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Question 1
Incorrect
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What is the method used by bodybuilders to alleviate the negative effects of misusing anabolic steroids?
Your Answer: Growth hormone
Correct Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:Anabolic Steroids: Uses, Misuse, and Complications
Anabolic steroids are synthetic derivatives of testosterone that have both anabolic and androgenic properties. They are commonly used by athletes to enhance performance and by individuals to improve physical appearance. However, their misuse is not uncommon, with nearly half of users of dedicated bodybuilding gyms admitting to taking anabolic agents. Misuse can lead to dependence, tolerance, and the development of psychiatric disorders such as aggression, psychosis, mania, and depression/anxiety.
There are three common regimes practised by steroid misusers: ‘cycling’, ‘stacking’ and ‘pyramiding’. Anabolic steroids can be taken orally, injected intramuscularly, and applied topically in the form of creams and gels. Other drugs are also used by athletes, such as clenbuterol, ephedrine, thyroxine, insulin, tamoxifen, human chorionic Gonadotropin, diuretics, and growth hormone.
Medical complications are common and can affect various systems, such as the musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, hepatic, reproductive (males and females), dermatological, and other systems. Complications include muscular hypertrophy, increased blood pressure, decreased high-density lipoprotein cholesterol and increased low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, cholestatic jaundice, benign and malignant liver tumours, testicular atrophy, sterility, gynaecomastia, breast tissue shrinkage, menstrual abnormalities, masculinisation, male-pattern baldness, acne, sleep apnoea, exacerbation of tic disorders, polycythaemia, altered immunity, and glucose intolerance.
Anabolic steroids are a class C controlled drug and can only be obtained legally through a medical prescription. It is important to educate individuals about the risks and complications associated with their misuse and to promote safe and legal use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Who first recognized the four principles of therapeutic communities as democracy, permissiveness, reality confrontation, and communalism?
Your Answer: Tom Main
Correct Answer: Robert Rapoport
Explanation:Important Figures in the Development of Therapeutic Communities
Therapeutic communities have been an important approach to treating mental health and addiction issues for decades. Robert Rapoport introduced the four principles of therapeutic communities in his 1960 book Community as Doctor: New Perspectives on Therapeutic Community. These principles include reality confrontation, permissiveness, democracy, and communalism. In the late 1990s, Rex Haigh updated Rapoport’s four themes and added a fifth principle, attachment.
Wilfred Bion led some of the earliest experiments in the 1940s into therapeutic communities in the UK. The Northfield experiments were an attempt to rehabilitate soldiers into the army. However, at the time, these experiments were viewed as unsuccessful and were stopped after six weeks.
Tom Main is credited with coining the term ‘therapeutic community’ in his 1946 paper The hospital as a therapeutic institution. It is important to note that Donald Winnicott, who coined the term a good enough mother, is not directly related to the development of therapeutic communities.
These figures have played a significant role in the development and evolution of therapeutic communities, which continue to be an important approach to mental health and addiction treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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What category of adverse drug reaction does respiratory depression caused by opioids fall under?
Your Answer: Type A
Explanation:The MHRA categorizes adverse drug reactions into five types. Type A reactions occur when a drug’s usual pharmacological actions are amplified at the normal therapeutic dose, and are typically dose-dependent. Type B reactions are unexpected and not related to the drug’s known pharmacological actions. Type C reactions persist for a prolonged period of time, while Type D reactions become apparent after a delay. Type E reactions are associated with the withdrawal of a medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with symptoms of short term memory loss and changes in behavior. As per NICE guidelines on dementia, what is the recommended method of structural imaging to rule out any other cerebral pathology?
Your Answer: CT scan
Correct Answer: MRI scan
Explanation:Medical Imaging Techniques
There are several medical imaging techniques used to examine the organs and tissues in the body. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses a strong magnetic field to create detailed images of the structures in the body. It is commonly used to exclude other cerebral pathologies in dementia investigation.
Positron emission tomography (PET) is a nuclear medicine imaging technique that uses radiation to produce three-dimensional, colour images of the functional processes within the human body. It is used to study existing conditions in the body and also how it is developing.
Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) scan with ioflupane iodine injection, also known as DAT scan, helps to identify dopamine deficiency in the brain to rule out Parkinson’s dementia and Lewy body dementia.
Computerised tomography (CT) scan uses x-rays and a computer to create detailed images of the inside of the body. It helps to identify injuries of any growth in the different parts of the body. Although it could be used in dementia investigation, it is not the preferred modality as per NICE.
Ultrasound uses high frequency sounds to visualise soft tissues in the body. However, it is not used for investigations of the head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological Examination
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which option is not considered a scoring factor in the clock drawing test?
Your Answer: Putting the numbers 1 - 12 in the correct order
Correct Answer: Knowing the actual time
Explanation:Clock Drawing Test: A Screening Tool for Cognitive Dysfunction
The clock drawing test is a widely used screening tool for cognitive dysfunction. It involves asking the patient to draw a clock on a piece of paper, placing the numbers on the clock face and drawing the hands to indicate 10 minutes past 11. This simple task assesses a range of cognitive functions, including visuospatial ability, motor function, attention, and comprehension.
The test is quick and easy to administer, making it a useful tool for healthcare professionals to identify potential cognitive impairment in patients. The clock drawing test has been shown to be effective in detecting cognitive dysfunction in a variety of conditions, including Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease.
The image below illustrates examples of clocks drawn correctly by healthy controls and those drawn by patients with Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease. By comparing the drawings, healthcare professionals can quickly identify potential cognitive dysfunction and take appropriate action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the likely cause of absent light reflex but normal accommodation in a patient with dementia during an eye examination?
Your Answer: Third nerve palsy
Correct Answer: Argyll Robertson pupils
Explanation:Based on the patient’s dementia history, the diagnosis is supported.
Argyll Robertson Pupil: Accommodation Retained
The Argyll Robertson pupil is a notable topic in medical exams, as it is associated with tertiary syphilis, which is a crucial differential diagnosis for various psychiatric conditions like mood disorders, dementia, and psychosis. This type of pupil reacts poorly to light but normally to near stimuli, such as accommodation and convergence. They are typically small and irregular in shape, but they do not usually affect visual acuity. Mydriatic agents are not effective in dilating the Argyll Robertson pupil. Although this type of pupil is often considered pathognomonic of tertiary syphilis, it has also been observed in diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man begins to report experiencing vivid visual hallucinations of people and animals in his home. He is fully conscious and aware. He has a past medical history of macular degeneration. After being evaluated and ruled out for any medical issues such as a urinary tract infection, what is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Epileptic twilight state
Correct Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome
Explanation:Late-onset schizophrenia is characterized by paranoid delusions and auditory hallucinations as the main symptoms. Although a small proportion of patients may experience visual, tactile, of olfactory hallucinations, these are not the primary features of the disorder. It is important to rule out other medical conditions that may cause visual hallucinations, such as occipital lobe tumours, post-concussional state, epileptic twilight state, and metabolic disturbances. However, in cases where no underlying medical cause is found, Charles Bonnet syndrome should be considered as a possible explanation for complex visual hallucinations in individuals with impaired vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the recommended global functional assessment scale to be used in DSM-5?
Your Answer: Global assessment of function scale
Correct Answer: WHO Disability Assessment Schedule
Explanation:The Global assessment of function scale was utilized in earlier editions of the DSM.
Assessing global functioning and impairment is now easier with the World Health Organization Disability Assessment Schedule 2 (WHODAS 2.0), a new tool offered by DSM-5. This patient self-report assessment tool evaluates a patient’s ability to perform activities in six domains of functioning over the previous 30 days, and uses these to calculate a score representing global disability. The six domains are understanding and communicating, mobility, self-care, social and interpersonal functioning, home, academic, and occupational functioning, and participation in family, social, and community activities. WHODAS 2.0 can be self-administered in around 5 minutes of administered through an interview in 20 minutes. Previous versions of the DSM used the Global Assessment of Functioning scale, which was a 100-point scale that measured a patient’s overall level of psychological, social, and occupational functioning. It was designed to be completed in under 3 minutes and was recorded under axis V of the DSM. A higher score corresponded to a higher level of functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 9
Correct
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What is the likelihood of developing Alzheimer's dementia for a patient with a homozygous APOE 4 genotype?
Your Answer: 10
Explanation:Individuals who are homozygous for APOE 4 have a risk of 10-30 times higher than those who do not have this genetic variant, while those who are heterozygous have a risk that is 3 times higher.
Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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How can we differentiate between a pseudohallucination and a true hallucination?
Your Answer: Cannot be changed at will
Correct Answer: Occurs in inner subjective space
Explanation:The distinguishing factors between the two are based on personal interpretation and tangible versus intangible concepts.
Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following scenarios would indicate that there is no linkage based on the LOD score?
Your Answer: Zero
Correct Answer: -3
Explanation:Linkage and LOD Scores in Genetics
In genetics, when genes are located close to each other on a chromosome, they tend to be inherited together and are referred to as linked genes. Conversely, genes that are far apart of located on different chromosomes are inherited independently and are said to follow independent assortment. To determine the relative distance between two genes, scientists can analyze the offspring of an organism that displays two strongly linked traits and calculate the percentage of offspring where the traits do not co-segregate.
To determine if there is evidence for linkage between two genes, scientists use a statistical method called the LOD score (logarithm of the odds). A LOD score of >3 is considered significant evidence for linkage, while a LOD score of <-2 excludes linkage. The LOD score is calculated by comparing the likelihood of the observed data under the assumption of linkage to the likelihood of the data under the assumption of independent assortment. The LOD score provides a measure of the strength of evidence for linkage between two genes and is widely used in genetic research.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil?
Your Answer: Potent ligand for the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels in the central nervous system
Correct Answer: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
Explanation:Nitrous oxide functions as a vasodilator during penile erection by diffusing through the muscle cell membrane and binding to guanylyl cyclase. This enzyme catalyzes the conversion of GTP to cyclic GMP, which activates a cGMP-dependent protein kinase. This kinase stimulates the uptake of calcium by the endoplasmic reticulum of the muscle cell, leading to muscle relaxation and vasodilation, resulting in an erection.
To end the erection, cGMP is converted into GMP by a specific phosphodiesterase (PDE). There are ten families of PDEs, with PDE5 being the primary PDE found in vascular smooth muscle. Sildenafil (Viagra) is a specific inhibitor of PDE5, blocking the breakdown of cGMP and prolonging the effects of cGMP, thereby prolonging the erection.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which compound in the list below is a secondary amine?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Nortriptyline
Explanation:Tricyclic Antidepressants: First and Second Generation
Tricyclic antidepressants are classified into two generations: first generation of tertiary amines, and second generation of secondary amines. The secondary amines are known to have fewer side effects and primarily affect noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines are believed to enhance both serotonin and noradrenaline.
Secondary amines include Desipramine, Nortriptyline, Protriptyline, and Amoxapine. On the other hand, tertiary amines include Amitriptyline, Lofepramine, Imipramine, Clomipramine, Dosulepin (Dothiepin), Doxepin, Trimipramine, and Butriptyline.
By understanding the differences between the two generations of tricyclic antidepressants, healthcare professionals can better tailor their treatment plans to their patients’ needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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If budget constraints were the only consideration in allocating healthcare resources, what ethical framework would guide the decision-making process?
Your Answer: Humanistic ethics
Correct Answer: Utilitarian
Explanation:While quality adjusted life years (QALY) are a utilitarian measure, it would be extreme to suggest that individuals with illnesses that require expensive treatments should not be treated solely based on the cost-benefit analysis. The general population does not strictly adhere to utilitarian principles, and therefore, The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) considers other factors such as justice and the availability of alternative treatments for a particular condition in addition to the cost per QALY when making recommendations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A physically fit 56-year-old man is started on lithium for a recurrent depressive illness. His lithium level after one week on a dose of 400 mg at night is 0.1 mmol/L. After a dose increase to 600 mg at night, his level rises to 1.0 mmol/L ten days later. His plasma urea is within normal limits. What is the most probable reason for these findings?
Your Answer: Poor fluid intake
Correct Answer: Variable adherence
Explanation:If an individual is taking lithium regularly, a steady state level should be achieved within a week. If there are unexpected changes in the serum lithium level in an otherwise healthy person, it may indicate non-compliance with medication. The concomitant use of NSAIDs is unlikely to cause a significant increase in serum lithium levels, and mild renal impairment of normal plasma urea levels would not typically result in such an increase. Additionally, a normal pharmacokinetic profile would be expected to reach a steady state level after a week of regular dosing. Normal plasma urea levels suggest that dehydration is not a likely cause of the changes in serum lithium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the occurrence where natural fluctuations in repeated data can appear as actual change due to the tendency of unusually high of low measurements to be followed by measurements that are closer to the average?
Your Answer: The nocebo effect
Correct Answer: Regression to the mean
Explanation:Regression to the mean is a statistical occurrence where the natural fluctuations in repeated data can appear as actual changes. This happens because measurements that are exceptionally high of low are typically followed by measurements that are closer to the average.
Understanding the Placebo Effect
In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.
Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.
The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.
It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 17
Incorrect
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If there is no plasma assay available for the drug, measuring prolactin levels may be helpful in verifying adherence to which of the following?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Elevated serum prolactin levels are a known side effect of Risperidone. Similarly, Amisulpride, Haloperidol, Paliperidone, and Sulpiride are also antipsychotics that can cause increased prolactin levels. However, Aripiprazole, Clozapine, Olanzapine, and Quetiapine are typically not associated with elevated prolactin levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A parent is worried about their 30-month-old toddler's language skills. What is the expected minimum number of words at this age?
Your Answer: 60
Correct Answer: 240
Explanation:Delayed language development is often linked to various factors, such as being male, belonging to a larger family, coming from a lower social class (IV and V), and experiencing neglect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which option is not a treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Your Answer: ECT
Correct Answer: Antipsychotics
Explanation:NMS is a potential side effect of antipsychotics.
Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyperreflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following lower brain structures can cause either decreased or increased appetite when damaged?
Your Answer: Amygdala
Correct Answer: Hypothalamus
Explanation:Hunger and thirst are regulated by the hypothalamus, while emotional responses and perceptions of others’ emotions are controlled by the amygdala. The brainstem is responsible for arousal, while the cerebellum controls voluntary movement and balance. The medulla, on the other hand, controls breathing and heartbeat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following long-acting antipsychotic injections (depots) require administration every two weeks?
Your Answer: Olanzapine embonate
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Fortnightly injections are required for Risperidone depot antipsychotic. Flupenthixol decanoate injections can be given every two to four weeks. Fluphenazine decanoate injections can be given every 14-35 days. Olanzapine embonate and paliperidone injections are given every four weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 22
Incorrect
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At what age and in what form does the earliest developmental fear typically manifest?
Your Answer: Social shame
Correct Answer: Strangers
Explanation:The fear of new things, such as unfamiliar people, can be observed in infants as young as 6 months old. Children between the ages of 3-5 years may develop fears of animals, monsters, and the dark. Around 6-11 years old, children may start to fear social embarrassment. Adolescents may begin to experience fear of death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the symptoms of ADHD?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa is not associated with bulimia nervosa
Correct Answer: Gonadotropin levels are lowered in anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa share similar clinical syndromes, and individuals with eating disorders may transition between the two disorders multiple times. The bulimic subtype of anorexia nervosa involves binge episodes. Anorexia nervosa is more prevalent in females, with a female-to-male ratio of 10:1. Endocrine abnormalities associated with anorexia nervosa include amenorrhea, low levels of gonadotropins (LH and FSH), low levels of estrogen and progesterone, low levels of triiodothyronine, high levels of cortisol, high levels of fasting growth hormone, and irregular vasopressin release.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Functions of the glossopharyngeal nerve include the following except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proprioceptive input from muscles of the tongue and larynx
Explanation:The glossopharyngeal nerve is a mixed nerve consisting of both sensory and motor fibers. It has several branches and five distinct general functions:
Branchial motor- Special visceral efferent- supplies the Stylopharyngeus muscle and superior constrictor muscle.
Visceral motor- general visceral efferent- provides parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland.
Visceral sensory- general visceral afferent- carries visceral sensory information from the carotid sinus and carotid body.
General sensory- general somatic afferent- provides general sensory information from the inner surface of the tympanic membrane, upper pharynx and posterior one third of the tongue.
Visceral afferent- special visceral afferent- provides taste sensation from the posterior one third of the tongue including the circumvallate papillae. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the estimated rate of adherence to prescribed medications across all age groups and medication types?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Across all medical specialties, it is typical for patients to take less than half of their prescribed doses of self-administered medications, indicating low adherence rates that have been shown to be around 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which statement about the genetic epidemiology of schizophrenia is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adoption studies consistently show an increased risk of schizophrenia in the biological relatives of patients with schizophrenia
Explanation:Schizophrenia: A Genetic Disorder
Adoption studies have consistently shown that biological relatives of patients with schizophrenia have an increased risk of developing the disorder. Schizophrenia is a complex disorder with incomplete penetrance, as evidenced by the fact that monozygotic twins have a concordance rate of approximately 50%, while dizygotic twins have a concordance rate of 17%. This indicates a significant genetic contribution to the disorder, with an estimated heritability of 80%. Segregation analysis suggests that schizophrenia follows a multifactorial model.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What drug acts as a partial agonist for the D2 receptor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Aripiprazole exhibits partial agonism at D2 receptors and acts as an agonist at 5HT1A receptors while antagonizing 5HT2A receptors.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe genes that are located close to each other on a chromosome and are unlikely to be separated by crossing over?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Linked
Explanation:Linkage and LOD Scores in Genetics
In genetics, when genes are located close to each other on a chromosome, they tend to be inherited together and are referred to as linked genes. Conversely, genes that are far apart of located on different chromosomes are inherited independently and are said to follow independent assortment. To determine the relative distance between two genes, scientists can analyze the offspring of an organism that displays two strongly linked traits and calculate the percentage of offspring where the traits do not co-segregate.
To determine if there is evidence for linkage between two genes, scientists use a statistical method called the LOD score (logarithm of the odds). A LOD score of >3 is considered significant evidence for linkage, while a LOD score of <-2 excludes linkage. The LOD score is calculated by comparing the likelihood of the observed data under the assumption of linkage to the likelihood of the data under the assumption of independent assortment. The LOD score provides a measure of the strength of evidence for linkage between two genes and is widely used in genetic research.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What factors contribute to an increased likelihood of developing pseudo-parkinsonism when taking typical antipsychotics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Previous stroke
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A psychology graduate student is interested in studying the psychosocial factors related to alcohol misuse. They decide to use the health belief model as a framework for their research. One of the constructs of the health belief model pertains to the severity of the illness and its outcomes. How can this construct be applied to the study of alcohol abuse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perceived severity
Explanation:The health belief model is a social cognition model that aims to predict and understand health-related behaviors. It consists of four main constructs: perceived susceptibility, perceived severity, perceived benefits, and perceived barriers. Perceived severity refers to an individual’s understanding of the seriousness of a disease. Perceived susceptibility, also known as perceived vulnerability, refers to an individual’s perception of their risk of contracting the disease if they continue with their current behavior. Perceived benefits refer to an individual’s perception of the advantages of adopting a different course of action, including the extent to which it reduces the risk of the disease of its severity. Perceived barriers refer to an individual’s perception of the disadvantages of adopting the recommended action, as well as any obstacles that may hinder its successful implementation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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