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Question 1
Correct
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With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle does DNA replication occur?
Your Answer: Interphase
Explanation:DNA replication occurs during S phase but that isn’t one of the options. Remember Interphase comprises G1,S and G2 phases!
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Hypemesis gravidarum occurs in what percentage of pregnancies?
Your Answer: 80%
Correct Answer: 1.50%
Explanation:Nausea and vomiting experienced in 80% of pregnancies Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting which affects around 1.5% of women. Caused by high levels HCG. Definitions vary but most consider it to be defined by severe nausea and vomiting associated with weight loss greater than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight with metabolic disturbance (typically dehydration and/or ketosis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A young woman came to your clinic seeking help. She has been married for two years and has yet to conceive. The following are the findings of blood tests:
Luteinizing hormone levels are low.
Low levels of follicle stimulating hormone.
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low.
Prolactin-high.
What is the most effective way to deal with infertility?Your Answer: Clomiphene citrate
Correct Answer: Bromocriptine
Explanation:The most common treatment approach is with the dopamine receptor agonists, bromocriptine, and cabergoline. Bromocriptine normalizes prolactin and decreases tumour size in 80%–90% of patients with microadenomas. Bromocriptine should be given to this patient who has developed hyperprolactinemia anovulation.
Women with hyperprolactinaemic anovulation are treated with dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine.
This patient has also developed symptoms of a low-functioning pituitary gland tumour, which bromocriptine will assist to shrink. Before starting bromocriptine, a head MRI scan should be considered to confirm the suspected diagnosis.Clomiphene is an oestrogen receptor modulator that is selective. It works by competing with oestrogen receptors in the hypothalamus. This disrupts normal negative feedback mechanisms, causing the release of pituitary gonadotropins, particularly LH, to rise, triggering ovulation.
When the levels of gonadotropins and oestrogen are normal but the women still have ovulatory dysfunction, it is successful in inducing ovulation. In hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism patients, clomiphene is frequently ineffective. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Correct
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The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Heparin
Explanation:Standard heparin, an effective treatment for antepartum thromboembolic disease, is thought to be safe for the foetus since it does not cross the placenta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 10 day old infant present with signs of disseminated Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) infection. Her mother had her first episode of HSV three weeks prior to delivery. The infant was treated with antivirals upon clinical suspicion. What is the case fatality rate of infants who develop disseminated HSV despite treatment?
Your Answer: 30%
Explanation:Congenital Herpes Simplex Virus infection may cause high levels of morbidity and mortality in neonates. Risk of infection with HSV 1 and 2 is highest within 6 weeks of delivery and is transferred to the neonate via maternal secretions at birth. Affected babies can present as skin manifestations, CNS infection, or disseminated infection, which carries an 85% risk of mortality if left untreated. Treatment with high dose antivirals such as acyclovir can help decrease the case mortality rate to 30% in cases of disseminated infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 6
Correct
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Syphilis is caused by which one of the following organisms?
Your Answer: Treponema Pallidum
Explanation:Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease which is caused by spirochete called treponema pallidum. It can be divided into three stages. i.e. primary, secondary and tertiary syphilis.
– Primary syphilis is characterized by chancre formation at the site of sexual contact.
– Secondary syphilis ranges from maculopapular lesions to scaly lesions, inguinal lymphadenopathy, condylomata lata and split papules at the corner of mouth.
– Tertiary syphilis is the late stage of syphilis which is characterized by gummas formation and general paresis along with signs and symptoms of visceral involvement. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The inguinal canal is reinforced anterolaterally by which structure?
Your Answer: Conjoint tendon
Correct Answer: Internal oblique
Explanation:The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal ligament is part of the floor.
The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Correct
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A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient is at 14 weeks estimated gestational age by last menstrual period, and ultrasonography at 8 weeks gestation was consistent with these dates. Fetal heart tones are not heard by handheld Doppler. Transvaginal ultrasonography reveals an intrauterine foetus without evidence of fetal cardiac activity. The patient has not had any bleeding or cramping, and otherwise feels fine. A pelvic examination reveals a closed cervix without any signs of bleeding or products of conception.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?Your Answer: A missed abortion
Explanation:In this case, the patient has a missed abortion, which is defined as a dead foetus or embryo without passage of tissue and with a closed cervix. This condition often presents with failure to detect fetal heart tones or a lack of growth in uterine size.
– By 14 weeks estimated gestational age, fetal heart tones should be detected by both handheld Doppler and ultrasonography.
– An inevitable abortion presents with a dilated cervix, but no passage of fetal tissue.
– A blighted ovum involves failure of the embryo to develop, despite the presence of a gestational sac and placental tissue. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?
Your Answer: 75%
Correct Answer: 40%
Explanation:Vulvovaginal candidiasis is the most common genital infections and it is caused by candida albicans in 80-92% of the cases. It colonise the vaginal flora in 20% of non pregnant and 40% pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 10
Correct
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A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia for the last 6 years. Her menstrual cycles are normal, but she has bled excessively for eight days every month, and her haemoglobin level was 90g/L one month ago. She's already on iron supplementation. She has a history of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 (CIN3) in addition to the anaemia, albeit her yearly smear test has been normal since the laser treatment six years ago. She is also undergoing hypertension treatment. Physical examination is unremarkable. She is not willing for endometrial ablation or hysterectomy until her menopause. Which of the following medical therapies would be the best for her to utilize between now and the time she is expected to hit menopause, which is around the age of 50?
Your Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD
Explanation:Adenomyosis or dysfunctional uterine haemorrhage are the most likely causes of heavy periods.
Because she refuses to have a hysterectomy or endometrial ablation, hormonal therapy must be administered in addition to the iron therapy she is already receiving.
Any of the choices could be employed, but using therapy only during the luteal phase of the cycle in someone who is virtually surely ovulating (based on her typical monthly cycles) is unlikely to work.Danazol is prone to cause serious adverse effects (virilization), especially when used for a long period of time.
GnRH agonists would cause amenorrhoea but are more likely to cause substantial menopausal symptoms, and the °fa contraceptive pill (OCP) is generally best avoided in someone using hypertension medication.Treatment with norethisterone throughout the cycle is likely to be the most successful of the treatments available.
If a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (Mirena®) had been offered as an alternative, it would have been acceptable. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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The amniotic fluid volume peaks at around 900ml. At what gestation does the amniotic fluid reach its maximum volume?
Your Answer: 32 weeks
Correct Answer: 35 weeks
Explanation:The amniotic fluid volume increases up to week 35 of gestation and then decreases from then to term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Question 13
Correct
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A patient has returned to your clinic. She presented with painful periods 18 months earlier and laparoscopy confirmed endometriosis. She now gets pain on opening her bowels as well as low back pain. What structure is likely to be involved?
Your Answer: Uterosacral ligament
Explanation:Lower abdominal pain during menstrual periods and lower back or leg pain are associated with endometriosis in the uterosacral ligaments. Endometriosis can cause diarrhoea and IBS type symptoms. Note Endometriosis on the uterosacral ligament can cause tender nodules to form. These can be palpated during pelvic exam. Tender nodules are specific to endometriosis of the uterosacral ligament so if the question mentions feeling a tender nodule during PV exam think endometriosis of the Uterosacral ligaments!
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT) as a means of contraception. Over the past year, her cycles varied in length from 24 to 30 days with menses lasting 4 days. They do not have sexual intercourse when she is on her period.
Which regimen would be the most suitable to minimise the chances of getting pregnant?Your Answer: No intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle, commence intercourse two days after temperature elevation of 0.1°C and continue thereafter.
Correct Answer: No intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle, commence intercourse two days after temperature elevation of 0.3°C and continue thereafter.
Explanation:The best regimen would be to have no intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle and then commence it two days after a temperature rise of 0.3C and continue then onwards. When deciding the best contraceptive method, one has to consider two factors-the duration of survival of sperm in the uterus and body temperature in relation to ovulation. For this case, since her cycle length varies from 24 to 30 days, the earliest time in which ovulation would occur would be 14 days before her shortest cycle i.e. day 10. Intercourse has to be avoided from day 4 of her cycle just in case the current cycle is short because sperm can survive up to 6 days in the uterus. Day 4 would be the day her menses would end and as this couple avoids intercourse during her menstruation, there would be no intercourse during the follicular phase of her cycle.
During ovulation, her serum progesterone levels would start to increase, causing a 0.3°C to 0.4°C increase in her body temperature within 2-3 days of ovulating. This elevation in temperature would remain until close to when her period starts. The ovum can only be fertilised for roughly 24 hours after ovulation has taken place. Resuming sexual intercourse once her temperature has risen for 2 days would suggest that ovulation had already taken place 3-4 days earlier and so it is unlikely for pregnancy to occur.
Options that include intercourse during any part of her follicular phase is not correct. Hence, the only option that satisfies the above criteria would be intercourse avoidance during her follicular phase and to resume 2 days following a rise of 0.03°C in body temperature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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At what week in pregnancy is testing for gestational diabetes (GD) advised
Your Answer: 20-22 weeks of pregnancy if no history of GD
Correct Answer: As soon as possible after booking if past history of GD
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justified to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specificity for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges. The women should be tested as soon as possible after booking if there is a history of GD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 16
Correct
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In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head occur?
Your Answer: Face presentation
Explanation:Face presentation is the abnormal position of the fetal head in labour. In this position the neck is hyperextended.
Vertex position is the normal presentation of the foetus for delivery, in which the head is flexed and the position of the chin is towards the chest. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Correct
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Regarding pelvic inflammatory disease, which of the following is the tubal factor infertility rate?
Your Answer: 25%
Correct Answer: 12.50%
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a known risk factor in causing tubal infertility due to its role in tubal damage. The tubal infertility rate after one episode of PID is thought to be about 12.5%. After two episodes the risk increases to 25%, and 50% after three episodes. The usual causative agents are chlamydia and gonorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old primigravida woman presented to the clinic for her first antenatal check-up. Upon interview, it was noted that she was taking folic acid along with some other nutritional supplements as medication.
All of the following are considered correct regarding neural tube defects and folate before and during pregnancy, except:Your Answer: Folate intake should be increased at least one month before and three months after conception
Correct Answer: Prevalence of neural tube defects among non-indigenous population is almost double than that in Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander babies
Explanation:Neural tube defects (NTDs) are common complex congenital malformations resulting from failure of the neural tube closure during embryogenesis. It is established that folic acid supplementation decreases the prevalence of NTDs, which has led to national public health policies regarding folic acid.
Neural tube defects (NTD) were 43% more common in Indigenous than in non-Indigenous infants in Western Australia in the 1980s, and there has been a fall in NTD overall in Western Australia since promotion of folate and voluntary fortification of food has occurred.
Women should take 5 mg/d of folic acid for the 2 months before conception and during the first trimester.
Women planning pregnancy might be exposed to medications with known antifolate activities affecting different parts of the folic acid metabolic cascade. A relatively large number of epidemiologic studies have shown an increased risk of NTDs among babies exposed in early gestation to antiepileptic drugs (carbamazepine, valproate, barbiturates), sulphonamides, or methotrexate. Hence, whenever women use these medications, or have used them near conception, they should take 5 mg/d of folic acid until the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Correct
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Question 22
Correct
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A women has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 1 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of breast cancer is?
Your Answer: 70%
Explanation:The life time risk of breast cancer in BRCA 1 gene is 70% and of ovarian cancer is 40%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 23
Correct
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Raised FSH levels are found in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Women on combined oral contraceptive pills
Explanation:Oestrogen- and progesterone-containing oral contraceptives inhibit LH, which suppresses the FSH and LH levels, preventing follicular development and ovulation. Combined pills suppress FSH and LH throughout the cycle, inhibit endometrial proliferation, and produce a scanty cervical mucus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following causes an increase in Sex Hormone Binding Globulin (SHBG)?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Liver cirrhosis
Explanation:Liver cirrhosis is known to lead to decreased levels of SHBG. Other causes of high SHBG are:
Oestrogens e.g. oral contraceptives
Pregnancy
Hyperthyroidism
Liver cirrhosis
Anorexia nervosa
Drugs e.g. anticonvulsants -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 25
Correct
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position during labour. Which of the following statements is the most probable explanation for this?
Your Answer: Obstructed labour.
Correct Answer: Incoordinate uterine action.
Explanation:Incoordinate uterine action almost always results in fetal distress due to increased resting intrauterine pressure. All other statements can also cause fetal distress, however, these are not as common as incoordinate uterine action. Syntocin infusion for labour augmentation and administration of epidural anaesthetic for pain relief can also increase the risk of fetal distress.
Cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring during labour is highly recommended in patients where the fetal head is found in the OP position. Moreover, it is mandatory when there is Syntocin infusion or epidural anaesthesia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Correct
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Question 28
Correct
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You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She is 34 weeks gestation and her blood pressure is 147/96. Automated reagent strip testing shows protein 2+. You send for a protein:creatinine ratio and this shows a ratio of 36 mg/mmol. What is the appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Admit for observation
Explanation:It is important to be aware of the difference between management of simple hypertension and pre-eclampsia in pregnancy. A BP of 140/90 to 149/99 mmHg is classed as mild hypertension. Without proteinuria this can be monitored once weekly and the patient can be discharged. If proteinuria is present with any degree of hypertension the patient requires admission and BP should be monitored at least 4 times daily according to NICE guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 28 year old primigravida carrying a twin pregnancy presents at 32 weeks gestation. She is lethargic, clinically jaundiced and complains of abdominal pain with frequent vomiting. A summary of her blood results are as follows: Elevated aspartate transaminase (AST) and alanine transaminase (ALT) levels · Decreased blood glucose levels · Elevated levels of blood ammonia. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Obstetric cholestasis
Correct Answer: Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
Explanation:This patients bloods and symptoms suggest she has hepatic impairment. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy typically presents after the 30th week. The usual symptoms in the mother are non-specific including nausea, vomiting, anorexia (or lack of desire to eat) and abdominal pain; excessive thirst may be the earliest symptom without overlap with otherwise considered normal pregnancy symptoms; however, jaundice and fever may occur in as many as 70% of patients.
Many laboratory abnormalities are seen in acute fatty liver of pregnancy. Liver enzymes are elevated, with the AST and ALT enzymes ranging from minimal elevation to 1000 IU/L, but usually staying in the 300-500 range. Bilirubin is almost universally elevated. Alkaline phosphatase is often elevated in pregnancy due to production from the placenta, but may be additionally elevated. Other abnormalities may include an elevated white blood cell count, hypoglycemia, elevated coagulation parameters, including the international normalized ratio, and decreased fibrinogen. There may be increases of ammonia, uric acid aswell.
Recent studies have shown that being a primigravida, multiple pregnancies, carrying a male fetus, other liver diseases during pregnancy, previous history of AFLP, and pre-eclampsia are the potential risk factors for AFLP
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the failure rate of tubal sterilization?
Your Answer: 1 in 1000
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Tubal sterilization is a safe and effective surgical procedure that permanently prevents pregnancy. However, pregnancy can occur in 1 in 200 cases, according to international sources. In the 1st year after tubal sterilization, the estimated failure rate is 0.1-0.8% respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 25 year old pregnant woman presents with constant abdominal pain, which has been present for the last few hours. Before the pain started she admits experiencing vaginal blood loss. She's a primigravida in her 30th week of gestation. Upon abdominal examination the uterus seems irritable. CTG is, however, reactive. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Antepartum haemorrhage
Explanation:Antepartum haemorrhage presents with bleeding, which may or may not be accompanied by pain. Uterine irritability would suggest abruptio, however contractions are present which may be confused with uterine irritability and in this case, there are no signs of pre-eclampsia present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old African female presents with a history of heavy menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhoea for 4 months. Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?
Your Answer: Adenomyosis
Correct Answer: Fibroid
Explanation:History of heavy menstrual bleeding and amenorrhoea favour the diagnosis of a fibroid uterus. All the given responses are causes for subfertility. Ectopic pregnancy presents with abdominal pain has an acute presentation. Endometriosis and adenomyosis usually don’t present with amenorrhoea or heavy bleeding respectively. PID presents with chronic pelvic pain and is not related to menstruation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?
Your Answer: Increased arterial pO2, decreased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2
Correct Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2
Explanation:Functional closure of the ductus arteriosus is neonates is completed within the first few days after birth. It normally occurs by the 12th postnatal week. It has been suggested that persistent patency of DA results from a failure of the TGF-B induction after birth. Due to increased arterial pO2, constriction of the DA occurs. In addition to this on inflation the bradykinin system is activated with cause the smooth muscles in the DA to constrict. A decrease in the E2 prostaglandin is also an important factor as raised levels have been indicated in keeping the patency of the DA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 34
Correct
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What percentage of testosterone is bound to SHBG?
Your Answer: 70%
Explanation:About 97% of the testosterone that is secreted loosely binds to the SHBG and circulates in the blood for several hours in this bound state until it is transported to the target organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 35
Correct
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Pregnancy is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Increased peripheral resistance
Explanation:A variety of changes in the cardiovascular system occur during normal pregnancy, including increases in cardiac output, arterial compliance, extracellular fluid volume and decreases in blood pressure (BP) and total peripheral resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 36
Correct
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Branches V2 and V3 of the trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?
Your Answer: 1st
Explanation:Trigeminal nerve has three divisions, the first is the ophthalmic division that does not originate from any of the pharyngeal arches, the second and third divisions, namely, the maxillary and the mandibular region develop from the first pharyngeal arch.
Pharyngeal Arches:
1st = Trigeminal V2 & V3 (CN V)
2nd = Facial (CN VII)
3rd = Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
4th and 6th = Vagus (CN X) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 56 year old lady presents with a vulval itch and discolouration. A biopsy conforms Lichen Sclerosis (LS). What is the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma compared to patients with a normal vulval biopsy?
Your Answer: 5-15%
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Lichen Sclerosis is a destructive inflammatory condition that effects the anogenital region of women. It effects around 1 in 300 women. It destroys the subdermal layers of the skin resulting in hyalinization of the skin leading to parchment paper appearance of the skin. It is associated with vulval cancer and it is estimated that the risk of developing vulval cancer after lichen sclerosis is around 3-5%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 38
Correct
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Besides infertility, the most common symptoms of a luteal phase defect is:
Your Answer: Early abortion
Explanation:Luteal phase defect is an ovulatory disorder of considerable clinical importance that is implicated in infertility and recurrent spontaneous abortion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 34 year old female presents to the ob-gyn for a regular antenatal visit. Her previous pregnancy was complicated by pre-eclampsia and later eclampsia. What are the chances of her pre-eclampsia recurring in a later pregnancy?
Your Answer: The risk is 1 in 4 (25%)
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Research suggests the risk of having preeclampsia again is approximately 20%, however experts cite a range from 5% to 80% depending on when you had it in a prior pregnancy, how severe it was, and additional risk factors you may have. If you had preeclampsia during your first pregnancy, you may get it again. HELLP is related to preeclampsia and about 4 to 12 percent of women diagnosed with preeclampsia develop HELLP. HELLP syndrome can also cause complications in pregnancy, and if you had HELLP in a previous pregnancy, regardless of the time of onset, you have a greater risk for developing it in future pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 40
Correct
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Regarding electronic fetal monitoring, which one of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Has low specificity but high sensitivity
Explanation:There are different ways of monitoring fetal heart rate during pregnancy. It can be done by just auscultation or by electronic fetal heart rate monitoring which is done with the help of an ultrasound machine and has a low specificity but high sensitivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Screening for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) at around 36 weeks of gestation now is common practice as up to 20% of women carry the organism in the vagina.
If a pregnant woman is found to have GBS at this stage, which treatment would be most appropriate?
Your Answer: Oral penicillin therapy throughout the remaining antenatal period.
Correct Answer: Parenteral penicillin given six-hourly in labour.
Explanation:Up to 20% of women have been found to have Group B streptococcus (GBS). GBS is considered a normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract. GBS infection is generally asymptomatic although some women might end up having a UTI. Infants born to mothers who are colonised with GBS during labour are at a higher risk of developing early-onset GBS infection. If a pregnant woman develops a UTI due to GBS, it is suggestive of significant GBS colonisation. IV penicillin would be the drug of choice and is to be administered to the mother during labour which would provide sufficient protection for the foetus and would be effective enough. If penicillin is unavailable, ampicillin is a reasonable alternative. If a patient has penicillin allergy, vancomycin can be used. If not for penicillin, roughly 50% of babies delivered vaginally to women who are GBS positive would be colonised with the organism and out of this percentage, 1-2% can go on to develop a severe infection such as septicaemia and meningitis which could often be fatal.
IM penicillin can be administered to the newborn immediately post-delivery would be an effective prophylaxis in most cases but one should not wait until signs of infection are present to give the injection. Many newborns would still have an immature immune system which could cause some to die. Hence, it is more suitable to treat all women who tested positive during labour and the newborn as well if any signs of infection do appear. The majority of babies don’t need antibiotic treatment if their mother has been treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 42
Correct
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All of the following factors are associated with umbilical cord prolapse, except?
Your Answer: Anencephaly
Explanation:Anencephaly means the missing of a particular portion of the scalp and brain tissue. The other factors listed are associated with umbilical cord prolapse like multiparity, twin birth, polyhydramnios, premature delivery, long umbilical cord or breech presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal ultrasound was performed and showed a probable malignancy involving the left ovary. The report suggests that the ovarian lesion may represent a metastatic disease.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation that will likely show the site of the primary tumour?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen.
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy.
Explanation:This woman presents with a metastatic tumour of the ovary. Being from Australia is a hint in this question as the likely site of the primary tumour can vary depending on the country the patient is in and the availability of screening mammography. In underdeveloped countries, breast cancer is usually diagnosed later in life as screening mammography is generally not available, making the most likely site of the primary tumour in the breast. In Japan, where the incidence of stomach cancer is much higher than in western countries, the most likely primary site would be the stomach with a Krukenberg tumour in both ovaries. In Australia, mammographic screening is recommended every other year for all women over the age of 50, and so the most likely primary site would be the colon.
The most appropriate work-up to find the primary tumour in this patient would be performing a colonoscopy. A computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen may miss a small tumour, and an ultrasound examination would not be able to diagnosis a colon cancer. Mammography would be the correct response in under-developed countries. A lung malignancy would be detectable by chest X-ray, but would rarely cause a metastasis in the ovary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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What is the life span of the corpus luteum in days?
Your Answer: 26-30
Correct Answer: 14-16
Explanation:After the release of the oocyte, the theca and the granulosa cells form the corpus luteum which undergoes extensive vascularization for continued steroidogenesis. Progesterone is secreted by the luteal cells and is synthesized from cholesterol. The luteal phase lasts for 14 days and if implantation does not occurs the corpus luteum starts to degenerate. As B-HCG produced by the implanted embryo maintains it and without it luteolysis occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 45
Correct
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A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is 39+6 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM). According to NICE guidelines after what time period should induction be offered?
Your Answer: 24 hours
Explanation:Induction of labour is appropriate approximately 24 hours after rupture of the membranes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 46
Correct
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Among the following which will not be elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy?
Your Answer: Serum iron binding capacity
Correct Answer: Serum free T4
Explanation:Normally, there will be a slight raise in prolactin level throughout pregnancy even despite estrogen stimulating and progesterone inhibiting prolactin secretion.
Serum alkaline phosphatase levels will be increased in pregnancy due to placental ALP.
During the first trimester of pregnancy there is a physiological mechanism by hCG causing cross-stimulation of the TSH receptors and as a result of this the concentration of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) normally decreases. During second trimester TSH concentration will again return back to its pre-pregnancy levels and then rises slightly by the third trimester. However, most of the changes still occur within the normal non-pregnant range, and the serum free T3 and T4 concentrations remain unchanged throughout pregnancy. But the total concentrations, which include both free and protein-bound fractions, elevates significantly due to an increase in the circulating binding globulins.
Iron binding capacity reflects transferrin, a protein used for iron transportation, which is a globulin found in the beta band on electrophoresis. To counteract the reduction of plasma iron during pregnancy both transferrin and iron binding capacity are elevated during this period.
When compared to the non-pregnant level, cortisol levels are been elevated up to three times than normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A low APGAR score at one minute:
Your Answer: Is highly correlated with late neurologic sequelae
Correct Answer: Indicates the need for immediate resuscitation
Explanation:The treatment of asphyxia starts with the correct perinatal management of high-risk pregnancies. The management of the hypoxic-ischemic new-borns in the delivery room is the second fundamental step of the treatment. Low Apgar scores and need for cardiopulmonary resuscitation at birth are common but nonspecific findings. Most new-borns respond rapidly to resuscitation and make a full recovery. The outcomes for new-borns who do not respond to resuscitation by 10 minutes of age are very poor, with a very low probability of surviving without severe disability. Resuscitation in room air is advised for term new-borns, since the use of 100% oxygen is associated with worse outcomes compared to the use of room air.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 49
Correct
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The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?
Your Answer: 1st
Explanation:The maxillary arteries and the external carotid arteries develop from the first pharyngeal arch. The stapedial arteries arise from the second, the common carotid artery and the internal carotid arteries from the third and the arch of the aorta and the right subclavian artery from the forth arch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 50
Correct
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Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Promethazine?
Your Answer: Histamine H1-receptor antagonist
Explanation:Promethazine is type of antihistamine that acts on the H1 receptor. In pregnancy NICE guidelines advise oral promethazine or oral cyclizine should be used as 1st line drug management of nausea and vomiting. Both are H1 antagonists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 51
Correct
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A 24-year-old nulliparous lady has lately started having sexual encounters. She seeks your advice since she is experiencing painful coitus at the vaginal introitus. It's accompanied by painful involuntary pelvic muscular contractions. The pelvic examination is normal except for confirmation of these findings.
The most prevalent cause of this ailment is one of the following?Your Answer: Psychogenic causes
Explanation:Vaginismus is an uncontrollable painful spasm of the pelvic muscles and vaginal exit that this patient has. It’s mainly caused by psychological factors. It’s important to distinguish it from frigidity, which indicates a lack of sexual desire, and dyspareunia, which is characterized as pelvic and/or back pain or other discomfort linked with sexual activity. Endometriosis, pelvic adhesions, and ovarian neoplasms are all common causes of dyspareunia. Vaginismus pain can be psychogenic, or it might be caused by pelvic diseases like adhesions, endometriosis, or leiomyomas. Organic vulvar or pelvic reasons (such as atrophy, Bartholin gland cyst, or abscess) are extremely rare, hence vaginismus is mostly treated with psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 52
Correct
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The main support of the uterus is provided by:
Your Answer: The cardinal ligament
Explanation:The cardinal ligament (or Mackenrodt’s ligament, lateral or transverse cervical ligament) is a major ligament of the uterus. It is located at the base of the broad ligament of the uterus. It attaches the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall by its attachment to the Obturator fascia of the Obturator internus muscle, and is continuous externally with the fibrous tissue that surrounds the pelvic blood vessels. It thus provides support to the uterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 53
Correct
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Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?
Your Answer: Atrial depolarisation
Explanation:In an ECG the P wave represents atrial depolarization. The QRS complex represents the ventricular depolarization, T waves represent ventricular repolarization and the U wave represents repolarization of the interventricular septum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 54
Correct
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A pregnant patient who is needle phobic has her nuchal translucency (NT) scan but refuses serum markers. You advise her the False Positive Rate of the scan is 5%. What would you advise the mother regarding the detection rate of Down Syndrome using NT alone?
Your Answer: 70%
Explanation:The nuchal lucency measurement is the measure of the nuchal pad thickness. Children with down syndrome have an increased thickness of the nuchal pad. The risk of down’s syndrome increases with maternal age. The nuchal lucency test has an accuracy rate of 70%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A patient who is 36 weeks pregnant comes to see you as she has developed tingling to the right lateral thigh over the past 3 weeks. On examination there are no skin changes and no muscle weakness. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Obturator nerve entrapment
Correct Answer: Meralgia Paraesthetica
Explanation:Raised pressure with the pelvis can cause a number of nerve entrapment syndromes. This is entrapment of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (or lateral femoral cutaneous nerve) also known as Meralgia Paraesthetica. Pregnancy is a risk factor. Shingles can effect this nerve but the rash would usually present itself within 14days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 56
Correct
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What is the normal pH value of an umbilical arterial sample of a new born term baby?
Your Answer: 7.2
Explanation:The normal range for a term baby is pH: 7.18 – 7.38, and preterm pH: 7.14 – 7.4. A pH below 7.1 therefore indicates acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 57
Correct
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A 27 year old women presents with a history of vaginal spotting and cramping abdominal pain. She has an 8 week history of amenorrhoea. On examination urine pregnancy test is positive and the cervix is closed. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Threatened Miscarriage
Explanation:Miscarriage is a pregnancy that ends spontaneously before the foetus reaches the age of viability i.e. before 24 weeks of gestation. In a threatened miscarriage the USG findings are of a foetus present in the uterus and on speculum examination the cervical OS is closed, in an inevitable miscarriage the cervical OS is opened. In an incomplete miscarriage the uterus contains the retained products of conception and the cervical OS is open. complete miscarriage contains no retained products of conception and the cervix is closed as the bleeding as resolved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 58
Correct
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A 32 year old patient develops painful ulcerated genital lesions and inguinal lymphadenopathy. She is 32 weeks pregnant. You suspect genital herpes and send swabs. Which of the following is appropriate management according to the 2014 BASHH/RCOG guidelines?
Your Answer: Send bloods to check antibody status. If this supports this is a first episode genital HSV then patient should be advised to have C-section delivery
Explanation:Although acyclovir should be given, this patient is in the 3rd trimester so the course should continue until delivery. Dose will be 400mg TDS unless disseminated disease. If this is a primary HSV infection (This should be confirmed by lesion swabs to confirm HSV infection and bloods to check no antibody response i.e. evidence previous infection) then C-section is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 59
Correct
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A 61-year-old woman comes to the office for a breast cancer follow-up visit. She recently underwent right mastectomy for a node-negative, estrogen- and progesterone-receptor-positive tumor. She was on an aromatase inhibitor as adjuvant therapy, which was discontinued due to severe fatigue and poor sleep. At present, she is scheduled for a 5-year course of adjuvant therapy with tamoxifen. Patient has no other chronic medical conditions and her only medication is a daily multivitamin. Her last menstrual period was 8 years ago. Patient's father had a myocardial infarction at the age 64; otherwise her family history is noncontributory. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or any other illicit drugs.
On examination her vital signs seems stable, with a BMI of 21 kg/m2.
Patient has many concerns about tamoxifen therapy and asks about potential side effects. Which among the following complications mentioned below is this patient at greatest risk of developing, due to tamoxifen therapy?Your Answer: Hyperplasia of the endometrium
Explanation:Tamoxifen and Raloxifene are drugs which acts as selective estrogen receptor modulators.
Their mechanisms of action are competitive inhibitor of estrogen binding and mixed agonist/antagonist action respectively.
Commonly indicated in prevention of breast cancer in high-risk patients. Tamoxifen as adjuvant treatment of breast cancer and Raloxifene in postmenopausal osteoporosis.
Adverse effects include:
– Hot flashes
– Venous thromboembolism
– Endometrial hyperplasia & carcinoma (tamoxifen only)
– Uterine sarcoma (tamoxifen only)
Adjuvant endocrine therapy is commonly used option for treatment of nonmetastatic, hormone-receptor-positive breast cancer; and the most commonly used endocrine agents include tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitors, and ovarian suppression via GnRH agonists or surgery.Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator which is an estrogen receptor antagonist in the breast. It is the most preferred adjuvant treatment for pre-menopausal women at low risk of breast cancer recurrence. Tamoxifen is also a second-line endocrine adjuvant agent for postmenopausal women who cannot use aromatase inhibitor therapy due to intolerable side effects.
Tamoxifen acts as an estrogen agonist in the uterus and stimulates excessive proliferation of endometrium. Therefore, tamoxifen use is associated with endometrial polyps in premenopausal women, and endometrial hyperplasia and cancer in postmenopausal women. These effects will continue throughout the duration of therapy and resolves once the treatment is discontinued. Even with all these possible complications, benefits of tamoxifen to improve the survival from breast cancer outweighs the risk of endometrial cancer.In postmenopausal women, tamoxifen has some estrogen-like activity on the bone, which can increase bone mineral density and thereby reduce the incidence of osteoporosis significantly. However, tamoxifen is generally not a first-line agent for osteoporosis in treatment due to the marked risk of endometrial cancer.
Dysplasia of the cervical transformation zone is typically caused due to chronic infection by human papillomavirus, and tamoxifen has no known effects on the cervix.
Tamoxifen is not associated with any increased risk for adenomyosis, which is characterised by ectopic endometrial tissue in the myometrium.
Intimal thickening of the coronary arteries is a precursor lesion for atherosclerosis. Tamoxifen helps to decrease blood cholesterol level and thereby protect against coronary artery disease.
Tamoxifen is an estrogen antagonist on breast tissue and is used in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer, but it also acts as an estrogen agonist in the uterus and increases the risk of development of endometrial polyps, hyperplasia, and cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 60
Incorrect
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You review a 28 year old patient in the fertility clinic. She has a diagnosis of PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. She has been taking Clomiphene and metformin for the past 6 months. What is the next most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: IVF
Correct Answer: Gonadotrophins
Explanation:Clomiphene shouldn’t be continued for more than 6 months. The second line options are Gonadotrophins or ovarian drilling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 61
Correct
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A 44-year-old lady came to the clinic with a five-year history of urine incontinence. With a BMI of 34, she is fat. Her last child, weighing 4.2 kg, was born six years ago.
She has been using various over-the-counter medicines to treat constipation and gastric reflux for the past three years. She is a non-smoker with normal blood pressure.
Which of the following is not a risk factor for female urinary incontinence development?Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
Explanation:Stress UI (SUI) is more common among puerperal women, followed by mixed UI (MUI) and urge UI (UUI). Generally, episodes of urine leakage are infrequent and the amount of urine leakage is small.
Maternal age greater than 35 years, UI during pregnancy, elevated body mass index (BMI), multiparity, and normal birth are considered risk factors for postpartum UI. A 10-year cohort study developed with the goal of assessing the effect of the first normal birth on urinary symptoms showed that it was associated with an increase in SUI, in addition to UUI, regardless of maternal age or number of births.
Other factors such as: colour or race, episiotomy, perineal tears, newborn’s head circumference, newborn’s weight, gestational age at birth, smoking, and constipation require further studies in order to prove their association with postpartum UI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 62
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband, presents to your hospital with amenorrhea lasting two months. She is currently taking clozapine with appropriate control of her symptoms.
Which of the following is the most crucial step in management?Your Answer: Urine pregnancy test
Explanation:Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea worldwide. As a result, the first thing to check in every woman of reproductive age who has amenorrhea is a urine pregnancy test.
Once pregnancy has been ruled out, an ultrasound or measuring FSH and LH may be done to assess the condition (if required).
FBC is used to track clozapine side effects such as neutropenia and agranulocytosis. It is not recommended for the assessment of amenorrhea. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 63
Correct
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Which major hormone of pregnancy is produced by the placenta from 16-hydroxydehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (16-OH DHEAS)?
Your Answer: Estriol
Explanation:The placenta produces Estriol from 16-OH DHEAS. Estriol is the major oestrogen (oestrogen) of pregnancy and the placenta is the primary site of production. Pregnenolone is synthesised by the placenta from cholesterol and this is converted to dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) in the fetal adrenal gland
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female came to see you because of absent menses for the last 5 months. She reports that in the past, menstrual periods were regular, every 28 days. Her first menstrual periods were at the age of 12. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and they use condoms consistently. She does not use oral contraceptive pills. She eats a healthy diet and does not smoke or drink alcohol.
Physical examination is non-remarkable. Pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this patient?Your Answer: Order pelvic ultrasound
Correct Answer: Order TSH and prolactin level
Explanation:This patient presents with secondary amenorrhea, a condition diagnosed in patients with – 3 months of absence of menstruation when they had regular menstruation previously or absence of menstruation for 9 months in a patient who had oligomenorrhea- This differs from primary amenorrhea, which is defined as absence of menstrual periods in a female by the age 16 when she has other secondary sexual characteristics or absence of menstrual periods by the age of 14 when she does not have any other secondary sexual characteristics.
In female patients of child-bearing age, the initial test in evaluating secondary amenorrhea is the pregnancy test. This test has been done in this patient and it is negative- The next step in evaluation in this patient should be serum TSH and prolactin level measurements. Thyroid disease and pituitary pathologies are some of the most common causes of secondary amenorrhea- If these tests were to be found normal, the progesterone challenge test would be the following test as this allows evaluation whether amenorrhea is due to progesterone deficiency in a patient with normal oestrogen levels.
→ Order FSH and LH level is incorrect. These studies are done if the progesterone withdrawal test is negative but the oestrogen-progesterone challenge test is positive; however, the patient should first have TSH and prolactin level measured; the progesterone withdrawal test is only done if TSH and prolactin are normal.
→ Order a progesterone withdrawal test is incorrect. As explained above, this test is ordered if TSH and prolactin levels are normal in a patient suspected to have secondary amenorrhea.
→ Order pelvic ultrasound is incorrect. This study is more important in primary amenorrhea evaluation as it can help confirm the presence or absence of a uterus. This patient who has had menstrual periods before does certainly have a uterus.
→ Order brain MRI is incorrect. Given how expensive this study is, it should not be done before prolactin levels are found to be significantly high, raising suspicion of a pituitary pathology. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 65
Correct
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Which spinal segment is the lumbar plexus derived from?
Your Answer: T12-L4
Explanation:The lumbar plexus is formed via contributions from the T12-L4 spinal cord segment. The plexus is responsible for the motor and sensory innervation of portions of the lower extremities and some parts of the lower abdomen and pelvis. Nerves arising from the plexus include the Iliohypogastric, ilioinguinal, genitofemoral, lateral femoral cutaneous, femoral nerve, obturator, and nerve to the lumbosacral trunk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 66
Correct
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A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and is diagnosed with placental abruption. This is her 3rd pregnancy and despite all effective measures taken, bleeding is still present. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Clotting factor problem
Explanation:Clotting factor problem. Some of the more common disorders of coagulation that occur during pregnancy are von Willebrand disease, common factor deficiencies, platelet disorders and as a result of anticoagulants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 67
Correct
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What is the typical weight of a non-pregnant premenopausal uterus?
Your Answer: 40g
Explanation:Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood. The uterus is 50–60 g prior to pregnancy and 1000 g by term. The volume increases from 10 ml to 5000ml approx. It is around 40g at menopause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 68
Correct
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A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea and vomiting along with dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this period.
On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg with a drop in systolic blood pressure by more than 20% when she stands. She is unable to tolerate oral intake and her laboratory results show ketonuria.
Which one of the following would be the best next step in management of this patient?Your Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline
Explanation:Clinical picture mentioned is indicative of hyperemesis gravidarum with resultant hypovolemia and pre-shock state, were patient needs urgent fluid resuscitation and intravenous antiemetic medications. The first-line fluid for resuscitation is normal saline (0.9% NaCl) and metoclopramide an antiemetic drug which is safe for use in pregnancy (category A).
Dextrose should be avoided in this situation as the sugar in the solution will leave behind a hypotonic fluid leading to severe hyponatraemic state which increases the risk for encephalopathy due to edema.
Ondansetron is considered as the second-line of antiemetic drug under category B1 which is used in situations like more refractory vomiting, when patient is not responding to metoclopramide and in cases of recurrent hospital admissions due to hyperemesis gravidarum.
Steroids such as prednisolone are considered as the third-line medication mostly used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum and should be used only after consulting an expert in the field.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 69
Correct
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Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?
Your Answer: Leopold's manoeuvre
Explanation:Fetal position and presentation is best evaluated by Leopold’s manoeuvre. It will determine which part of the foetus is in the uterine fundus.
Cullen’s sign is found in ruptured ectopic pregnancy characterised by bruising and oedema of the periumbilical region.
Mauriceau-Smelli-Veit manoeuvre is done during a breech delivery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 70
Correct
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A 60-year-old lady is found to have a grossly palpable adnexal mass on her left side on pelvic examination. This is the first time it has been detected. She attained menopause at 52 years of age. The last pelvic examination, which was done 4 years ago, was normal.
What is her most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ovarian carcinoma.
Explanation:Her most likely diagnosis would be an ovarian carcinoma. Any palpable adnexal mass in a post-menopausal woman is a red flag for an ovarian malignancy and should be assumed so until proven otherwise.
Endometrial cancer typically presents with a post-menopausal bleed and although there might be uterine enlargement, an adnexal mass is generally absent.
It is very rare for follicular cysts to develop following menopause and it is uncommon for post-menopausal women to have a benign ovarian tumour, which is more common in younger women. A degenerating leiomyoma would be unlikely in this case, especially since her pelvic examination three years ago was normal (no history of leiomyoma noted).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 71
Correct
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The following measures are usually performed during a routine antenatal visit for a healthy uncomplicated pregnancy at 36 weeks gestation, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Mid-steam urine specimen (MSU) for culture & sensitivity
Explanation:At the 36‑week appointment, all pregnant women should be seen again. At this appointment: measure blood pressure and test urine for proteinuria; measure and plot symphysis–fundal height; check position of baby; for women whose babies are in the breech presentation, offer external cephalic version (ECV)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 72
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy. She is complaining of mild vaginal bleeding for the past 12 hours, along with bouts of mild cramping lower abdominal pain.
On vaginal examination, the cervical os is closed with mild discharge containing blood clots and an ultrasonography confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal heart rate.
Which among of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Threatened abortion
Explanation:Uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix along with sonographic visualization of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity are diagnostic of threatened abortion.
Abortion does not always follow a uterine bleeding in early pregnancy, sometimes not even after repeated episodes or large amounts of bleeding, that is why the term “threatened” is used in this case. In about 90 to 96% cases, the pregnancy continues after vaginal bleeding if occured in the presence of a closed os and a detectable fetal heart rate. Also as the gestational age advances its less likely the condition will end in miscarriage.
In cases of inevitable abortion, there will be dilatation of cervix along with progressive uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissue can be either felt or seen through the cervical os and the passage of this tissue occurs within a short time.
In case were the membranes have ruptured, partly expelling the products of conception with a significant amounts of placental tissue left in the uterus is called as incomplete abortion. During the late first and early second trimesters this will be the most common presentation of an abortion. Examination findings of this includes an open cervical os with gestational tissues observed in the cervix and a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age and a partially contracted uterus. The amount of bleeding will vary but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock, with painful contractions and an ultrasound revealing tissues in the uterus.
An in utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20 weeks of gestation is called as a missed abortion. In this case the women may notice that the symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have disappeared and they don’t ‘feel pregnant’ anymore. Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix remains closed and the ultrasound done reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.
In case of complete abortion, miscarriage occurs before the 12th week and the entire contents of conception will be expelled out of uterus. If this case, the physical examination will show a small and well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix. There is scant vaginal bleeding with only mild cramping and ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus without any extra-uterine pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 73
Correct
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Which one of the following has the most significant effect on slowing drug metabolism in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Progesterone effect on gastric motility
Explanation:Progesterone down regulates gastric motility meaning drugs are absorbed and metabolised more slowly, thus drugs are absorbed, metabolised and cleared more slowly. Most of the drugs are transported after binding to the albumin.
Lower albumin levels mean a greater unbound drug fraction but as this may be thought to increase drug concentrations it actually leaves more available for hepatic clearance or renal excretion so overall drug concentrations are unchanged and metabolism increased.
Increase in hepatic flow will increase the metabolism of the drug as the drug will be transported faster.
Increased renal blood flow will result in the faster clearance of the drug from the body. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 74
Correct
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You receive a swab result from a patient who had complained of odorous vaginal discharge. It confirms bacterial vaginosis (BV). Which pathogen is most commonly associated with BV?
Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:BV typically presents as an increase in vaginal discharge and vaginal malodour caused by a change in vaginal bacterial flora. PV discharge due to BV is typically grey fluid that adheres to the vaginal mucosa. BV is a polymicrobial infection. Gardnerella is the most commonly associated pathogen. Other associated bacteria include Lactobacillus species, Prevotella, Mobiluncus, Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus, Fusobacterium, Veillonella, Eubacterium species, Mycoplasma hominis, Urea plasma urealyticum and Streptococcus viridans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 75
Correct
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CTG showing early decelerations is :
Your Answer: From increased vagal tone secondary to head compression
Explanation:Early decelerations: a result of increased vagal tone due to compression of the fetal head during contractions. Monitoring usually shows a symmetrical, gradual decrease and return to baseline of FHR, which is associated with a uterine contraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 76
Correct
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Question 77
Correct
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A 37-year-old woman has been taking Microgynon (oral contraceptive pill [OCP]).
When she presents for a repeat prescription, her BP is 160/100 mmHg.
She mentions that she would like to stop the OCP in six months so that she can conceive.
What is the most suitable advice for this woman?Your Answer: Cease the OCP, use condoms for contraception, and reassess the BP in three months.
Explanation:The woman’s blood pressure was elevated at her visit; therefore she should be advised to immediately cease the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) so that the hypertension can resolve without the need for any hypotensive treatment. The blood pressure can then be reassessed in three months. Alternative, non-hormonal birth control methods such as condoms should be used instead.
If her high blood pressure does not resolve, any medication that would be commenced to reduce her blood pressure should be one that is safe to continue when she becomes pregnant.
It is inappropriate to continue the OCP even at a lower dosage or in combination with a hypotensive agent.
Methyldopa has been evaluated and used for treatment of hypertension during pregnancy. There is no clinical evidence to suggest that it causes harm to the foetus or neonate.
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are not approved for use in pregnancy as they have been associated with fetal death in utero. Other antihypertensive agents such as beta-blockers and diuretics are also problematic in pregnancy and should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 78
Correct
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A 30 year old women comes to see you and advises she has felt a little unwell with diarrhoea and flu like symptoms. She is 28 weeks pregnant. Upon questioning she discloses she ate a soft cheese and deli meats platter 5 days earlier. A blood culture confirms listeria infection. What is the appropriate treatment (she has no known drug allergies)?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:The diagnosis of listeria depends on clinical suspicion and isolation of the organism from blood, vaginal swabs or the placenta. Meconium staining of the amniotic fluid in a preterm foetus may increase clinical suspicion for listeriosis. For women with listeriosis during pregnancy, intravenous antibiotic treatment (ampicillin 2 g given every 6 hours) is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 79
Correct
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A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11 months’ duration of infertility. On investigation, she is found to be ovulating, and her hysterosalpingogram is normal. On semen analysis, the following results were found:
Semen volume 5mL (2-6 mL)
Sperm count 1 million/mL * (>20 million)
Motility 15% (>40%)
Abnormal forms 95% (<60%)
A second specimen three months later confirms the above results.
Which would be the most suitable next step in management?
Your Answer: Carry out in vitro fertilisation (IVF) using intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI).
Explanation:Achieving spontaneous pregnancy is rare in cases where a couple have been infertile with abnormal semen analysis (count <5million/mL and reduced motility), hence there is generally an indication for treatment. FSH injection usually would not be expected to improve the semen specimen. Rate of pregnancy would be much lower if at the time of intrauterine insemination, the total motile count is less 5 million. In this case, his count is 1 million. Pregnancy is likely to be achieved with donor sperm but as it would not contain the husband’s genetic material, it would be only considered later on once all other methods involving his own sperm have failed. Out of all the options, IVF would most likely result in a pregnancy, in which it allows the husband’s sperm to spontaneously fertilise the oocyte. Rate of pregnancy would roughly be 2% per treatment cycle. This rate would increase to roughly 20% if ISCI is also used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 80
Correct
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A patient is attending for medical abortion. She is 15 weeks gestation. She has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate regarding antibiotic prophylaxis?
Your Answer: Stat Azithromycin 1g and metronidazole 800 mg orally at time of abortion
Explanation:If the patient has a negative Chlamydia screen then a stat dose of metronidazole monotherapy is appropriate. You do not know this patients Chlamydia status and therefore dual therapy with metronidazole + doxycycline or azithromycin is appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 81
Correct
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Anna, a 39-year-old medical receptionist presents to your gynaecologic clinic for a refill of her Microgynin 30 (combined oral contraceptive pill). Her history is significant for smoking around 1 pack per day. Her BMI is 37.
What should be the next management step?Your Answer: Offer her progestogen-only contraceptive options
Explanation:This patient is above 35 and smokes more than 15 cigarettes per day, which is an absolute contraindication to using a combined oral contraceptive pill. A BMI of greater than 35 is a relative contraindication to the usage of the combined oral contraceptive pill.
Progestogen-only contraception, such as etonogestrel implant, levonorgestrel intrauterine device, and depot medroxyprogesterone, should be offered to her.
Without initially attempting lifestyle changes, a referral for weight loss surgery is not required. Also, nicotine replacement therapy may aid in quitting smoking, but it may take time. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 82
Correct
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A 36-year-old lady comes into your office complaining of post-coital bleeding. Each sexual activity results in 5-6 mL of blood. She had never had a cervical cancer screening. Ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis is normal.
What is the best course of action?Your Answer: Do a Cervical Screening test as well liquid base cytology
Explanation:Postcoital bleeding refers to spotting or bleeding unrelated to menstruation that occurs during or after sexual intercourse. It can be a sign of serious underlying pathology and is usually alarming for patients. About one-third of patients also have abnormal uterine bleeding that is not associated with coitus and about 15 percent have dyspareunia. The most serious cause of postcoital bleeding is cervical cancer. About 11 percent of women with cervical cancer present with postcoital bleeding. The patient should undergo cervical cancer screening according to local guidelines. Postcoital bleeding is not an indication for cervical cytology if previous screening tests are up-to-date and normal.
Cervical screening and liquid based cytology are superior to transvaginal ultrasound.
Coagulation profile can be done if cytology is normal to rule out bleeding diathesis.
Tranexamic acid can be considered once malignancy is ruled out and cause of bleeding has been established.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 83
Correct
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Question 84
Incorrect
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What is the definition of hypertension in pregnancy?
Your Answer: A blood pressure above 140/90 mmHg
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The NICE guidelines on Hypertension in pregnancy define blood pressure in pregnancy as follows:
Mild hypertension: DBP=90-99 mmHg, SBP=140-149 mmHg. Moderate hypertension: DBP=100-109 mmHg, SBP=150-159 mmHg.
Severe hypertension: DBP=110 mmHg or greater, SBP=160 mmHg or greater. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department of your hospital complaining of fever, she had given birth to a healthy male baby four days ago. During vaginal delivery, she sustained small vaginal laceration, suture repair was not done as the lesion were small. Presently she is breastfeeding her baby.
Physical examination shows no uterine tenderness and the rest of the examinations were unremarkable.
Which of the following can be the most likely cause of this Patient's fever?Your Answer: Endometritis
Correct Answer: Infection of the unrepaired vaginal laceration
Explanation:As the time of onset of fever is the 4th day of postpartum and absence of uterine tenderness on exam makes infection of vaginal laceration the most likely cause of this presentation.
Exquisite uterine tenderness will be experienced in case of endometritis and symptoms are expected to start much earlier like by 2-3 days of postpartum.
UTI is often expected on days one or two of postpartum, also there are no urinary symptoms suggestive of UTI
Breast engorgement usually develops by 7th -2st day of postpartum and in the given case it’s too soon for it to occur.
As it is expected during the first 2 hours postpartum, Atelectasis is unlikely to be the cause of symptoms in the given case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 86
Incorrect
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Which vitamin deficiency leads to Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Your Answer: B6
Correct Answer: B1
Explanation:Vitamin B1 deficiency can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Alcoholics are at particular risk. In obstetrics all women with hyperemesis gravidarum should receive thiamine supplementation to prevent Wernicke’s.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 87
Incorrect
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The femoral triangle contains all of the following structures EXCEPT which one?
Your Answer: Saphenofemoral Junction
Correct Answer: Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve
Explanation:The contents of the femoral triangles are femoral nerve, artery and the vein. Along with the femoral sheath and lymphatics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 88
Correct
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If your patient is 8 weeks pregnant which one of the following USS measurements is most useful?
Your Answer: Crown rump length
Explanation:Fetal crown-rump length (CRL) is recommended over last menstrual period for estimating GA when measured in early pregnancy i.e. before 9 to 13+6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of vague stomach pain. A unilocular cyst (3.8 x 4.3 x 3.0 cm) was discovered in the left ovary during a trans-abdominal ultrasound.
What is the best management strategy?Your Answer: Repeat ultrasound within 3-4 months
Correct Answer: Reassurance, no further action required
Explanation:In premenopausal women, watchful waiting usually involves monitoring for symptoms (pelvic pain or pressure) and repeating the pelvic ultrasound after six to eight weeks. If the ovarian cyst does not enlarge or if it resolves during the period of watchful waiting, it does not usually require surgical removal. Some premenopausal women will be advised to take a birth control pill during this time to help prevent new ovarian cysts from developing.
If a cyst decreases in size or does not change, the ultrasound is often repeated at regular intervals until your healthcare provider is certain that the cyst is not growing. If the cyst resolves, no further testing or follow-up is required.
Surgery may be recommended in the following situations:
– A cyst is causing persistent pain or pressure, or may rupture or twist.
– A cyst appears on ultrasound to be caused by endometriosis and is removed for fertility reasons.
– Large cysts (>5 to 10 cm) are more likely to require surgical removal compared to smaller cysts. However, a large size does not predict whether a cyst is cancerous.
– If the cyst appears suspicious for cancer. If you have risk factors for ovarian cancer or the cyst looks potentially cancerous on imaging studies, your healthcare provider may recommend surgery.
– If the suspicion for ovarian cancer is low but the cyst does not resolve after several ultrasounds, you may choose to have it removed after a discussion with your healthcare provider. However, surgical removal is not usually necessary in this case. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 90
Correct
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What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?
Your Answer: pubic arch
Explanation:The pelvic outlet is bounded anteriorly by the inferior border of the pubic arch, posteriorly by the sacrotuberous ligament and the tip of the coccyx and laterally by the ischial tuberosities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 91
Incorrect
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The ascending colon drains into the superior mesenteric vein (SMV). What vein does the SMV drain into?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Correct Answer: Hepatic portal vein
Explanation:The superior mesenteric vein joins the splenic vein to form the hepatic portal vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 92
Correct
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Leydig cells contain receptors to which hormone?
Your Answer: LH
Explanation:The Leydig cells contain receptors to the luteinizing hormone which in turn is responsible for the production of testosterone. This circulates in the body predominantly bound to transport proteins and to a lesser extent to albumin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 93
Correct
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Question 94
Correct
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The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where is it located?
Your Answer: Ilium
Explanation:Arcuate means ‘bow shaped’ and there are different arcuate lines in anatomical terms. Regarding the pelvic brim this is composed of the arcuate line of the ilium, pectineal line and prominences of sacrum and pubic symphysis (as demonstrated in the images below). As can be seen the arcuate line is a smooth rounded border on the internal surface of the ilium inferior to the iliac fossa and Iliacus. Image sourced from Wikipedia Note: The pelvic outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 95
Correct
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A 25-year-old high school teacher arrives for a prescription for a combination oral contraceptive tablet. She is new to your clinic, having recently relocated for a new position at a junior college. She does not smoke or consume alcoholic beverages. Sumatriptan 20mg intranasal spray has helped her with recurring headaches with aura in the past.
What are your plans for the future?Your Answer: Offer progestogen-only contraceptive options
Explanation:The combination oral contraceptive pill is an unequivocal contraindication for this patient (migraine with aura). Progestogen-only contraception, such as etonogestrel implant, levonorgestrel intrauterine device, and depot medroxyprogesterone, should be offered to her.
There is no need for a neurologist’s assessment or a brain MRI because her migraines are managed with sumatriptan nasal spray. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 96
Correct
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A 16 year old girl has been referred as she has amenorrhoea. She reports never having periods. Her mother and 2 sisters menarche was at age 12. On examination you note the patient is 152cm tall and BMI 29.0 and secondary sexual characteristics are not developed. Her FSH is elevated. Prolactin is normal. What is the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Turner Syndrome
Explanation:Turner syndrome is the most common chromosomal abnormality in females occurring in 1 in 2500 live births. It is characterised by short stature, webbed neck and wide carrying angle. It is also associated with renal, endocrine and CVS abnormalities. In this condition the ovaries do not completely develop and do not produce oestrogen or oocytes, thus no secondary sexual characteristic develop and neither does the girl starts menstruating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old nulliparous lady came seeking contraceptive advice. She has never smoked and has no relatives who have been diagnosed with breast cancer or heart disease.
Her weight is 90 kg, her height is 167 cm, her BMI is 32 kg/m2, and her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg, as recorded on two occasions. She also suffers from hirsutism. she was diagnosed with PCOS.
What are your plans for her?Your Answer: Antiandrogen pill
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis. A woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovaries (as opposed to PCOS) if she has 20 or more follicles in at least 1 ovary. The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
Hirsutism
Infertility
Obesity and metabolic syndrome
Diabetes
Obstructive sleep apnoeaDrugs used in the treatment of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) include metformin (off-label use), spironolactone, eflornithine (topical cream to treat hirsutism), and oral contraceptives. Oral contraceptives containing a combination of oestrogen and progestin increase sex hormone–binding globulin (SHBG) levels and thereby reduce the free testosterone level. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels are also suppressed. This restores cyclic exposure of the endometrium to oestrogen-progestin, with the resumption of menstrual periods and decreased hirsutism.
Drug of choice for treatment of PCOS are COCs, all other options are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk of developing endometrial carcinoma?
Your Answer: Obesity
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome
Explanation:The factor associated with the greatest relative risk for endometrial carcinoma is polycystic ovary syndrome, which has a relative risk of 75. The use of long-term high doses of postmenopausal oestrogen carries an estimated risk of 10-20. Living in North America or Europe also has an estimated risk of 10-20.
A lower relative risk is associated with nulliparity, obesity, infertility, late menopause, older age, and white race- The relative risk associated with these factors falls into the range of 2-5. Early menarche, higher education or income levels, menstrual irregularities, and a history of diabetes, hypertension, gall bladder disease, or thyroid disease have a relative risk of around 1.5-2.0.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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Lymph drainage from the bladder is via which nodes?
Your Answer: Para-aortic nodes
Correct Answer: External, Internal and Common iliac nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic drainage of the bladder is to the common iliac nodes via the internal iliac nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 100
Incorrect
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Which of the following is regarded as the current Gold standard in the diagnosis of Polycystic Ovary Syndrome?
Your Answer: ROME III
Correct Answer: Rotterdam
Explanation:The Rotterdam criteria was developed and expanded by the European Society of Human Reproduction and Embryology/American Society for Reproductive Medicine Rotterdam consensus (ESHRE/ASRM) in 2003 and is now the Gold standard in the diagnosis of PCOS. The criteria requires two of three features: anovulation, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries seen on ultrasound.
The National Institute of Child Health and Human Development (NICHD) attempted to define PCOS in 1990 but omitted ultrasonographic evidence of polycystic ovaries which is considered to be diagnostic of PCOS.
The Androgen Excess Society (AES) served to confirm hyperandrogenism as the central event in the development of PCOS.
The ROME III criteria is used for Irritable Bowel Disease and is therefore not applicable to PCOS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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