to overt CHF and shock. These patients may have appeared well before hospital discharge, and deterioration coincides with closure of the patent ductus arteriosus. Presentation may be abrupt and acute with ductal closure.Neonates may be found to have tachypnoea, tachycardia, and increased work of breathing and may even be moribund with shock. Keys to the diagnosis include blood pressure (BP) discrepancies between the upper and lower extremities and reduced or absent lower extremity pulses to palpation. However, when the infant is in severe heart failure, all pulses are diminished.The murmur associated with coarctation of the aorta may be nonspecific yet is usually a systolic murmur in the left infraclavicular area and under the left scapula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood results show:fasting plasma glucose level: 6 mmol/l (3– 6)sodium 148 mmol/l (137–144)potassium 4.5 mmol/l (3.5–4.9)calcium 2.8 mmol/l (2.2–2.6). However, he still complains of polyuria, polydipsia and nocturia.What could be the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Primary polydipsia

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH| also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney.The boy most probably has nephrogenic diabetes insidious (DI) not central DI so he is not responding to the ADH treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their child may have stopped growing. Which of the following hormones is chiefly responsible for cessation of growth and epiphyseal fusion?

      Your Answer: Testosterone

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      Many factors are related with the stimulation of bone formation and growth, the pubertal growth spurt, epiphyseal senescence, and fusion, including nutritional, cellular, paracrine, and endocrine factors. An important cellular factor in these processes is the differentiation and aging of chondrocytes in the growth plate. Important paracrine factors include the many molecular pathways involved in chondrocyte differentiation, vascularization, and ossification. Oestrogen and the GH-IGF-I axis are important endocrine factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with right knee pain. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with right knee pain. On examination, her eyes were red. But she denied any ocular or visual discomfort.Which of the following should be suspected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Corneal foreign body

      Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      When a child with joint problems presents with red-eye, the likelihood of anterior uveitis must be excluded by involving an ophthalmologist in the assessment. This is because uveitis is the most common extra-articular manifestation of juvenile idiopathic arthritis.Other options:- Cataract: It does not give rise to a red-eye, but leukocoria. Often this would have been picked up at an earlier age. – A patient with a corneal foreign body almost would almost invariably give a suspicious history (onset while playing outdoors etc.), as well as have marked symptoms of ocular discomfort (red, watery and painful eyes). – A child with periorbital cellulitis often presents acutely unwell and distressed. – A child with an uncorrected refractive error often complains of being unable to see in class and does not normally present with ocular redness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Two healthy parents have two children, one with cystic fibrosis and the other...

    Incorrect

    • Two healthy parents have two children, one with cystic fibrosis and the other one healthy. What are the chances of the third child being a carrier?

      Your Answer: 1 in 4

      Correct Answer: 1 in 2

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that a person might be a carrier of the disease without developing it. If the unaffected partner is a carrier, then there is a 50% chance of inheritance and a 50% chance of having a child who is a carrier. However, if the partner is not a carrier, the offspring will not develop the disease but the possibility of being a carrier raises up to 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Scarring type of alopecia occurs in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Scarring type of alopecia occurs in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Alopecia areata

      Correct Answer: Discoid lupus

      Explanation:

      Alopecia is a scalp condition characterized by either overall baldness or patches of hair loss over the head. It can be broadly classified as scarring alopecia and non-scarring alopecia. Non-scarring is the most common type and is seen in various conditions like nutritional deficiencies, alopecia areata, hypothyroidism, tinea capitis, and SLE. Scarring alopecia is commonly seen in cases of discoid lupus erythematosus, which is a common cause of widespread inflammatory and scarring lesions all over the body and scalp.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 16-year-old boy presents to the physician with a history of easy bruising...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents to the physician with a history of easy bruising and epistaxis since childhood. He recently had a dental extraction after which the bleeding lasted for 30 hours. His labs are sent and the reports are as follows: APTT: 36 secondsPT: 15 secondsFibrinogen: 2.5 g/lFactor VIIIC: 0.4 iu/ml (normal range 0.5-1.5)vWF antigen: 0.35 iu/ml (normal range 0.45-1.4)vWF ristocetin co-factor: 0.05 iu/ml (normal 0.45-1.35)PLT: 230 x 109/lBleeding time: 12 mins (normally up to 8 mins). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia A

      Correct Answer: von Willebrand disease type II

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand disease (VWD), a congenital bleeding disorder caused by deficient or defective plasma von Willebrand factor (VWF), may only become apparent on haemostatic challenge, and bleeding history may become more apparent with increasing age. Type 1 VWD (,30% of VWD) typically manifests as mild mucocutaneous bleeding. Type 2 VWD accounts for approximately 60% of VWD. Type 2 subtypes include: Type 2A, which usually manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2B, which typically manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding that can include thrombocytopenia that worsens in certain circumstances| Type 2M, which typically manifests as mild-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2N, which can manifest as excessive bleeding with surgery and mimics mild haemophilia A. Type 3 VWD (<10% of VWD) manifests with severe mucocutaneous and musculoskeletal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 10-year-old girl was brought to the hospital following a seizure episode. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl was brought to the hospital following a seizure episode. On examination, hypopigmented macules were found on her abdomen with acne-like eruptions on her face. Also, her fingers show small periungual fibrous papules. Her parents said that she has learning disabilities. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osler’s disease

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis (Bourneville’s disease)

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient, according to the clinical scenario provided is tuberous sclerosis. It is an autosomal-dominant disorder characterised by hamartomas located throughout the body, often prominently involving the central nervous system and skin. Two loci on chromosomes 9 and 16 have been identified to be associated with this condition. The condition has a variable expression and penetrance and is further characterised by:- Seizures (usually infantile spasms)- Developmental delay- Facial/cutaneous angiofibromas (adenoma sebaceum)- Periungual fibromas (pink projections from the nail folds)- Shagreen patches (leathery thickenings of the skin usually on the back) – Ash leaf macules (areas of depigmentation that become visible under a Wood’s light)- Fundoscopy may reveal white streaks along the fundal vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A male had a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in his left calf. After...

    Incorrect

    • A male had a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in his left calf. After investigation, it was discovered that this was caused by a genetic disease and his children may be affected.What is the most common heritable cause of DVT?

      Your Answer: Antithrombin deficiency

      Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden

      Explanation:

      Based on the studies, genetic factors are responsible for approximately 60 % DVT cases. Factor V (FV) Leiden which is the most common cause of inherited thrombophilia, predisposes patients to DVT because of resistance to protein C.The heritable causes of deep vein thrombosis, from most to least common are:Factor V LeidenProthrombin G20210A variantProtein C deficiencyProtein S deficiencyAntithrombin deficiencyVon Willebrand disease and thalassaemia are not causes of DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Which of the following are associated with port wine stains? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are associated with port wine stains?

      Your Answer: Vitiligo

      Correct Answer: Epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Port-wine stains are a type of vascular birthmark caused by the abnormal development of capillaries in the skin. These pinkish-purplish discolorations present at birth and are associated with medical conditions such as Sturge-Weber syndrome, a neurocutaneous disorder involving the leptomeninges. Port wine stains are therefore associated with epilepsy, glaucoma or intellectual disability common in Sturge-Weber syndrome. Additional complications of Port wine stains include a loss of function if near the eye or mouth due to hypertrophy, or glaucoma if near the eyelid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Which of the following features suggest lichen sclerosus is more likely than lichen...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features suggest lichen sclerosus is more likely than lichen planus?

      Your Answer: The lack of a basement membrane thickening

      Correct Answer: Presence of epidermal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Lichen sclerosus is a common chronic skin disorder that most often affects genital and perianal areas. LS typically presents with vulval itching and clinical findings of pallor, epidermal atrophy (cigarette paper wrinkling), purpura, and/or erosions.Lichen sclerosus (LS) and lichen planus (LP) are both immunologically mediated diseases with a preference for the genitalia. The main difference between the two conditions is that LP has a propensity to involve the mucous membranes including the mouth and vagina which are rarely affected in LS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?

      Your Answer: Zona reticularis of the adrenal

      Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata of the adrenal

      Explanation:

      Zona fasciculata of the adrenal produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body.Functions of cortisol:- Increases blood pressure: permits normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles.- Inhibits bone formation: decreases osteoblasts, type 1 collagen and absorption of calcium from the gut, and increases osteoclastic activity.- Increases insulin resistance.- Increases gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis.- Inhibits inflammatory and immune responses.- Maintains function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.An excess of corticosteroids in the body causes various symptoms that are a part of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Bell's palsy in childhood? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Bell's palsy in childhood?

      Your Answer: Prognosis is often poor

      Correct Answer: Commonly preceded by a viral infection

      Explanation:

      While the cause for Bell’s palsy is still under debate, it is observed that Bell’s palsy is often preceded by a viral infection. Bell’s Palsy:Bell’s palsy (idiopathic facial palsy) is an acute unilateral lower motor neurone palsy. It typically occurs two weeks after viral infection such as Epstein–Barr, herpes simplex, herpes zoster or mumps. A careful assessment may suggest an alternative aetiology for the acute onset of weakness, e.g. acute otitis media, Lyme disease, hypertension. Causes:In childhood, Bell’s palsy is probably a post-infectious (i.e. immune-mediated) phenomenon, while in adults, there is increasing evidence that the majority of cases follow reactivation of previous HSV infection. Management:The prognosis is generally good in childhood with full recovery in the majority. However, permanent weakness is observed in around 5%. Steroids and acyclovir may have some benefit in adults with recent onset of weakness, but the evidence of the treatment benefit is much less convincing in childhood. Exposure keratitis is an important complication and children should be managed with eye drops and taping of the eyelid at night until recovery is complete.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      81.7
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A term baby weighing 3.3kg is admitted to NICU at 3 hours old...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby weighing 3.3kg is admitted to NICU at 3 hours old with increased respiratory effort. The baby was delivered by spontaneous vaginal delivery following an uncomplicated pregnancy. Membranes ruptured 30 hours before delivery and there are no other risk factors for infection. On examination the baby is visibly tachypnoeic with intercostal recession and nasal flaring. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs. Femoral pulses are present bilaterally. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds centrally and baby has cool hands and feet. Respiratory rate is 90/min, heart rate 170/min and oxygen saturations measured on the right hand are 85% in room air. IV access has been obtained and antibiotics are being given. Enough blood was obtained for culture, blood sugar and venous blood gas. Blood sugar is 2.6 mmol/l. Blood gas shows: pH 7.25, CO2 8.5 kPa, BE –8. Despite low flow nasal cannula oxygen baby’s saturations remain around 88%. What should be the next step in this baby’s management?

      Your Answer: 3 ml/kg 10% glucose

      Correct Answer: Prepare to intubate baby

      Explanation:

      Infants may require tracheal intubation if:- direct tracheal suctioning is required- effective bag-mask ventilation cannot be provided- chest compressions are performed- endotracheal (ET) administration of medications is desired- congenital diaphragmatic hernia is suspected, or – a prolonged need for assisted ventilation exists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      315.6
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Is most commonly caused by Haemophilus influenzae

      Correct Answer: Has an above average incidence in babies with a meningomyelocele

      Explanation:

      The commonest time for bacterial meningitis is in the 1st month of life and group B Streptococcus is the commonest organism. The anterior fontanelle is full, but does not bulge with normal flexion. Neurological manifestations include seizures, irritability, poor tone, lethargy and tremors, however no findings of sensorineural deafness have been noted. One of the risk factors for introduction of meningeal infection is Meningomyelocele.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - In a double blind trial of a new diabetes medication, 25% more in...

    Incorrect

    • In a double blind trial of a new diabetes medication, 25% more in the treated group responded positively than those in the control group (95% CI 10% to 50%| P=0.004)

      Your Answer: The placebo was not adequately concealed

      Correct Answer: The therapy benefits an additional 1 in 4 (95% CI 2 to 10), patients who receive it

      Explanation:

      In the final result of this double blind study, 25% or one in four of patients who received the treatment responded positively. Though the difference is significant at P<0.05, it is better to present this as a significant difference at 0.4%. The number needed to treat (NNT) is defined as the inverse of the absolute risk reduction. Taking this as 0.25 (25%), the NNT is 1/0.25 = 4. However given the 95% confidence interval is between 10-50% for absolute risk reduction, the NNT with 95% CI is between 2 and 10. Therefore we cannot say with certainty that the NNT is at least 4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 6 year old boy presented in the emergency department with a cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy presented in the emergency department with a cough and knee swelling after falling on the road. He had a non-blanching rash on his buttocks and investigations revealed: PT=13, APTT=71, Hgb=11, WBC=8, Plt=200. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HSP

      Correct Answer: Haemophilia

      Explanation:

      From the options mentioned here, the closest diagnosis is haemophilia. This is a mixed picture, as a purpuric rash on the buttocks does not correlate with this diagnosis. However, the most appropriate diagnosis is haemophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - What class of antibodies do the anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood...

    Incorrect

    • What class of antibodies do the anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood group A belong to?

      Your Answer: IgE

      Correct Answer: IgM

      Explanation:

      The anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood group A belong to the IgM class of immunoglobulins.Note:IgM is the largest antibody formed of 5 antibodies attached together. This functions to agglutinate or clump antigens. The associated anti-A and anti-B antibodies are usually IgM produced in the first years of life by sensitisation to environmental substances such as food, bacteria, and viruses.Other options:- IgG is the most common antibody. It is a single antibody complex.- IgD is found on the surface of B-lymphocytes.- IgE is bound to tissue cells, especially mast cells and eosinophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac fossa. Doctors suspect appendicitis. The appendix derives from which of the following embryological structures:

      Your Answer: Vitello-intestinal duct

      Correct Answer: Midgut

      Explanation:

      From the midgut derives most of the small intestine as well as some parts of the large intestine, including the appendix. The appendix is at the base of caecum, up to 10cm long and mainly comprised of lymphoid tissue (Hence mesenteric adenitis may mimic appendicitis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound....

    Incorrect

    • A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound. The position has not changed despite attempting External Cephalic Version at 36 weeks and the due date is in a week. What is the preferred option of delivery for a foetus in a transverse lie?

      Your Answer: Ventouse- assisted delivery

      Correct Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      A transverse lie is a common malpresentation. It occurs when the fetal longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. The location of the spine determines if the foetus is back up (the curvature of the spine is in the upper part of the uterus) or back down (the curvature of the spine is in the lower part of the uterus).Good antenatal care, ECV, and elective caesarean section are the mainstay of the management.Spontaneous delivery of a term foetus is impossible with a persistent transverse lie and, in general, the onset of labour is an indication for the lower segment caesarean section (LSCS) in a case of a transverse lie.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      165.4
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Which of the following epilepsy syndromes is NOT benign? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following epilepsy syndromes is NOT benign?

      Your Answer: Gastaut type-idiopathic childhood occipital epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Infantile spasms

      Explanation:

      Epilepsy is a common paediatric neurologic disorder characterized by seizures of varying frequency and intensity. There are many childhood or infantile epilepsy syndromes that can be categorized as benign epilepsy syndromes as the child suffering from these usually outgrows them after reaching a certain age, and they do not lead to significant cognitive or physical impairment. Some of these may not need any treatment. Such benign epilepsy syndromes include benign rolandic epilepsy, Panayiotopoulos syndrome, Gastaut type-idiopathic childhood occipital epilepsy, and idiopathic photosensitive occipital lobe epilepsy. West syndrome, also called infantile spasms, is a serious infantile epileptic encephalopathy, characterized by multiple clusters of myoclonic spasms, and regression of the previous normally attained milestones. It is associated with severe cognitive and physical impairment, often leading to life long disability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      154.5
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - What is the most likely infectious agent implicated in mastitis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely infectious agent implicated in mastitis?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Infectious mastitis and breast abscesses are predominantly caused by bacteria that colonize the skin. S. aureus is the most common causative agent, followed by coagulase-negative Staphylococci. The majority of S. aureus isolated are now methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)Some breast infections (and up to 40% of breast abscesses) may be polymicrobial, with the isolation of aerobes (Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Enterobacteriaceae, Corynebacterium, Escherichia coli, and Pseudomonas) as well as anaerobes (Peptostreptococcus, Propionibacterium, Bacteroides, Lactobacillus, Eubacterium, Clostridium, Fusobacterium, and Veillonella). A study of primary and recurrent breast abscesses showed that smokers were more likely to have anaerobes recovered (isolated in 15% of patients).Unusual breast infections may be the initial presentation of HIV infection. Typhoid is a well-recognized cause of breast abscesses in countries where this disease is prevalent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Treacher Collins syndrome is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?...

    Incorrect

    • Treacher Collins syndrome is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer: Coloboma of lower eyelids

      Correct Answer: Hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Treacher Collins syndrome is a congenital disorder transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. The basic abnormality is the TCOF 1 gene mutation, which leads to a multitude of clinical features, of which the most striking is the symmetrical craniofacial deformities. Important clinical features include conductive deafness, coloboma of lower eyelids, cleft palate, antimongoloid (short and downward slanting) palpebral fissures, deformed or absent ears, sleep apnoea, and airway issues. Hirsutism is not a recognized feature of this syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - What is the most important investigation to perform in a 2-week-old new-born baby...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most important investigation to perform in a 2-week-old new-born baby boy who is well feed and thriving, but jaundiced?

      Your Answer: Coombs’ test

      Correct Answer: Total serum bilirubin

      Explanation:

      Usually, a total serum bilirubin level test is the only one required in an infant with moderate jaundice who presents on the second or third day of life without a history and physical findings suggestive of a pathologic process. Measurement of bilirubin fractions (conjugated vs unconjugated) in serum is not usually required in infants who present as described above. However, in infants who have hepatosplenomegaly, petechiae, thrombocytopenia, or other findings suggestive of hepatobiliary disease, metabolic disorder, or congenital infection, early measurement of bilirubin fractions is suggested. The same may apply to infants who remain jaundiced beyond the first 7-10 days of life, and to infants whose total serum bilirubin levels repeatedly rebound following treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - Which of the following pathological criteria carries the greatest prognostic weight for malignant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pathological criteria carries the greatest prognostic weight for malignant melanoma?

      Your Answer: Vascular invasion

      Correct Answer: Breslow thickness

      Explanation:

      Breslow thickness is measured from the top of the granular layer of the epidermis (or, if the surface is ulcerated, from the base of the ulcer) to the deepest invasive cell across the broad base of the tumour (dermal/subcutaneous) as described by Breslow.Margins of excision-Related to Breslow thicknessLesions 0-1mm thick – 1cmLesions 1-2mm thick – 1- 2cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions 2-4mm thick – 2-3 cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions >4 mm thick – 3cmMarsden J et al Revised UK guidelines for management of Melanoma. Br J Dermatol 2010 163:238-256.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - In the adult heart, the sinus venosus gives rise to the: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the adult heart, the sinus venosus gives rise to the:

      Your Answer: Fossa ovalis

      Correct Answer: Coronary sinus

      Explanation:

      The sinus venosus is a large quadrangular cavity which precedes the atrium on the venous side of the chordate heart. It exists distinctly only in the embryonic heart (where it is found between the two venae cavae)| however, the sinus venosus persists in the adult. In the adult, it is incorporated into the wall of the right atrium to form a smooth part called the sinus venarum, which is separated from the rest of the atrium by a ridge of fibres called the crista terminalis. The sinus venosus also forms the SA node and the coronary sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A previously well 7-week-old infant was admitted complaining of projectile vomiting following each...

    Incorrect

    • A previously well 7-week-old infant was admitted complaining of projectile vomiting following each feed. He was dehydrated on admission and IV fluids were started. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duodenal atresia

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Projectile vomiting is the hallmark symptom of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. It is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infancy, which has a male-to-female predominance of 4-5:1. Current management recommendations include ultrasonography for diagnosis, correction of electrolytes, and surgical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 15-year-old boy presents with hypertension and acute renal failure after an episode...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with hypertension and acute renal failure after an episode of diarrhoea. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemolytic–uraemic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli causing diarrhoea in these cases as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A healthy male who has a brother with cystic fibrosis. His wife, who...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy male who has a brother with cystic fibrosis. His wife, who has no family history of cystic fibrosis, wants to know their chance of having a child affected by cystic fibrosis.What is the best estimate of the risk if the population carrier rate of cystic fibrosis is 1 in 25?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 150

      Explanation:

      CF is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.This means that to have CF, a person must have a mutation in both copies of the CFTR gene in each cell. People with CF inherit one mutated copy of the gene from each parent, who is referred to as a carrier.CF carriers can pass their copy of the CFTR gene mutation to their children. Each time two CF carriers have a child together, the chances are: 25 percent (1 in 4) the child will have CF50 percent (1 in 2) the child will be a carrier but will not have CF25 percent (1 in 4) the child will not be a carrier of the gene and will not have CFThis male’s parents are obligate carrier because he has a sibling with CFSo the chances he is a carrier too are 2 in 3The risk of having an affected child is the chance of both himself and his partner being carriers: (2/3 × 1/25 = 2/75) × 1/4 = 1/150.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 1 year old child presents with barking cough, coryza and shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 year old child presents with barking cough, coryza and shortness of breath. What will be the most likely outcome associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Natural resolution

      Explanation:

      Croup is the most common aetiology for hoarseness, cough, and onset of acute stridor in febrile children. Symptoms of coryza may be absent, mild, or marked. The vast majority of children with croup recover without consequences or sequelae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - Regarding consent to randomisation, which of the given statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding consent to randomisation, which of the given statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Should be obtained as part of the overall consent to the study

      Explanation:

      Randomization is one of the ethical protocols for research work, involving unbiased sample selection. Consent is required before undertaking any research and is taken for the complete research work at once. No separate consent is required for the process of randomization. The consent should explain each and every aspect of the study, including details about the process of randomization. Only particular study designs, like Zelen design, permit the avoidance of consent to randomization but these studies have their setbacks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A young girl is brought to the ED by her parents because of...

    Incorrect

    • A young girl is brought to the ED by her parents because of increased body temperature, rhinorrhoea and an unusual bark-like cough. The girl is also drooling because of excessive salivation. What would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs described are typical for epiglottitis which represents a paediatric emergency and the child should be put immediately on corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Advanced paternal age is a risk factor for which of the following diseases?...

    Incorrect

    • Advanced paternal age is a risk factor for which of the following diseases?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinoblastoma

      Explanation:

      Advancing paternal age has been linked with lower quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility and an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Which of the following is true regarding Prader-Willi syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding Prader-Willi syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Affected individuals typically have small gonads

      Explanation:

      Prader-Willi Syndrome is a genetic disorder that occurs when a chromosome from paternal chromosome 15q is deleted or unexpressed during the formation of the egg or sperm, or in embryonic development. Individuals usually inherit one copy of this gene from each parent, and in this case on the paternal gene remains active in parts of the brain and other organs. This phenomenon is known as genetic imprinting, and is also seen in Angelman’s syndrome. Symptoms seen in Prader-Willi range from poor muscle tone during infancy to developmental and cognitive delays. Many individuals suffer from hypogonadism that affects fertility in both males and females. In Angelman’s syndrome the maternal chromosome 15q is unexpressed. The condition is also called happy puppet syndrome as affected children present with a happy demeanour, ataxic gait, and flapping movements of the limbs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - An 8 year old child complains of pain in his ear. His overall...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old child complains of pain in his ear. His overall health is normal and clinical examination reveals no discharge, hearing loss or fever. Just by looking at it, the pinna of the ear looks swollen and red. Also, pushing the tragus leads to pain. Otoscopy reveals an erythematous external auditory canal and an otherwise healthy tympanic membrane. The bony external canal courses through which bone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal bone

      Explanation:

      The external auditory canal (EAC) extends from the auricle to the tympanic membrane. Its lateral portion is fibrocartilaginous and its medial portion is bony. Its bony portion is formed by the tympanic portion of the temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - Leukocoria does NOT occur in association with which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Leukocoria does NOT occur in association with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gillespie syndrome

      Explanation:

      Leukocoria is an abnormal red reflex in which the pupil appears white. It represents various abnormalities of the visual media and is one of the primary signs of retinoblastoma. Other possible causes of leukocoria include congenital cataracts, toxocariasis, Norrie disease, retinopathy of prematurity, and Coat’s disease. Gillespie syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition characterized by congenital hypotonia, multiple ocular defects, hypoplasia of the cerebellum, and vertebral deformities. The ocular defects consist of aniridia, photophobia, reduced visual acuity, and the inability of the pupillary sphincter to contract. Leukocoria is not associated with this syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its...

    Incorrect

    • There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. Which of following is the best term which can describe the above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Standard deviation (root mean square deviation)

      Explanation:

      Standard deviation is defined as the measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. It measures the absolute variability of a distribution| the higher the dispersion or variability, the greater is the standard deviation and greater will be the magnitude of the deviation of the value from their mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - An 8-month-old infant is presented to the paediatrics ward with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-month-old infant is presented to the paediatrics ward with a history of delayed developmental milestones since birth. On examination, he has poor muscle tone and balance, and a head circumference, which is greater than normal. Imaging of the patient's head revealed a diminished cerebellar vermis, a large fourth ventricle, and an enlarged posterior fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dandy-Walker syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dandy-Walker syndrome is characterised by symptoms of brain maldevelopment that are seen in this patient. A large cranium indicates hydrocephalus, and the hypotonia indicates poor limb development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal...

    Incorrect

    • A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal nerve accidentally divided during a thyroidectomy. Which clinical features are likely to result from this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The larynx is anaesthetised inferior to the vocal cord on the affected side

      Explanation:

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) innervates all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle, which is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve (SLN).Patients with unilateral vocal fold paralysis present with postoperative hoarseness or breathiness. The presentation is often subacute. At first, the vocal fold usually remains in the paramedian position, creating a fairly normal voice. Definite vocal changes may not manifest for days to weeks. The paralyzed vocal fold atrophies, causing the voice to worsen. Other potential sequelae of unilateral vocal-fold paralysis are dysphagia and aspiration.Bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may occur after total thyroidectomy, and it usually manifests immediately after extubation. Both vocal folds remain in the paramedian position, causing partial airway obstruction. Patients with bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may present with biphasic stridor, respiratory distress, or both. On occasion, the airway is sufficient in the immediate postoperative period despite the paralyzed vocal folds. At follow-up, such patients may present with dyspnoea or stridor with exertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - Which of the following conditions is NOT autosomal dominant? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is NOT autosomal dominant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a condition that occurs almost exclusively in males. This condition is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern It is characterized by neurological and behavioural abnormalities and the overproduction of uric acid. Uric acid is a waste product of normal chemical processes and is found in blood and urine. Excess uric acid can be released from the blood and build up under the skin and cause gouty arthritis (arthritis caused by an accumulation of uric acid in the joints). Uric acid accumulation can also cause kidney and bladder stones.The nervous system and behavioural disturbances experienced by people with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome include abnormal involuntary muscle movements, such as tensing of various muscles (dystonia), jerking movements (chorea), and flailing of the limbs (ballismus). People with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome usually cannot walk, require assistance sitting, and generally use a wheelchair. Self-injury (including biting and head banging) is the most common and distinctive behavioural problem in individuals with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - A 6 month old child was brought in after choking on a foreign...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 month old child was brought in after choking on a foreign body, which had resulted in the child having difficulty breathing. The best possible site for the incision would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cricoid cartilage

      Explanation:

      Cricothyroidectomy is done in life threatening condition, where an incision is made in cricothyroid membrane to establish a patent airway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the medial aspect of the right knee joint. The pain occurs when climbing the stairs, but is not present when walking on flat ground. Clinically there is pain over the medial aspect of the proximal tibia, and the McMurray test is negative.What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pes Anserinus Bursitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s symptoms would be pes anserine bursitis.Translated, pes anserinus means goose feet. It is the term used to describe the unified bursa enclosing the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis and semitendinous muscles inserting into the anteromedial proximal tibia.Pes anserine bursitis is common in people doing sports due to overuse injuries. The main sign is of pain in the medial part of the proximal tibia. As the McMurray test is negative, medial meniscal injury is excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - A boy with Tay-Sachs disease has a sister who is normal and healthy....

    Incorrect

    • A boy with Tay-Sachs disease has a sister who is normal and healthy. What is her risk of being a carrier for the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.66

      Explanation:

      Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive disease. For the brother to present with the disease, both parents must be carriers. Therefore, with each pregnancy the probability that the child would be affected is 1 in 4| the probability that the child would be a carrier is 2 in 4| and the probability that the child would be unaffected is also 1 in 4. Unaffected children have a 2 in 3 chance, or 66%, of becoming a carrier according to the patterns of autosomal recessive inheritance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - Which of the following conditions is usually inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is usually inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis

      Explanation:

      Familial adenomatous polyposis can have different inheritance patterns.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the APC gene, it is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means one copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the disorder. In most cases, an affected person has one parent with the condition.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the MUTYH gene, it is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. Most often, the parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but do not show signs and symptoms of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - A 16-year-old boy is scheduled for a repair of an inguinal hernia. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is scheduled for a repair of an inguinal hernia. Which of the following structures must be divided to gain access to the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      External oblique forms the outermost muscle of the three muscles comprising the anterolateral aspect of the abdominal wall. Its aponeurosis comprises the anterior wall of the inguinal canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - Which cells of the pancreas secrete somatostatin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cells of the pancreas secrete somatostatin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delta cells

      Explanation:

      The normal human pancreas contains about 1,000,000 islets. The islets consist of four distinct cell types, of which three (alpha, beta, and delta cells) produce important hormones| the fourth component (C cells) has no known function.The most common islet cell, the beta cell, produces insulin.The alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans produce an opposing hormone, glucagon.The delta cells produce somatostatin, a strong inhibitor of somatotropin, insulin, and glucagon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - A 6 year old boy has been taken to his local hospital for...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy has been taken to his local hospital for his third sore throat in one month. Doctors have discovered bleeding from his gums and nose. He is also presenting with pale conjunctiva. From the list of options, what is the single cell type most likely to be seen on microscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blast cells

      Explanation:

      Many of the symptoms favour blast cells: the patient’s young age| a reoccurring sore throat caused by neutropenia and abnormal lymphoblasts| pale conjunctiva due to reduced production of red blood cells (this is because the marrow has been occupied by blast cells). There are no risk factors present for aplastic anaemia, and congenital aplastic anaemia would present itself earlier in life. A bone marrow aspiration would be needed to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - Which of following statements with regards to the developmental problems found in Fragile...

    Incorrect

    • Which of following statements with regards to the developmental problems found in Fragile X syndrome is the most accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Around one third of children with FXS meet diagnostic criteria for autistic spectrum disorder

      Explanation:

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic syndrome associated with neuro-developmental problems such as learning disabilities and cognitive impairment, with many affected children having mild to moderate intellectual disability. About a third of children have features of autism spectrum disorder and ADHD which affects their communication skills and social interactions. As such, affected individuals usually have delayed speech development and poor nonverbal skills such as gaze aversion. Symptoms tend to worsen with age into adolescence as the demands on their intellect becomes greater. Pre-mutation carriers, who posses smaller genetic repeat expansions, have been found to be associated with some neurodevelopment and other medical problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - Which of the following is true regarding group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli are the most common cause of early sepsis

      Explanation:

      Group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli are the most common cause of early sepsis. Group B Streptococcus (GBS), also known as Streptococcus agalactiae, is best known as a cause of postpartum infection and as the most common cause of neonatal sepsis. The GBS organism colonizes the vagina, GI tract, and the upper respiratory tract of healthy humans. GBS infection is almost always associated with underlying abnormalities. In elderly persons aged 70 years or older, GBS infection is strongly linked with congestive heart failure and being bedridden.Penicillin remains the drug of choice for group B streptococcal infection but resistance may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 117 - A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen. Which of the following medications can cause this side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zidovudine

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, zidovudine causes lipoatrophy as a side effect.Zidovudine: Although both hypertrophy and atrophy are described related to HIV medications, nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTIs) such as zidovudine and stavudine are closely associated with fat loss.Other options:- Enfuvirtide is an HIV-fusion inhibitor. Lipoatrophy is not commonly associated with this drug.- Efavirenz is an NNRTI, which is not associated with lipoatrophy. Common side effects include neuropsychiatric effects, rash and nausea. – Ganciclovir is not an anti-HIV medication and is used for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections.- Raltegravir is an integrase inhibitor and is associated with fat gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
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  • Question 118 - A 15-year-old boy is diagnosed with aplastic anaemia after presenting with fatigue, dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is diagnosed with aplastic anaemia after presenting with fatigue, dyspnoea and headaches. He lives on a farm and would usually play hide and seek with his siblings in the barn where the family store pesticides and other chemicals. Lab investigations reveal a significant leukopenia. Aplastic anaemia results due to failure of hematopoietic stem cells that give rise to progenitors of immune cells. In which area of the body are these cells primarily located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow

      Explanation:

      Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are a rare population of cells residing in the bone marrow (BM) and continuously replenish all mature blood cells throughout their life span.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 119 - A 5 month old boy presents with pallor but otherwise appears well and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old boy presents with pallor but otherwise appears well and healthy. The clinical examination was normal and his mother reported a good appetite. His blood results showed: Hb: 9.0 g/dl (11 – 16 g/dl)MCV: 66fl (76 – 96 fl)WBC : 5x109/L (4 – 11x109/L)Ferritin : 9ug/L (12 – 200ug/L)Serum iron : 7umol/l (14 – 31umol/l)What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia has the following laboratory characteristics: low haemoglobin, a low serum iron, a low serum ferritin, a low transferrin saturation, and a high total iron-binding capacity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
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  • Question 120 - A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg...

    Incorrect

    • A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg presents to the clinic with jaundice. He is being breastfed and his current weight is 4.5kg. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the baby's jaundice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast Milk Jaundice

      Explanation:

      Breast milk jaundice is associated with breast-feeding. It typically occurs one week after birth and can sometimes last up to 12 weeks, but it rarely causes complications in healthy, breast-fed infants. The exact cause of breast milk jaundice isn’t known. However, it may be linked to a substance in the breast milk that prevents certain proteins in the infant’s liver from breaking down bilirubin. The condition may also run in families. Breast milk jaundice is rare, affecting less than 3 percent of infants. When it does occur, it usually doesn’t cause any problems and eventually goes away on its own. It is safe to continue breast-feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 121 - A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department at about 6 am with...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department at about 6 am with reduced responsiveness and muscle rigidity. His mother reports that he attended a rave and came home euphoric, ataxic, and experiencing multiple hallucinations.Which of the following illicit substances is the most likely to have been consumed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      The given presentation is highly suggestive of withdrawal effect of ketamine.Ketamine is known for its unique property of inducing dissociative anaesthesia. Emergence phenomenon (as seen in the child in question) is an adverse effect that occurs during recovery from dissociative anaesthesia. The components of emergence phenomenon include a euphoric state associated with hallucinations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
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  • Question 122 - A child with a history of developmental delay presents with plaque-like lesions in...

    Incorrect

    • A child with a history of developmental delay presents with plaque-like lesions in the retina. The doctor suspects they are probably hamartomas. Which of the following is the most probable association?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Tuberous sclerosis, an autosomal dominant disorder, may present with a variety of symptoms, including seizures, developmental delay, behavioural problems, skin abnormalities, and lung and kidney disease. Hamartomas are often associated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 123 - A 5 year old girl presents with widespread, itchy, excoriated papules that appeared...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl presents with widespread, itchy, excoriated papules that appeared three months ago. They are symmetrically distributed and more profound on the extensor surfaces of the elbows and knees. The papules are present on the trunk as well but are less remarkable. She doesn’t have it anywhere else on her body and seems to be in a good health. The itchiness results in the girl to often scratching and popping the fluid-filled blisters that are present. There is no family history of atopy or other skin conditions. Which of the following is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac antibodies should be measured

      Explanation:

      This is the clinical picture of dermatitis herpetiformis associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. To establish the diagnosis, you should measure the coeliac antibodies. Darrier’s sign (where the skin urticates when it is stroked) is positive in urticaria pigmentosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 124 - A 1-year old infant is brought to the emergency by her parents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-year old infant is brought to the emergency by her parents with difficulty breathing. Examination reveals stridor from an oedematous airway, bilateral wheezing and low blood pressure. Which of the following medications would result in the reversal of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline (epinephrine) narrows blood vessels and opens airways in the lungs. These effects can reverse severe low blood pressure, wheezing, severe skin itching, hives, and other symptoms of an allergic reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 125 - A 7 day old baby weighed 3.5kg when born. His weight is now...

    Incorrect

    • A 7 day old baby weighed 3.5kg when born. His weight is now 3kg. Choose the most appropriate next step for this child.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue regular child care

      Explanation:

      In the first week after birth, it is normal for the baby to lose weight and then gain it again. Therefore, regular child care should be maintained.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 126 - In patients diagnosed with bulimia nervosa, which of the following laboratory parameters is...

    Incorrect

    • In patients diagnosed with bulimia nervosa, which of the following laboratory parameters is decreased?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin (CCK)

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate purging behaviour. The underlying reason for this behaviour is distorted self-image. Bulimia leads to several medical issues, including various laboratory derangements. Among these deranged laboratory parameters are the hormone cholecystokinin, which is found to be decreased in women having bulimia. It is hypothesized that the bingeing episodes observed in patients with bulimia are due to lower levels of CCK since normal levels of CCK are involved in maintaining satiety and controlling the urge to binge eat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 127 - A mother and her 2 year old girl is referred to a paediatrician...

    Incorrect

    • A mother and her 2 year old girl is referred to a paediatrician on account of concerns over a possible squint. On examination the doctor uses a pen torch to assess the symmetry of the light reflex on each cornea. The following test was used to assess the child:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hirschberg test

      Explanation:

      In the Hirschberg test, the corneal reflex should fall in the same place in both eyes. If there is a malalignment then the reflection of the light will appear in different places in the two eyes. The cover test is then used to differentiate between a latent deviation, or a manifest deviation.In the Bruckner test, the direct ophthalmoscope is used to obtain a red reflex simultaneously in both eyes. If strabismus is present, the deviated eye will have a lighter and brighter reflex than the fixating eye.The swinging flashlight test is a test of the pupils response to light, and to check for a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD).The Angle Kappa test measures the angle between the line of sight and the corneal-pupillary axis. It is a monocular measurement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 128 - A screening test is found to have a sensitivity of 90% and a...

    Incorrect

    • A screening test is found to have a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 95%.Which of the following is the best answer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An individual without disease is more likely to be correctly diagnosed via the test than someone with the disease

      Explanation:

      The sensitivity of a screening test can be described in a variety of ways, typically such as sensitivity being the ability of a screening test to detect a true positive, being based on the true positive rate, reflecting a test’s ability to correctly identify all people who have a condition, or, if 100%, identifying all people with a condition of interest by those people testing positive on the test.The specificity of a test is defined in a variety of ways, typically such as specificity is the ability of a screening test to detect a true negative, being based on the true negative rate, correctly identifying people who do not have a condition, or, if 100%, identifying all patients who do not have the condition of interest by those people testing negative on the test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 129 - A 10-year-old girl presented with a sore throat for the past three days....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presented with a sore throat for the past three days. She was taking ibuprofen and paracetamol over the counter for the pain. She was started on phenoxymethylpenicillin V following a diagnosis of tonsillitis.The next day she presents with a painful rash and feels unwell. On examination, she has extensive papular and plaque lesions. On palpation the papules desquamate. What is this sign called?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nikolskys sign

      Explanation:

      The sign being elicited in this patient is Nikolsky’s sign. Based on the findings, the patient is suffering from toxic epidermal necrolysis.Nikolskys sign: Rubbing the skin causes exfoliation of the outer layer and usually blistering within a few minutes. Other options:- Cullen’s sign: Periumbilical bruising due to intra-abdominal haemorrhage. If the discolouration is seen in the flanks, it is called Cullen’s sign. Underlying pathology includes ruptured ectopic pregnancy and haemorrhagic pancreatitis. – Forscheimer’s sign: It is a fleeting exanthem that is seen as small, red spots (petechiae) on the soft palate. Associated with rubella and glandular fever. Gorlin’s sign: It is the ability to touch the tip of the nose with the tongue. Increased incidence in children with connective tissue disorder, e.g. Ehler Danlos syndrome. – Auspitzs sign: These are small bleeding points are left behind when psoriatic scales are lifted off. It is not a very sensitive or specific sign. Other cutaneous signs include:- Hair collar sign: It is a collar of hypertrichosis around an area of cranial dysraphism.- Hertoghe’s sign (Queen Anne’s sign): It is the loss of lateral one-third of eye-brows. It is associated with numerous conditions, including lupus, HIV, and hypothyroidism. – Dariers sign: It is the swelling, itching and erythema that occurs after stroking skin lesions of a patient with systemic mastocytosis or urticarial pigmentosa. – Dermatographism: Rubbing the skin causes a raised, urticarial lesion. – Koebners phenomenon: It is the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of trauma.- Breakfast, lunch, and dinner sign: Linear pathway of a group of three to five papules caused by the common bed bug, Cimex lectularius. – Buttonhole sign: In type 1 neurofibromatosis, neurofibromas can be invaginated with the finger back into the subcutis. The nodule will reappear after the release of pressure. The sign is also positive for dermatofibromas. – Crowe’s sign: Axillary freckling seen in type I neurofibromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 130 - A young child with cystic fibrosis also suffers from malabsorption. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A young child with cystic fibrosis also suffers from malabsorption. Which of the following represent a possible state and consequence for such a child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin A deficiency and night blindness

      Explanation:

      Malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins is likely in most people with Cystic Fibrosis (CF).Factors that may contribute to fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies in CF include:- Fat maldigestion and malabsorption as a consequence of pancreatic insufficiency and bile salt deficiency.- Fat maldigestion and malabsorption due to suboptimal PERT or poor adherence to PERT especially with vitamin replacement therapy.- Poor dietary intake due to anorexia or poor dietary sources of vitamins.- Poor adherence to prescribed fat-soluble vitamin supplementation.- Inappropriate vitamin supplementation regimens.- Increased utilisation and reduced bioavailability.- Short gut syndrome due to previous bowel resection.- CF-related liver disease.- Chronic antibiotic use.Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that plays a role in the eye (dark adaptation), skin, respiratory and immune systems. Vitamin A deficiency may cause night blindness and can proceed to xerophthalmia in CF.Severe vitamin D deficiency causes rickets in children and Osteomalacia in adults.Vitamin E acts as an antioxidant reducing the effects of free radicals produced by infection and chronic inflammation, thus helping to protect cell membranes from oxidative damage.Vitamin E deficiency has been associated with haemolytic anaemia in infants and may cause ataxia, neuromuscular degeneration and compromised cognitive function. Oxidative stress is enhanced in CF due to chronic respiratory inflammation.Vitamin K is important for blood coagulation and bone health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
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  • Question 131 - Which of the following features is true of Alport syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is true of Alport syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is caused by defects in collagen

      Explanation:

      Alport syndrome is a genetic condition characterized by kidney disease, hearing loss, and eye abnormalities. Alport syndrome can have different inheritance patterns. About 80 percent of cases are caused by mutations in type IV collagen genes (COL4A5) and are inherited in an X-linked autosomal recessive pattern, although other inheritance patterns exist. Alport syndrome has autosomal dominant inheritance in about 5 percent of cases.

      People with Alport syndrome experience progressive loss of kidney function. Almost all affected individuals have blood in their urine (haematuria), which indicates abnormal functioning of the kidneys. Many people with Alport syndrome also develop high levels of protein in their urine (proteinuria). The kidneys become less able to function as this condition progresses, resulting in end-stage renal disease (ESRD).

      People with Alport syndrome frequently develop sensorineural hearing loss, which is caused by abnormalities of the inner ear, during late childhood or early adolescence. Affected individuals may also have misshapen lenses in the eyes (anterior lenticonus) and abnormal coloration of the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye (retina). These eye abnormalities seldom lead to vision loss.

      Significant hearing loss, eye abnormalities, and progressive kidney disease are more common in males with Alport syndrome than in affected females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 132 - A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly,...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      Maternal and fetal toxoplasma infection may be avoided by advising pregnant women to wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter and to cook meat thoroughly. Affected babies are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 133 - All of the given options cause persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the given options cause persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenylketonuria

      Explanation:

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a serious condition that needs prompt attention and management. The accepted criteria to define neonatal hypoglycaemia is blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. Multiple aetiologies and various risk factors are involved in causing hypoglycaemia in new-borns| the most common and important causes include prematurity, erythroblastosis fetalis, hypoxia at birth, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, hypopituitarism, and hyperinsulinism due to maternal diabetes. Inborn errors of metabolism that lead to persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia are maple syrup urine disease, glycogen storage disease, fatty acid enzyme deficiencies, and fructose intolerance. Phenylketonuria does not cause hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 134 - A young boy presents with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis. He...

    Incorrect

    • A young boy presents with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis. He has a history of neglect and poor dental hygiene.Which organism is likely to have caused his endocarditis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococci viridans

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis occurs when microorganisms enter the bloodstream and infect damaged endocardium or endothelial tissue. It most commonly involves the heart valves (either native or prosthetic), but it may also occur at the site of a septal defect, on the chordae tendineae, or on the mural endocardium. The prototypic lesion is at the site of the infection| the vegetation is a mass of platelets, fibrin, microcolonies of microorganisms, and scant inflammatory cells. Endocarditis is classified as acute or subacute, which applies to the features and the progression of infection until diagnosis.The oral cavity, the skin, and the upper respiratory tract are the primary portals for Streptococcus viridans| Staphylococcus species| and Haemophilus aphrophilus, Aggregatibacter (formerly Actinobacillus) actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, and Kingella kingae (HACEK) organisms. Streptococcal and staphylococcal organisms are responsible for more than 80% of cases of bacterial IE.Streptococcus viridans accounts for approximately 50-60% of cases of subacute disease.While S aureus infection is the most common cause of IE, including Prosthetic valve endocarditis, acute IE, and IV Drug Abusers IE

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 135 - A 14-year-old male was involved in a bicycle accident. He was brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old male was involved in a bicycle accident. He was brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain. On the CT scan of the abdomen, a hematoma was present beneath the capsule of the spleen. His BP and pulse were normal. What is the next step in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to surgeons for observation

      Explanation:

      A surgeon will observe the patient and will decide which procedure he needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 136 - Childhood absence epilepsy is characterized by which of the given facts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Childhood absence epilepsy is characterized by which of the given facts?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3-Hz spike-and-slow-wave complexes are seen on electroencephalograms (EEGs)

      Explanation:

      Absence epilepsy is the most common type of generalized childhood epilepsies. It is mainly idiopathic, but 10-40% of the cases have a positive family history. It is characterized by frequent absence seizures and periods of unconsciousness. The hallmark of absence epilepsy on EEG is the bilaterally synchronous 2–4 Hz spike and wave discharges (SWDs). The average age of onset is around 4-8 years, being more prevalent among girls. Treatment resistance is not common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 137 - The clinical findings in infective endocarditis do NOT include which of the following?...

    Incorrect

    • The clinical findings in infective endocarditis do NOT include which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beau's lines

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is an acute infective pathology of the endocardium secondary to some underlying cardiac pathology like VSD and TOF. Most commonly, it is bacterial in origin, caused by staphylococcus aureus in the majority of cases. Clinical features include fever, arthralgias, weight loss, anorexia, new-onset, or changing existing murmur. Skin manifestations include Osler’s nodes, Janeway lesions, splinter haemorrhages, and clubbing. Roth spots are conjunctival haemorrhages found in IE. Beau’s lines are not found in IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 138 - A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he had three attacks in one year. What is the best management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat when ill

      Explanation:

      At least seven episodes in the previous year, five episodes in each of the previous two years, or three episodes in each of the previous three years are indications for tonsillectomy. Antibiotics should be administered in the conventional dosage for proved or suspected streptococcal episodes. For now the child should be treated on a case by case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 139 - Alexander is a developing and active 2 year old boy. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Alexander is a developing and active 2 year old boy. Which of the following commands would he be able to follow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Point to three body parts

      Explanation:

      A 2 year old child who is developing normally should be able to point to three body parts, identify familiar objects in his environment such as a crayon or a toy and follow simple instructions.At 3 years old he should be able to copy a circle, jump up and down and name three colours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 140 - Which of the given laboratory findings is NOT suggestive of Fanconi syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given laboratory findings is NOT suggestive of Fanconi syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haematuria

      Explanation:

      Fanconi syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by defective proximal renal tubular reabsorption, which leads to excessive excretion of potassium, phosphate, uric acid, bicarbonates, glucose, and certain amino acids in the urine. Loss of potassium in the urine leads to hypokalaemia, while the loss of phosphate may lead to hypophosphatemic rickets. The overall impact is the failure to thrive and growth retardation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 141 - A 6 year old boy arrives at the clinic seven hours after having...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy arrives at the clinic seven hours after having injured his hand with a metal spike. Examination reveals a puncture wound 0.5 cm deep. His immunization schedule is uptodate. How will you manage this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetanus Ig + antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Cleansing and debridement is paramount in dealing with tetanus-prone wounds (severe crushing injuries, piercing wounds, blisters and burns are outstanding examples, particularly if contaminated with dirt, grass or other debris).Prophylaxis then is relatively easy in persons who have been actively immunized by toxoid injections. For them, a “booster” injection is indicated. There is experimental evidence that antibiotics of the tetracycline group, given soon after injury, may have prophylactic effect against tetanus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 142 - A lethargic 2-month child was brought in with symptoms of diarrhoea and vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A lethargic 2-month child was brought in with symptoms of diarrhoea and vomiting for 6 days. What is the appropriate initial investigations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urea and electrolytes

      Explanation:

      The most commonly requested biochemistry tests for renal function are the urea and electrolytes. They supply important information when it comes to homeostasis and excretion. Glomerular filtration rate is also the essential standard marker of kidney health and is assessed by checking the creatinine levels. In this case as the child has lost fluids and electrolytes, this test will indicate the extent of the loss and allow for more appropriate replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
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  • Question 143 - Which of the following conditions is most likely to permanently impair visual development...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is most likely to permanently impair visual development in a 2-year-old child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital ptosis

      Explanation:

      A drooping eyelid is called ptosis or blepharoptosis. In ptosis, the upper eyelid falls to a position that is lower than normal. Severe ptosis may cover part or all of the pupil and interfere with vision, resulting in amblyopia.Visual development in a child can be permanently impaired when there is deprivation of visual stimulation or when the oculomotor function is impaired. Congenital ptosis can represent both these components

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 144 - A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking and prostate cancer. What is the usual outcome measure in a cohort study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Relative risk

      Explanation:

      A cohort study is a particular form of longitudinal study that samples a cohort (a group of people who share a defining characteristic, typically those who experienced a common event in a selected period, such as birth or graduation), performing a cross-section at intervals through time.
      The relative risk (RR) or risk ratio is the ratio of the probability of an outcome in an exposed group to the probability of an outcome in an unexposed group. Relative risk is used in the statistical analysis of the data of experimental, cohort and cross-sectional studies, to estimate the strength of the association between treatments or risk factors, and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 145 - A 15-year-old boy diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis was initiated on treatment. A month...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis was initiated on treatment. A month later, he presents with anorexia, malaise, reduced urine output and fever. Laboratory investigations reveal: Hb - 12.6 g/dL WBC Count - 13,000/µL Urea - 30 mmol/L Creatinine - 400 µmol/L| andUrinalysis shows numerous pus cells. What is the probable cause of the presenting symptoms of the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute interstitial nephritis

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, the most likely cause for the patient’s presenting symptoms is acute interstitial nephritis secondary to anti-tubercular therapy (ATT)Drug-induced acute interstitial nephritis can occur following treatment with beta-lactams, sulphonamides, rifampicin, ethambutol, and erythromycin. They can cause an acute allergic reaction with the infiltration of immune cells.Acute interstitial nephritis is said to be the most common renal complication in patients undergoing anti-TB treatment. Rifampicin is the most implicated drug, although ethambutol can also be a cause. The pathogenesis involves an immune-complex mediated acute allergic response, which leads to their deposition on renal vessels, the glomerular endothelium, and the interstitial area. Other options:Isoniazid does not affect the kidneys. Pulmonary-renal syndrome is a feature of Goodpasture’s syndrome. It is characterized by renal failure and lung haemorrhage. Severe cardiac or renal failure ensues and is complicated by pulmonary oedema, systemic lupus erythematosus, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, and cryoglobulinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 146 - A floppy new-born baby has epicanthic folds, a thin upper lip and smooth...

    Incorrect

    • A floppy new-born baby has epicanthic folds, a thin upper lip and smooth philtrum. He was monitored closely throughout pregnancy for intra-uterine growth retardation (IUGR) and a ventricular septal defect. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal alcohol syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is a common yet under-recognized condition resulting from maternal consumption of alcohol during pregnancy. The diagnosis of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is based on findings in the following 3 areas: (1) characteristic facial anomalies (see image below), (2) growth retardation (intrauterine growth restriction and failure to have catch-up growth), and (3) CNS involvement (cognitive impairment, learning disabilities, or behavioural abnormalities).Key characteristic craniofacial abnormalities include the following:- Smooth philtrum- Thin, smooth vermilion border of the upper lipShort palpebral fissures (< 10th percentile for age)Other craniofacial abnormalities are as follows:- Midface hypoplasia- Microphthalmia- Strabismus- PtosisCNS and neurobehavioral abnormalities include the following:- Microcephaly- Intellectual impairment (mild-to-moderate mental retardation)- Cognitive impairment- Developmental delay- Irritability in infancy- Hyperactivity in childhood or attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)- Seizures- Delayed or deficient myelination- Agenesis or hypoplasia of the corpus callosumSkeletal abnormalities include the following:- Radioulnar synostosis- Flexion contractures- Camptodactyly- Aberrant palmar creases, especially hockey-stick palmar crease- Clinodactyly- Klippel-Feil anomaly- Hemivertebrae- Scoliosis- Dislocated jointsOther major congenital anomalies include the following:- Cleft palate- Heart defects- Renal anomalies- DiGeorge sequenceFunctional problems include the following:- Refractive problems (e.g., myopia, astigmatism)- Hearing lossGrowth deficiency includes the following:- Infant small for gestational age (< 10th percentile for weight or length)- Postnatal growth deficiency

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 147 - A child is brought to the hospital by his mother, who complains that...

    Incorrect

    • A child is brought to the hospital by his mother, who complains that he has been running a fever and associated with a headache.Which of the following clinical features, if present, is suggestive of raised intracranial pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, bradycardia is a feature of raised intracranial pressure.The features of raised intracranial pressure include relative bradycardia and hypertension, altered consciousness, focal neurology and seizures.All other options are signs of shock but not raised intracranial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 148 - An 18-year-old pregnant female is brought to the emergency department with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old pregnant female is brought to the emergency department with complaints of headache, blurred vision and abdominal pain. Her BP is recorded to be 160/110 mmHg and she is also found to have proteinuria. Which of the following findings will typically be found in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelets

      Explanation:

      HELLP syndrome is a complication of pregnancy characterized by haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and a low platelet count. It usually begins during the last three months of pregnancy or shortly after childbirth. HELLP syndrome is a life-threatening condition that can potentially complicate pregnancy. It is named for 3 features of the condition: Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzyme levels, and Low Platelet levels. It typically occurs in the last 3 months of pregnancy (the third trimester) but can also start soon after delivery. A wide range of non-specific symptoms may be present in women with HELLP syndrome. Symptoms may include fatigue| malaise| fluid retention and excess weight gain| headache| nausea and vomiting| pain in the upper right or middle of the abdomen| blurry vision| and rarely, nosebleed or seizures. The cause of HELLP syndrome is not known, but certain risk factors have been associated with the condition. It is most common in women with preeclampsia or eclampsia. If not diagnosed and treated quickly, HELLP syndrome can lead to serious complications for the mother and baby. The main treatment is to deliver the baby as soon as possible, even if premature, if there is distress of the mother or the baby. Treatment may also include medications needed for the mother or baby, and blood transfusion for severe bleeding problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
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  • Question 149 - Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of the following conditions is metabolic alkalosis caused by this mechanism ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a primary increase in the concentration of serum bicarbonate ions. This may occur as a consequence of a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain in bicarbonate. Hydrogen ions may be lost through the kidneys or the GI tract, as for example during vomiting, nasogastric suction or use of diuretics. Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions develops mainly during hypokalaemia to maintain neutrality. Gain in bicarbonate ions may develop during administration of sodium bicarbonate in high amounts or in amounts that exceed the capacity of excretion of the kidneys, as seen in renal failure. Fluid losses may be another cause of metabolic alkalosis, causing the reduction of extracellular fluid volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
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  • Question 150 - A 16-year-old male is learning about HIV as part of sex and relationships...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male is learning about HIV as part of sex and relationships education in school. What is the most common mode of transmission of HIV?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unprotected anal or vaginal sexual intercourse with an infected individual

      Explanation:

      Unprotected anal or vaginal sexual intercourse with an infected individual is by far the most common (95%) route by which HIV is transmitted. Other options:- Blood transfusion is an extremely rare cause of HIV transmission in the UK. – While HIV can be transmitted from mother to baby either during birth or via breastfeeding, the transmission rate is only 5 – 20%.- Sharing contaminated needles does put individuals at risk of getting HIV, although public health measures are in place to reduce this risk. – Although HIV can be transmitted via this route, it is around ten times less likely to result in transmission than unprotected anal or vaginal intercourse with an infected individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
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  • Question 151 - When sampling patients for a clinical trial the most important thing is that:...

    Incorrect

    • When sampling patients for a clinical trial the most important thing is that:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They are a random and representative sample

      Explanation:

      The selection process is based on five requirements and essentially aims to select a random representative cohort through:1.Isolating a group for which there is a greater or lesser chance of detecting a possible difference between the treatments compared|2.Establishing a homogeneous group in order to reduce the variability of response, thus making statistical comparison more sensitive and decreasing the risk of bias due to the constitution of non-homogeneous groups|3.Obtaining representative samples of the affection studied|4.Defining the rules corresponding to realistic recruitment|5.Respecting ethical obligations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 152 - Choose the karyotype associated with short stature: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the karyotype associated with short stature:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 45,XO

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome (TS) is one of the most common genetic disorders| occurs with an incidence of I: 2,500 female live births. It results from complete or partial chromosome X monosomy. TS is associated with abnormalities of the X chromosome and characteristic clinical features of short stature, gonadal dysgenesis, sexual developmental deficiencies, cardiac and/or renal defects, webbed neck, low-set ears, skeletal deformities including cubitus valgus, a propensity to ear infections and hearing deficits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 153 - A 10-month-old girl is brought to the hospital with a history of atrial...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old girl is brought to the hospital with a history of atrial septal defect and duplex kidneys and has had a successful repair of her cleft lip and palate. A cranial ultrasound scan revealed multiple choroid plexus cysts. On examination, you find a small child with micrognathia, low-set ears, and a prominent forehead and occiput. She has hypoplastic nails with an overlapping index and middle finger. Her rocker-bottom feet show no evidence of lymphoedema. Cardiovascular examination reveals a short sternum with a 2/6 pan-systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge radiating to the apex. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Edward syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Edward syndrome.Edward syndrome results from trisomy 18. It is the second most common syndrome after Down syndrome. 60% of cases die within 48 hours, and 90% within the first year due to apnoeas. Cardiovascular abnormalities include atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect and a persistent ductus arteriosus. There is no association with exophthalmos, but it may occur. Right choroid plexus cysts are found on coronal imaging, and 40–70% at post mortem are shown to have multiple large bilateral choroid plexus cysts (>10 mm). These may not become pathological but usually trigger an anomaly scan. Around 1% of cases may present with only a cyst, but 4% may present with other abnormalities.Other options:- Children with the velocardiofacial syndrome have a classic facial appearance with hypertelorism, a tubular nose, a cleft lip/palate abnormality and cardiac anomalies. – Children with Patau syndrome usually present with midline defects and are less likely to have rocker-bottom feet. – Children with Treacher Collins syndrome present with abnormalities of the branchial arches and pharyngeal pouches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 154 - A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema...

    Incorrect

    • A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema and a new vaccine for yellow fever. What is the usual outcome measure in a case-control study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Odds ratio

      Explanation:

      A case–control study (also known as case–referent study) is a type of observational study in which two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some supposed causal attribute. Case–control studies are often used to identify factors that may contribute to a medical condition by comparing subjects who have that condition/disease (the cases) with patients who do not have the condition/disease but are otherwise similar (the controls).
      An odds ratio (OR) is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. The odds ratio is defined as the ratio of the odds of A in the presence of B and the odds of A in the absence of B or vice versa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 155 - A 16-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 156 - A child is admitted with a febrile illness. Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • A child is admitted with a febrile illness. Which of the following is of concern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 6 month old with a systolic blood pressure of 60

      Explanation:

      Age (years) Respiratory rate (per minute) Heart rate (per minute) Systolic blood pressure<1 30-40 110-160 70-901-2 25-35 100-150 80-952-5 25-30 95-140 80-1005-12 20-25 80-120 90-110>12 15-20 60-100 100-120Adapted from Advanced Paediatric Life Support Manual

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 157 - A 15-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 1-week history of headaches,...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 1-week history of headaches, nasal congestion, and facial pain which becomes worse upon leaning forward. Assuming that she's suffering from sinusitis, which sinus is most commonly the site of infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maxillary

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is maxillary sinusitis.The maxillary sinus drains from its superior aspect, leaving it prone to infections. It is the most commonly affected sinus in sinusitis.Common symptoms of maxillary sinusitis include postnasal discharge, pain, headache and toothache.Radiological imaging may show a fluid level in the antrum.Common organisms causing maxillary sinusitis include Haemophilus influenzae or Streptococcus pneumoniae.Treatment with antral lavage may facilitate diagnosis and relieve symptoms. Antimicrobial therapy has to be continued for long periods. Antrostomy may be needed.Other options:- Frontal sinusitis more commonly causes intracranial complications, but it is still less frequent than maxillary sinusitis.- The petrosal sinus is not a cavity within bone| rather, it is a venous structure located beneath the brain.- Frontoethmoidal sinusitis: It usually presents with frontal headache, nasal obstruction and altered sense of smell. Inflammation may progress to involve periorbital tissues. Ocular symptoms may occur, and secondary CNS involvement brought about by infection entering via emissary veins. CT scanning is the imaging modality of choice. Early cases may be managed with antibiotics. More severe cases usually require surgical drainage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 158 - In a study, 50 out of 100 smokers developed lung cancers and 50...

    Incorrect

    • In a study, 50 out of 100 smokers developed lung cancers and 50 out of 200 non-smokers developed lung cancers. Which of the following is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Relative risk=2

      Explanation:

      Relative risk = (Incidence in exposed group)/incidence in unexposed group). So in this case RR = (50/100)/(50/200) = 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 159 - A 12-year-old boy presents with increasing unsteadiness on his feet. He also complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents with increasing unsteadiness on his feet. He also complains that he is unable to see the board at school. His mother notices that he sleeps with his light on these days and stumbles a lot in low light. Which of the following symptoms would suggest that the boy has a peroxisomal disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anosmia, hearing problems and itchy skin

      Explanation:

      From the given clinical scenario, the peroxisomal disorder in question is Refsum’s disease.It is characterised by anosmia, early-onset retinitis pigmentosa (night blindness), chronic ataxia, variable neuropathy, deafness and ichthyosis. It is an inherited disorder of fatty acid oxidation with phytanic acid accumulation in the blood and tissues. This leads to the motor and sensory neuropathy. Other options:- Loss of sensation in extremities, dysarthria and diabetes is suggestive of Friedrich’s Ataxia. It is the most common autosomal recessive cause of ataxia. Associated features include dysarthria, scoliosis, diabetes and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. – Numbness of the limbs, seizures and developmental delay suggests mitochondrial cytopathy such as NARP (Neuropathy, Ataxia and Retinitis Pigmentosa). Learning difficulties, developmental delays and convulsions are not uncommon, as with many mitochondrial disorders. – Rapid, chaotic eye movements, behaviour change and irritability, suggest opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome. It is thought to be a Para infectious or paraneoplastic condition (secondary to neuroblastoma) linked to an abnormal immune response. Children present unwell with altered behaviour, irritability, ataxia, random chaotic eye movements and later myoclonus. – Sweet-smelling urine, lethargy and seizures suggest Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD). It is an autosomal recessive organic acidaemia. There is a distinct sweet odour to the urine of affected individuals, particularly at times of acute illness. Without treatment, MSUD can lead to seizures, brain damage, coma and death. The most common and classic form affects babies shortly after birth, but variant forms may not be evident until later childhood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 160 - A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell off his quad bike while riding it at a high speed. He complains of neck pain and paraesthesia in his limbs. On examination, there are multiple bleeding contusions on the body. There is a handlebar bruise on his chest. And oxygen saturations are low, but heart rate is normal. Which of the following is the most likely causing his shock?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurogenic

      Explanation:

      Neurogenic shock is a devastating consequence of spinal cord injury (SCI), also known as vasogenic shock. Injury to the spinal cord results in sudden loss of sympathetic tone, which leads to the autonomic instability that is manifested in hypotension, bradyarrhythmia, and temperature dysregulation. Spinal cord injury is not to be confused with spinal shock, which is a reversible reduction in sensory and motor function following spinal cord injury. Neurogenic shock is associated with cervical and high thoracic spine injury. Early identification and aggressive management are vital in neurogenic shock to prevent secondary spinal injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 161 - A child presents with signs of a hormonal abnormality due to an abnormality...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with signs of a hormonal abnormality due to an abnormality of the G protein. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: McCune–Albright syndrome

      Explanation:

      McCune–Albright syndrome, characterised by polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café au lait spots, sexual precocity, and hyperfunction of multiple endocrine glands, is the result of G-protein abnormality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 162 - A 2 year old male is able to run down the stairs and...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old male is able to run down the stairs and say mama and dada. He can understand what he is saying and can say one word. How is this child developing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delayed speech

      Explanation:

      This child is experiencing delayed speech. By the age of 2, a child should be able to combine at least 2 words to make a very simple sentence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 163 - A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding possible delayed puberty. He was otherwise well, played sports regularly and his academic performance was good. His height was 1.7m and weight was 70 kg. On examination, he had a small penis and testes, absent pubic hair, but no other abnormalities. Investigations revealed: Serum testosterone 4 nmol/L (9-35) Plasma follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 1 U/L (1-7) Plasma luteinising hormone (LH) 1 U/L (1-10) Plasma prolactin 300 mU/L (<450) Plasma TSH 2 mU/L (0.5-5) Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kallman's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter’s syndrome: The low follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), together with the low testosterone, suggests a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. We know that there is no mental retardation, and we are told that physical examination is normal and sense of smell would usually not be tested. Consequently a diagnosis of Kallman’s is suggested. We are not told of a family history of growth delay, thus this is unlikely to be constitutional delay. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal, making hypothyroidism unlikely and this together with the normal prolactin make hypopituitarism most unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 164 - All of the given are features of cow's milk protein intolerance EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the given are features of cow's milk protein intolerance EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steatorrhoea

      Explanation:

      CMPI ( cow’s milk protein intolerance) is an immunological reaction to one or more of the many proteins found in cow’s milk. It may be IgE mediated or non-IgE mediated. The prominent signs and symptoms include sneezing, rhinorrhoea, coughing, wheezing, oral angioedema, oral itching, diarrhoea, vomiting, and bloody stools. Steatorrhea is not a recognized feature of CMPI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
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  • Question 165 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother following complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother following complaints of fatigue. Considering a possible diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia, blood investigations, including a peripheral smear, were ordered. The reports confirmed iron deficiency anaemia. Which of the following abnormal red cell types is likely to be seen in the peripheral smear of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pencil cells

      Explanation:

      A peripheral blood film in iron deficiency anaemia can reveal the following morphologically variant RBCs:- Microcytic cells- Hypochromic cells- Pencil cells- Target cellsOther options:- Schistocytes can be caused by mechanical heart valves. – Rouleaux can be seen in chronic liver disease and malignant lymphoma. – Tear-drop poikilocytes can be seen in myelofibrosis. – Acanthocytes can be seen in liver disease and McLeod blood group phenotype.Pathological red cell forms include:- Target cells: Sickle-cell/thalassaemia, iron-deficiency anaemia, hyposplenism, and liver disease.- Tear-drop poikilocytes: Myelofibrosis- Spherocytes: Hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune haemolytic anaemia- Basophilic stippling: Lead poisoning, thalassaemia, sideroblastic anaemia, and myelodysplasia- Howell-Jolly bodies: Hyposplenism- Heinz bodies: G6PD deficiency and alpha-thalassaemiaSchistocytes (‘helmet cells’): Intravascular haemolysis, mechanical heart valve, and disseminated intravascular coagulation- Pencil poikilocytes: Iron deficiency anaemia- Burr cells (echinocytes): Uraemia and pyruvate kinase deficiency – Acanthocytes: Abetalipoproteinemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 166 - A 6 month old female is brought by her parents who are concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 month old female is brought by her parents who are concerned regarding her development. Which of the following is expected of developmental milestones at this age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They enjoy playing with their parents

      Explanation:

      6 month old babies that go through normal developmental milestones, should enjoy playing with others and especially their parents.The other milestones are expected of a 9-month-old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 167 - A randomised controlled trial of a new treatment for hypertension yields a P-value...

    Incorrect

    • A randomised controlled trial of a new treatment for hypertension yields a P-value of 0.00036.Which one of the following gives the best interpretation of this information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To understand the clinical importance of the treatment we should also consider the confidence interval for the difference

      Explanation:

      The level of statistical significance is often expressed as a p-value between 0 and 1. The smaller the p-value, the stronger the evidence that you should reject the null hypothesis.A p-value less than 0.05 (typically ≤ 0.05) is statistically significant. It indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis, as there is less than a 5% probability the null is correct (and the results are random). Therefore, we reject the null hypothesis, and accept the alternative hypothesis.However, this does not mean that there is a 95% probability that the research hypothesis is true. The p-value is conditional upon the null hypothesis being true is unrelated to the truth or falsity of the research hypothesis.A lower p-value is sometimes interpreted as meaning there is a stronger relationship between two variables. However, statistical significance means that it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true (less than 5%).To understand the strength of the difference between two groups (control vs. experimental) a researcher needs to calculate the effect size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 168 - A 3-year-old girl presents with pallor and marked gland enlargement. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl presents with pallor and marked gland enlargement. She has been unwell for the past three weeks. She had a full term normal delivery with no neonatal problems. Her immunisations are up to date. There is no family or social history of note. On examination, her temperature is 37.6°C, and she looks pale and unwell. She has a few petechiae on the neck and palate, with moderate generalised lymphadenopathy and a 3 cm spleen. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma: The history is of enlarged reticuloendothelial system with abnormalities in all 3 cell lines of the bone marrow (pallor, fever and petechiae). The most likely diagnosis is therefore acute (lymphoblastic) leukaemia. Lymphadenopathy may be prominent: mediastinal nodes are characteristic of T-cell leukaemia. In lymphoma the marrow involvement tends to be much less.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 169 - A 19-year-old male newly diagnosed with HIV is initiated on highly active antiretroviral...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male newly diagnosed with HIV is initiated on highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). He was previously well and had no past medical or psychiatric history. A few days after starting the medication, he develops poor sleep and nightmares, with low mood and suicidal ideation. Which antiretroviral agent is most probably responsible for the side effects mentioned?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Efavirenz

      Explanation:

      The antiretroviral agent for the side effects mentioned is most probably, efavirenz.Efavirenz is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and the most likely cause of new-onset psychiatric symptoms in someone taking HAART. In this scenario the patient had no pre-existing mental health problems, as other antiretrovirals can cause depression and suicidal ideation in those who have a past psychiatric history. Symptoms usually subside after a few weeks of treatment.Other options:- Emtricitabine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and is also not known to cause psychiatric side effects. The most common side effects of Emtricitabine are rash and darkening of the palms or soles.- Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, which can cause insomnia, but does not commonly cause other psychiatric symptoms.- Rilpivirine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, which can cause depression. However, this is more common in those with a history of mental health problems.- Tenofovir is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. The most common side effect of Tenofovir is gastrointestinal upset. It is not known to cause psychiatric side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
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  • Question 170 - What is the average age that puberty starts in boys? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average age that puberty starts in boys?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 years

      Explanation:

      Puberty is when a child’s body begins to develop and change as they become an adult.The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11, while for boys the average age is 12.It’s completely normal for puberty to begin at any point from the ages of 8 to 14. The process can take up to 4 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 171 - A 5 year old diabetic boy had a blood sugar level of 3.0...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old diabetic boy had a blood sugar level of 3.0 mmol/L before eating a large meal at 6pm, presents with difficulties raising his blood glucose after the meal. His parents gave him a slightly lower insulin dose with the meal than usual. Blood glucose levels are not rising above 6 mmol/L. Parents are worried and do not want to send him to bed. What is the single most appropriate advice for the parents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A fast acting glucose source would have been preferable to treat the hypoglycaemia and should be considered in the future

      Explanation:

      The boy presented with mild hypoglycaemia and should be managed at home with fast-acting carbs. He should not sleep immediately. His parents should monitor his blood glucose every hour without letting him sleep in between.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 172 - A well preterm baby in a thermo-neutral environment requires how much energy to...

    Incorrect

    • A well preterm baby in a thermo-neutral environment requires how much energy to maintain essential body functions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50kcal/kg/day

      Explanation:

      The average amount of energy required by a well preterm baby in a thermo-neutral environment is 50/kcal/kg to maintain essential body functions while it takes about 70 kcal/kg/day for optimal growth. It is important to ensure that enough proteins are given per calorie to limit catabolism and promote cell building. Caloric need usually increases when the baby is ill.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
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  • Question 173 - A 5 month old baby presents with irritability, fever, high pitched cry, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old baby presents with irritability, fever, high pitched cry, and pustular discharge from both ears. He has been feeding poorly for the last two days. Clinical examination reveals a full fontanelle but no other neurological signs. The doctor performs a lumbar puncture, took a blood sample, and started him on IV antibiotics. What would be the expected CSF picture for bacterial meningitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CSF glucose: blood glucose 0.4, protein 0.2g/l. Cells 400, 390 polymorphs, 10 lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      The CSF picture in bacterial meningitis has the following characteristics: several polymorphs, cells, protein that is maximum 5g/l, a few lymphocytes and glucose that accounts for the two thirds of the blood level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 174 - A 17-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother with complaints of poor feeding and tachypnoea a week after experiencing a coryzal illness. His cardiac examination is unremarkable apart from a third heart sound being present. His chest radiograph shows cardiomegaly and bilateral interstitial shadowing. Blood investigations, renal function, and anti-streptolysin O test (ASCOT) are all within normal limits. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie myocarditis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis based on the clinical presentation is myocarditis secondary to Coxsackie virus infection.Myocarditis is an important cause of acquired heart failure. The other infective causes of myocarditis are influenza and adenoviruses, and bacterial causes as seen with Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease). Rheumatic fever is unlikely if the ASO titres are within normal limits. While pancarditis may occur as part of Kawasaki disease| the patient is unlikely to present in failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 175 - A 17 year old boy who was previously well and healthy presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 17 year old boy who was previously well and healthy presents to the physician after his teachers complained of his dropping grades. On clinical examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease. The ultrasound reveals cirrhosis and the blood ceruloplasmin levels are low. Wilsons disease is suspected. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present in addition to the above findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kayser–Fleischer rings

      Explanation:

      A minority of affected individuals may experience severe liver failure. This happens most frequently in people with Wilson’s disease during adolescence and more commonly in women. These individuals may rapidly develop signs and symptoms of liver disease, often associated with anaemia due to breakdown of red blood cells (haemolysis) and mental confusion. In some patients, liver disease does not reveal itself, and the patient develops neurologic (brain-related) symptoms. Common neurological symptoms of Wilson disease that may appear and progress with time include tremor, involuntary movements, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking and poor articulation (dysarthria), lack of coordination, spasticity, dystonic postures, and muscle rigidity. Almost all affected individuals with the neurological symptoms of Wilson’s disease have Kayser-Fleischer rings in their eyes that can be identified by a slit lamp examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 176 - A 12 year old boy with type I diabetes was reluctant to go...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old boy with type I diabetes was reluctant to go to school. According to him, he was unhappy at the school. Which of the following is the next appropriate step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clinical psychologist

      Explanation:

      The child’s problem should be assessed properly to find the reason for unhappiness at the school. There can be many reasons such as bullying at school, abuse etc. A clinical psychologist should assess this child to take the necessary details and plan the further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 177 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with corneal opacities? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with corneal opacities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sturge-Weber syndrome

      Explanation:

      The mnemonic STUMPED is helpful for remembering the differential diagnosis for congenital corneal opacities: – Sclerocornea- Tears in Descemet membrane (usually due to forceps trauma or congenital glaucoma)- Ulcers (e.g. infection – rubella)- Metabolic (e.g., mucopolysaccharidosis)- Peters anomaly- oEdema – Dermoids (e.g. Goldenhar’s syndrome)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 178 - A mother gives birth to a baby at 28 weeks of gestation. He...

    Incorrect

    • A mother gives birth to a baby at 28 weeks of gestation. He weights 1000g. What of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Visual screening is not useful if carried out at this gestational age

      Explanation:

      Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) affects premature infants. It is a retinal vasoproliferative disease for which current screening guidelines are primarily based on birth weight and gestational age. The disease is first detected by screening at 32-38 weeks of gestation or in infants that are about 6-7 weeks old. Screening consists of dilation of the pupils and observing for dilated vessel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 179 - A 10-year-old boy with faecal soiling secondary to constipation and overflow incontinence has...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy with faecal soiling secondary to constipation and overflow incontinence has not responded to over a year of medical management.A colonoscopy-guided biopsy has ruled out Hirschsprung's disease.Which of the following procedures would be appropriate in the surgical management of this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate procedure in the surgical management of this child would be to perform an appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas (Malone procedure).Idiopathic constipation leading to faecal incontinence is managed in a stepwise progression, first with laxatives such as movicol, enemas and stronger laxatives and in younger children inter-sphincteric injection of botox may be performed. Following this either anal irrigation or antegrade continence enemas are performed. Appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas allow colonic washouts and thereby rapid achievement of continence.Other options:- Defunctioning Ileostomy: Although an option in extreme cases, an ACE stoma would be more appropriate in this child.- Laparotomy for resection of the megarectum is performed if ACE stoma fails due to megarectum.- Left hemicolectomy is a procedure reserved for slow-transit colons to increase transit time.- Bishop-Koop stoma: It is a procedure of historical significance. It is a way of washing out and managing meconium ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 180 - A 13-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital and scheduled for an elective...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital and scheduled for an elective cardiac surgery. There is no respiratory distress, but cyanosis is present with oxygen saturations at 80s. There is a midline sternotomy scar. On auscultation there is a 4/6 ejection systolic murmur on the upper left sternal edge and a sternal heave is felt on palpation. Which of the following is the child most likely suffering from and what is the likely treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary artery band

      Explanation:

      The murmur and thrill indicate a right outflow tract murmur, coupled with the right ventricular heave suggests right ventricular hypertrophy. The VSD would not have been amenable to surgery due to the child’s size/weight and so instead would have been palliated with a PA band. As the child grows, this band progressively restricts pulmonary blood flow until the left to right shunt has reversed. Then it is time for the band to be removed and the VSD to be closed.Pulmonary atresia is a cyanotic condition, which may be palliated with an arterial duct stent. This answer is incorrect as the stent placement would not require a midline sternotomy and would give a continuous machinery type murmur. Pulmonary stenosis with PDA ligation is incorrect. The murmur, thrill, and heave all match a pulmonary stenosis but in the absence of an additional shunt lesion the child would not be cyanosed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 181 - A 7-year-old girl is given cephalexin to treat an infection and develops hives,...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is given cephalexin to treat an infection and develops hives, with localised facial oedema. Which of the following conditions will cause localised oedema?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angio-oedema

      Explanation:

      Angio-oedema, is the rapid swelling of the skin, mucosa and submucosal tissues. The underlying mechanism typically involves histamine or bradykinin. The version related to histamine is to due an allergic reaction to agents such as insect bites, food, or medications. The version related to bradykinin may occur due to an inherited C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency, medications e.g. angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, or a lymphoproliferative disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 182 - A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty breathing. She was seen by her regular doctor the day before with a sore throat which he diagnosed as tonsillitis and was prescribed oral Amoxicillin for 5 days. Past medical history:Ulcerative colitis diagnosed four years ago.Current medications:Inhaled salbutamol and beclomethasoneMesalazine 400 mg TDSShe was observed to be alert and oriented but she had laboured breathing. Inspiratory wheeze was noted. She was pale, sweaty and cyanosed. Her temperature was 36.7ºC, pulse 121/minute and blood pressure 91/40 mmHg. The lungs were clear and the remainder of the examination was normal. She was given high-flow oxygen through a face mask but despite this her breathing became increasingly difficult. What is the most likely causative agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is a life-threatening disorder with serious implications to the anaesthesiologist because of the potential for laryngospasm and irrevocable loss of the airway. There is inflammatory oedema of the arytenoids, aryepiglottic folds and the epiglottis| therefore, supraglottitis may be used instead or preferred to the term acute epiglottitis.Acute epiglottitis can occur at any age. The responsible organism used to be Hemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), but infection with group A b-haemolytic Streptococci has become more frequent after the widespread use of Hemophilus influenzae vaccination. The typical presentation in epiglottitis includes acute occurrence of high fever, severe sore throat and difficulty in swallowing with the sitting up and leaning forward position in order to enhance airflow. There is usually drooling because of difficulty and pain on swallowing. Acute epiglottitis usually leads to generalized toxaemia. The most common differential diagnosis is croup and a foreign body in the airway. A late referral to an acute care setting with its serious consequences may result from difficulty in differentiation between acute epiglottitis and less urgent causes of a sore throat, shortness of breath and dysphagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 183 - Which one of the following factors is the most likely etiological factor for...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following factors is the most likely etiological factor for abnormally short stature amongst children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Familial short stature

      Explanation:

      Familial/inherited short stature is the most likely and commonest factor resulting in short stature among the children. Klinefelter syndrome is characterised by tall stature, widely spaces nipples and infertility. Other factors include congenital heart disease, maternal deprivation and diabetes mellitus but these are the rare causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 184 - A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness...

    Incorrect

    • A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness burn to her right arm, which she got when a firework that she was playing with exploded. Which statement is not characteristic of the situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin grafted

      Explanation:

      Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin graftedThird-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis. Third-degree burns may also damage the underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. The burn site appears white or charred. There is no sensation in the area since the nerve endings are destroyed. These are not normally painful until after skin grafting is done since the nerve endings have been destroyed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 185 - A 12-year-old child has developed a fever and maculopapular rash on his back....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old child has developed a fever and maculopapular rash on his back. What diagnosis should he be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chicken pox

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. The clinical signs of infection are fever and a maculopapular rash – this is a unique rash with both flat and raised lesions on the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 186 - Which of the foetal abnormalities given below leads to oligohydramnios? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the foetal abnormalities given below leads to oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A single umbilical artery

      Explanation:

      An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include: premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. Foetal hydrops, developmental dysplasia of the hip and, macrosomia lead to polyhydramnios. Cleft palate is not associated with any of them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 187 - Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you...

    Incorrect

    • Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you give?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Child should sleep on the back with legs towards the end of the cot

      Explanation:

      Cot death also know as SIDS or Sudden Infant Death syndrome. Putting a baby to sleep on his back has been shown to reduce the risk of SIDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 188 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the patterns of secretion of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the patterns of secretion of hormones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cortisol is secreted in a circadian pattern

      Explanation:

      Cortisol is secreted in a circadian pattern.The secretion of cortisol is regulated by the suprachiasmatic nucleus located in the hypothalamus.Other options:- FSH, LH, GH and prolactin are secreted in a pulsatile pattern, i.e. these hormones are secreted in an episodic manner rather than continuously.- Thyroxine is secreted in a continuous pattern, not pulsatile.- The secretion of ACTH is in response to stress.Secondary to stress, the hypothalamus secretes corticotrophin releasing hormones, which are transported to the pituitary gland via the hypophyseal–portal system. ACTH is then released by the pituitary gland and binds to its receptor on the adrenal gland, which releases cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 189 - An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular menstrual cycles. The...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular menstrual cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined pill

      Explanation:

      Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
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  • Question 190 - A paired t-test of blood measurements pre- and post-treatment yields a P-value of...

    Incorrect

    • A paired t-test of blood measurements pre- and post-treatment yields a P-value of 0.256.Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The paired differences are not significantly different from zero on average

      Explanation:

      The paired sample t-test, sometimes called the dependent sample t-test, is a statistical procedure used to determine whether the mean difference between two sets of observations is zero. In a paired sample t-test, each subject or entity is measured twice, resulting in pairs of observations. Common applications of the paired sample t-test include case-control studies or repeated-measures designs.Statistical significance is determined by looking at the p-value. The p-value gives the probability of observing the test results under the null hypothesis. The lower the p-value, the lower the probability of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true. Thus, a low p-value indicates decreased support for the null hypothesis. However, the possibility that the null hypothesis is true and that we simply obtained a very rare result can never be ruled out completely. The cut-off value for determining statistical significance is ultimately decided on by the researcher, but usually a value of .05 or less is chosen. This corresponds to a 5% (or less) chance of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 191 - What is the most probable diagnosis for an infant presenting with prolonged neonatal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable diagnosis for an infant presenting with prolonged neonatal jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Biliary atresia is a rare condition that causes obstructive jaundice. Without surgical treatment, e.g. Roux-en-Y, Kasai procedure or liver transplantation, death is likely by 2 years of age. The aetiology of biliary atresia is unknown. Theories suggest a multitude of etiological and causative factors that are both genetic and acquired.The other conditions do not cause a conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 192 - Which of the following descriptions qualifies as a diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following descriptions qualifies as a diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type 1?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: > 6 cafe au lait spots or hyperpigmented macules which are >5mm in children under age 10, and >15mm in children over 10

      Explanation:

      Clinical diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 requires the presence of at least 2 of 7 criteria. Many of these signs do not appear until later childhood or adolescence, and thus confirming the diagnosis often is delayed despite a suspicion of NF1. The 7 clinical criteria used to diagnose NF1 are as follows:- Six or more café-au-lait spots or hyperpigmented macules greater than 5 mm in diameter in prepubertal children and greater than 15 mm in postpubertal- Axillary or inguinal freckles (>2) – Two or more typical neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma- Optic nerve glioma- Two or more iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules), often identified only through slit-lamp examination by an ophthalmologist- Sphenoid dysplasia or typical long-bone abnormalities such as pseudarthrosis- A first-degree relative (e.g., mother, father, sister, brother) with NF1

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 193 - A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present...

    Incorrect

    • A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present over the neonate's back which is bluish in colour, but otherwise asymptomatic. The most appropriate course of action will be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      A Mongolian spot can be present in new born babies which usually appears over the back and fades with time. There is nothing to worry about.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 194 - A 12-year-old boy presented with jaundice and fatigue for the last two weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presented with jaundice and fatigue for the last two weeks. He complains of intermittent pain in his epigastrium. He is otherwise healthy with no history of vomiting, diarrhoea, loss of appetite or weight. History revealed that he has had fatigue all his life leading to him missing out on sports at regular intervals at school. His mother reports that he had two episodes of hepatitis at ages 5 and 7 years. There is no family history of jaundice. He has no significant travel history.On physical examination, yellow sclera were observed. Additionally, on abdominal examination, the splenic tip was palpable at 3 cm with some tenderness of the right upper quadrant. He was found to have mild tachycardia with normal blood pressure and no fever.Blood results:- Hb: 12.6 g/dl- MCV: 104 fL- MCHC: 38 g/dL- WBC Count: 10 x 109/L- Reticulocyte count: 148 x 109/L (Normal Range 20-100 x 109/L)- Bilirubin: 34 μmol/L- LDH: 600 lμ/L (Normal Range 230-450 lμ/l)- Direct Coomb's test: NegativeAbdominal ultrasonography revealed an enlarged spleen measuring 15 cmWhat is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis based on the scenario provided above is hereditary spherocytosis.While jaundice and abdominal pain might make you think of hepatitis or cholecystitis in the first instance, the lack of fever suggests otherwise. The apyrexial presentation is against acute cholecystitis, and the past medical history reveals a chronic type of fatigue and two previous episodes of hepatitis. Furthermore, it is unlikely that the child has contracted infective hepatitis twice and now a third time! The most common cause of hepatitis in childhood is hepatitis A, however the lack of travel history to endemic areas makes this less likely. Hepatitis A is usually a mild, self-limiting disease that never presents with chronic symptoms. The chronicity of his fatigue and the blood results lead towards a haematological diagnosis. This is further substantiated by his low haemoglobin levels, high MCV and high reticulocyte count. Chronic haemolytic anaemia is the most likely cause, and the negative Coombs excludes autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA). Thus, leaving us with the answer as hereditary spherocytosis.Hereditary spherocytosis is a disorder that makes the cytoskeleton of red cells more fragile and therefore leads to red cell death and splenomegaly. Gallstones are a result of this red cell destruction and increased haem metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 195 - Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thinning and reddening of scrotal skin is typical of Tanner stage 2

      Explanation:

      Puberty is a period of transitioning into adulthood by developing full reproductive potential by undergoing drastic physiological and psychological changes. For boys, it occurs around 9-16 years of age typically. The process of pubertal changes is usually divided into stages called tanner’s stages. The physiologic changes of puberty are initiated by the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, which then interact with numerous endogenous and environmental stimuli to bring about the physical pubertal features. Tanner stage 2 in boys is characterized by the thinning and reddening of the scrotal skin.The growth spurt of around 9cm per year is expected in boys, at the peak velocity.Testicular enlargement of >3cm commences puberty.Pubarche, in the absence of other secondary sexual characteristics, is pathological.Adrenarche is the increase in the secretion of adrenal androgens, occurring prior to increased gonadotropin release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 196 - A 3-month-old baby was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old baby was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with a complaint of noisy breathing and difficulty feeding. On examination, the baby had a mild inspiratory stridor, and subsequent laryngoscopy reveals an omega-shaped epiglottis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia

      Explanation:

      Omega-shaped epiglottis is a characteristic feature in the X-ray of a patient with laryngomalacia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 197 - According to a cross-sectional survey of >500 subjects, an estimated 10% of a...

    Incorrect

    • According to a cross-sectional survey of >500 subjects, an estimated 10% of a group of children that have a sibling with severe eczema, have asthma. On the other hand, only 0.5% without a sibling with severe eczema have asthma. You want to test the difference of 9.5% for significance. Which of the following tests would you use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fisher’s exact test

      Explanation:

      To quantify differences between percentages you can use Fisher’s exact test.Odds ratios, relative risks and number needed to treat are ways of quantifying differences between percentages in two groups, however are not in themselves significance tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 198 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
      Basophils are not present.
      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 199 - A patient undergoes investigation for chronic upper urinary tract obstruction with intravenous urography...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes investigation for chronic upper urinary tract obstruction with intravenous urography (IVU).The patient should be informed about which severe complication of IVU?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contrast hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Allergy: A history of a prior allergic-like reaction to contrast media is associated with an up to a 5-fold increase in the likelihood of experiencing a subsequent reaction. Also, any patient with a predilection to allergic reactions may predispose them to a reaction after the administration of contrast media. Given the increased risk of severe life-threatening anaphylaxis related to the administration of contrast media in the setting of the history of atopy, the risk versus benefits should be discussed before following through with the procedure. A premedication regimen may be used to reduce the risk of anaphylaxis.Asthma: A history of asthma may be indicative of a higher likelihood of developing a contrast reaction. Cardiac status: Attention must be turned to patients with significant cardiac disease (congestive heart failure, aortic stenosis, severe cardiomyopathy, and/or pulmonary hypertension), as higher volumes and osmolality of contrast material may result in an increased risk for a contrast reaction.Renal insufficiency: Contrast nephrotoxicity is defined as the rapid deterioration of renal function after the administration of contrast media when no other aetiology can be determined from the clinical records. The major predisposing risk factors include pre-existing renal insufficiency (defined as serum creatinine level >1.5 mg/dL) and diabetes. Other risk factors include dehydration, cardiovascular disease, the use of diuretics, advanced age (>70 years old), hypertension, and hyperuricemia. Obtaining multiple contrast-enhanced studies within 24 hours is also thought to increase the risk for contrast-induced nephrotoxicity. Miscellaneous: Relative contraindications to the use of high osmolality iodinated contrast media (HOCM) in patients with pheochromocytoma, sickle cell disease, and multiple myeloma have been reported. Although the administration of low osmolality or iso-osmotic contrast media may be beneficial in patients with pheochromocytoma and sickle cell disease, little evidence suggests that these agents mitigate the risks associated with multiple myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 200 - A 2-year and 10 months-old-girl presents to the outpatient clinic with delayed acquisition...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year and 10 months-old-girl presents to the outpatient clinic with delayed acquisition of speech and developmental delay. She babbles but does not speak any identifiable words. Her receptive language is relatively preserved but she is severely delayed in all developmental domains and is not yet walking. On examination, she is an excitable girl who laughs frequently and is keen to crawl around the room and engage in social interaction. Her eye contact is good. She makes flapping movements of the hands when she is excited. Her purposeful upper limb movements are rather ataxic. What is the most likely explanation for this child’s speech and language delay?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angelman syndrome

      Explanation:

      Angelman syndrome is a rare genetic and neurological disorder caused by deletion or abnormal expression of the UBE3A gene and characterized by severe developmental delay and learning disabilities| absence or near absence of speech| inability to coordinate voluntary movements (ataxia)| tremulousness with jerky movements of the arms and legs and a distinct behavioural pattern characterized by a happy disposition and unprovoked episodes of laughter and smiling. Although those with the syndrome may be unable to speak, many gradually learn to communicate through other means such as gesturing. In addition, children may have enough receptive language ability to understand simple forms of language communication. Additional symptoms may occur including seizures, sleep disorders and feeding difficulties. Some children with Angelman syndrome may have distinctive facial features but most facial features reflect the normal parental traits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (7/8) 88%
Musculoskeletal (1/3) 33%
Nephro-urology (2/5) 40%
Nutrition (2/6) 33%
ENT (2/5) 40%
Neurology And Neurodisability (2/4) 50%
Child Development (1/3) 33%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Haematology And Oncology (2/4) 50%
Neonatology (4/5) 80%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (4/6) 67%
Ophthalmology (2/4) 50%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (8/13) 62%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (5/10) 50%
HIV (3/3) 100%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Fluid And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Passmed