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  • Question 1 - A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left leg. He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer: Right anterior spinothalamic tract

      Correct Answer: Right lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract is a sensory pathway originating in the spinal cord that transmits information to the thalamus. There are two main parts of the spinothalamic tract: the lateral spinothalamic tract transmits pain and temperature and the anterior spinothalamic tract transmits touch (crude touch). The decussation of this pathway occurs at the level of the spinal cord. Hence, a unilateral lesion of the lateral spinothalamic tract causes contralateral loss of pain and temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery...

    Correct

    • In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery that has the same name. Which of the following listed veins doesn't run parallel to the artery of the same name?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric vein don’t run in tandem because the vein is part of the portal venous system-draining into the splenic vein which drains into the hepatic portal vein. The inferior mesenteric artery is a branch of the descending aorta at the level of L3. The inferior mesenteric vein and artery, however, drain the same region i.e. the descending and sigmoid colon and rectum.

      Superior epigastric vessels course together and are the continuation of the internal thoracic artery and vein.

      Superficial circumflex iliac vessels course together in the superficial fat of the abdominal wall.

      Superior rectal vessels are the terminal ends of the inferior mesenteric vessels, located on the posterior surface of the rectum.

      The ileocolic artery and vein are branches off the superior mesenteric vessels. Both course in the mesentery, supplying/draining the caecum, appendix, terminal portion of the ileum. The inferior epigastric vessels run together.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is involved in vitamin B12 absorption? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is involved in vitamin B12 absorption?

      Your Answer: Intrinsic factor

      Explanation:

      Absorption of vitamin B12 is by an active transport process and occurs in the ileum. Most cobalamins are bound to proteins and are released in the stomach due to low pH and pepsin. The cobalamins then bind to R proteins, i.e. haptocorrin (HC) secreted from salivary glands and gastric juice. Another cobalamin binding protein is Intrinsic factor (IF) secreted from the gastric parietal cells. The cobalamin-HC complex is digested by pancreatic proteases in the intestinal lumen, and the free cobalamin then binds to IF. The complex then reaches a transmembrane receptor in the ileum and undergoes endocytosis. Cobalamin is then released intracellularly and binds to transcobalamin II (TC II). The newly formed complex then exits the ileal cell and enters the blood circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line. Thus, there might be an increase in blood flow downward to the systemic venous system via anastomoses with the inferior rectal vein. This is a tributary of?

      Your Answer: Internal pudendal vein

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectal vein drains into the internal pudendal vein. In addition the external iliac vein is one of the two branches of the common iliac vein however the internal iliac vein and it’s tributaries (including the pudendal vein) are much more important in draining the pelvic structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which condition presents with a positive urine dipstick test for blood, but no...

    Correct

    • Which condition presents with a positive urine dipstick test for blood, but no blood cells on urine microscopy?

      Your Answer: Myoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      Myoglobinuria, or presence of myoglobulin in the urine is seen due to rhabdomyolysis (muscle destruction). Common causes of rhabdomyolysis include trauma, electrical injuries, burns, venom and drugs. Damaged muscle leads to release of myoglobin in the blood. Ideally, the released myoglobin gets filtered and excreted by the kidneys. However, excess myoglobin can occlude the renal filtration system leading to acute tubular necrosis and acute renal dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55- year old male patient with cancer of the head of the...

    Correct

    • A 55- year old male patient with cancer of the head of the pancreas was to undergo whipple's operation to have the tumour removed. During the surgery, the surgeon had to ligate the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery to stop blood supply to the head of the pancreas. Which of the following arteries does the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery branch from?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery or from the first intestinal branch of the superior mesenteric artery. Once given off, it runs to the right between the pancreatic head and the duodenum and then ascends to form an anastomosis with the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year old lady was admitted to the general surgical ward after a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old lady was admitted to the general surgical ward after a diagnosis of perforation of the first part of the duodenum that resulted from a long standing ulcer. If this perforation led to the expulsion of the gastric content that resulted to the erosion of an artery found in this part of the duodenum (the posterior of the first part of the duodenum). Which of the following arteries is this most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal

      Explanation:

      The proximal part of the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery. This artery is found descending behind the first part of the duodenum after branching from the hepatic artery. If gastric content was to be expelled in the posterior portion of the first part of the duodenum, then this artery would be most likely to be damaged. The common hepatic artery and the left gastric artery are branches of the coeliac trunk that are found superior to the duodenum. The proper hepatic artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery also found superior to the duodenum. The superior mesenteric artery is found behind the pancreas as a branch of the aorta that is at the bottom of the L1 level. The right gastric artery arises above the pylorus from the proper hepatic artery and supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach. The intestinal arteries supply the ileum and the jejunum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year old lady presented to the clinic with chronic pain in the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year old lady presented to the clinic with chronic pain in the abdomen. On physical examination, she was found to be pale. Further investigations revealed a decrease in both serum iron and total iron-binding capacity, along with an increase in serum ferritin. These findings are seen in:

      Your Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease

      Explanation:

      Anaemia of chronic disease is characterized by low serum iron, iron-binding capacity and saturation with increased ferritin (storage iron). Haemolytic anaemia is characterized by normal iron levels as the haemoglobin released from the haemolysed red blood cells is recycled. Anaemia due to chronic blood loss leads to low serum iron, low ferritin and high total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). Malabsorption, especially with duodenal involvement can also lead to iron deficiency anaemia with low ferritin and high TIBC. Megaloblastic anaemia due to vitamin B12 and folate deficiency is not associated with abnormalities in metabolism of iron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-years-old man presented to the emergency department complaining of a squeezing sensation...

    Correct

    • A 55-years-old man presented to the emergency department complaining of a squeezing sensation in his chest that has spread to his neck with associated worsening shortness of breath. Which of these laboratory tests would you ask for in this patient:

      Your Answer: Creatine kinase-MB

      Explanation:

      Creatine kinase-MB is a test that usually is ordered when the patient has chest pain as a cardiac marker. When a heart attack is suspected and a troponin test (which is more specific for heart damage), is not available CK-MB is ordered. There are 3 forms of CK: CK-MM, CK-BB and CK-MB. CK-MB is commonly found in heart tissue, therefore injured heart muscle cells release CK-MB into the blood. Elevated CK-MB levels indicate that it is probable that a person has recently had a heart attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch?

      Your Answer: Is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Gives rise to the sphenomandibular ligament

      Explanation:

      The first brachial arch (mandibular) gives rise to the mandibular and maxillary processes. Muscles and bones of this process originate within the arch’s mesoderm. The first arch cartilage (Meckel’s) ossifies to form the incus and malleus of the middle ear. Its perichondrium gives rise to he sphenomandibular ligament and through intermembraneous ossification after the mandible forms, the rest of the cartilage disappears. Muscles of the first arch include: mylohyoid, tensor tympany and palati, temporalis, masseter and lateral pterygoids and the anterior belly of the epigastric. This first arch is supplied by the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following structures carry part of the right bundle branch of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures carry part of the right bundle branch of the AV bundle?

      Your Answer: Chordae tendineae

      Correct Answer: Moderator band (septomarginal trabecula)

      Explanation:

      The moderator band extends from the base of the anterior papillary muscle to the ventricular septum. It is the structure which carries part of the right AV bundle. Its role it to prevent overdistention of the ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following has the highest content of triglycerides? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following has the highest content of triglycerides?

      Your Answer: Chylomicron

      Explanation:

      Created by the small intestinal cells, chylomicrons are large lipoprotein molecules which transport lipids to the liver, adipose, cardiac and skeletal tissue. Chylomicrons are mainly composed of triglycerides (,85%) along with some cholesterol and cholesteryl esters. Apo B-48 is the main apolipoprotein content.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In a study, breast lumps were analysed to determine the characteristic of malignant...

    Correct

    • In a study, breast lumps were analysed to determine the characteristic of malignant neoplasm on biopsy. What microscopic findings are suggestive of malignancy?

      Your Answer: Invasion

      Explanation:

      Invasion is suggestive of malignancy and an even better option would have been metastasis. Pleomorphism is found in both benign and malignant neoplasms along with atypia and anaplasia. A height nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio is suggestive of malignancy but not the best indicator. Malignant tumours are aggressive and growth rapidly. Necrosis can be seen in benign tumours if they deplete their blood supply.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which muscle originates from the common flexor tendon of the forearm? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscle originates from the common flexor tendon of the forearm?

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum superficialis

      Explanation:

      The medial epicondyle of the humerus is the site of origin of this group of muscles of the forearm. It originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus by a common tendon. Fibres from the deep fascia of the forearm, near the elbow and septa, pass from this fascia between the muscles. These muscles include the pronator teres, palmaris longus, flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum superficialis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A lady presents to the out patient clinic with a painful boil on...

    Correct

    • A lady presents to the out patient clinic with a painful boil on the skin of her mons pubis. Which nerve supplies the skin of the mons pubis?

      Your Answer: Anterior labial

      Explanation:

      Anterior labial branch is the terminal branch of the ilioinguinal nerve that innervates the skin of the mons pubis in women and the skin of the anterior scrotum in men.

      The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve innervates the upper medial thigh.

      The iliohypogastric innervates muscles of the abdominal wall.

      The subcostal nerve innervates muscles of the abdominal wall and the skin of the lower abdominal wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A lad involved in a road traffic accident is rushed to casualty where...

    Correct

    • A lad involved in a road traffic accident is rushed to casualty where physical examination reveals that he has limited extension of his right humerus. Which of the following nerves is most likely to have been injured?

      Your Answer: Thoracodorsal nerve

      Explanation:

      Extension of the humerus is a function of the latissimus dorsi. This muscle is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve which is a branch of the posterior cord of the plexus whose fibres are derived from cranial nerves V, VI and VII.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to suffer from, if he/she was born with incomplete fusion of the embryonic endocardial cushions?

      Your Answer: An atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      The endocardial cushions in the heart are the mesenchymal tissue that make up the part of the atrioventricular valves, atrial septum and ventricular septum. An incomplete fusion of these mesenchymal cells can cause an atrioventricular septal defect. The terms endocardial cushion defect, atrioventricular septal defect and common atrioventricular canal defect can be used interchangeably with one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest...

    Correct

    • A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

      Your Answer: Shunt reversal

      Explanation:

      A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 14 year-old girl is found to have haemophilia B. What pathological problem...

    Correct

    • A 14 year-old girl is found to have haemophilia B. What pathological problem does she have?

      Your Answer: Deficiency of factor IX

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia B (also known as Christmas disease) is due to a deficiency in factor IX. Haemophilia A is due to a deficiency in factor VIII.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old female sought consultation due to excessive vaginal discharge. Vaginal smear showed...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female sought consultation due to excessive vaginal discharge. Vaginal smear showed numerous bacilli under the microscope. The organism was non-pathogenic. What is the most likely organism:

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Correct Answer: Lactobacillus species

      Explanation:

      Lactobacillus is a Gram-positive facultative bacteria. It is commonly present in the vagina and the gastrointestinal tract. Colonization of Lactobacillus is usually benign and it makes up a small portion of the gastrointestinal flora.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication would most likely predispose the patient to develop hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The most important potential side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalaemia (high potassium levels), which, in severe cases, can be life-threatening. Hyperkalaemia in these patients can present as a non anion-gap metabolic acidosis. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 45-year old gentleman presented to the emergency department at 5.00 AM with...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old gentleman presented to the emergency department at 5.00 AM with pain in his left flank. The pain began suddenly and presented in waves throughout the night. Urine examination was normal except for presence of blood and few white blood cells. The pH and specific gravity of the urine were also found to be within normal range. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ureteric calculus

      Explanation:

      A calculus in the ureter, if less than 5mm in diameter is likely to pass spontaneously. However, a larger calculus irritates the ureter and may become lodged, leading to hydroureter and/or hydronephrosis. Likely sites where the calculus might get lodged, include pelviureteric junction, distal ureter at the level of iliac vessels and the vesicoureteric junction. An obstruction can result in reduced glomerular filtration. There can be deterioration in renal function due to hydronephrosis and a raised glomerular pressure, leading to poor renal blood flow. Permanent renal dysfunction usually takes about 4 weeks to occur. Secondary infection can also occur in chronic obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An alcoholic patient was found to have hypomagnesaemia on blood tests. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • An alcoholic patient was found to have hypomagnesaemia on blood tests. Which of the following clinical features will have prompted the doctor to check the serum magnesium level in this patient?

      Your Answer: Weakness

      Correct Answer: Seizures

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterised by a low level of magnesium in the blood. The normal range for serum magnesium level is 0.75-1.05 mmol/l. In hypomagnesaemia serum levels of magnesium are less than 0.75 mmol/l. The cardiovascular and nervous systems are the most commonly affected. Neuromuscular manifestations include symptoms like tremor, tetany, weakness, apathy, delirium, a positive Chvostek and Trousseau sign, nystagmus and seizures. Cardiovascular manifestations include electrocardiographic abnormalities and arrhythmias e.g. ventricular fibrillation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 75-year old patient is in atrial fibrallation but has never been on...

    Correct

    • A 75-year old patient is in atrial fibrallation but has never been on anticoagulation therapy. To reduce the risk of future emboli, she would benefit from starting on long-term warfarin. Arterial emboli leading to acute limb ischaemia most commonly lodge at which one of the following sites?

      Your Answer: Common femoral artery

      Explanation:

      The common femoral artery is the commonest site of arterial emboli causing acute limb ischemia. The treatment of choice is urgent femoral embolectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of...

    Correct

    • On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of the axillary artery was found to be transected. Which of the following arteries would have been likely injured?

      Your Answer: Anterior circumflex humeral

      Explanation:

      The axillary artery gives off many branches from the first, second, or third parts along its course. The third part of the axillary artery gives off 3 branches: the subscapular, anterior and posterior circumflex humeral arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      79.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of these nerves controls adduction of hand? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these nerves controls adduction of hand?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The adductors of the fingers are the palmer interossei. They are supplied by the ulnar nerve, which is a branch of the medical cord of the brachial plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 50 year old male point was diagnosed with tennis elbow that became...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old male point was diagnosed with tennis elbow that became worse after he started playing basket ball over the last three months. He was admitted to the orthopaedic ward to have elbow braces fitted. What type of synovial joint is the elbow joint?

      Your Answer: Hinge

      Explanation:

      The elbow joint is one of the many synovial joints in the body. This joint is an example of the hinge joint as the humerus is received into the semilunar notch of the ulna and the capitulum of the humerus articulates with the fovea on the head of the radius, together acting as a hinge in one plane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 40-year old lady with a flail chest due to trauma was breathing...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old lady with a flail chest due to trauma was breathing with the help of a mechanical ventilator in the ICU, and was heavily sedated on muscle relaxants. Due to sudden power failure, a nurse began to hand-ventilate the patient with a Ambu bag. What change will occur in the following parameters: (Arterial p(CO2), pH) in the intervening period between power failure and hand ventilation?

      Your Answer: Increase, Decrease

      Explanation:

      Respiratory acidosis occurs due to alveolar hypoventilation which leads to increased arterial carbon dioxide concentration (p(CO2)). This in turn decreases the HCO3 –/p(CO2) and decreases pH. Respiratory acidosis can be acute or chronic. In acute respiratory acidosis, the p(CO2) is raised above the upper limit of normal (over 45 mm Hg) with low pH. However, in chronic cases, the raised p(CO2) is accompanied with a normal or near-normal pH due to renal compensation and an increased serum bicarbonate (HCO3 – > 30 mmHg). The given problem represents acute respiratory acidosis and thus, will show a increase in arterial p(CO2) and decrease in pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 22-year old man presented with a mass in his left scrotum which...

    Correct

    • A 22-year old man presented with a mass in his left scrotum which was more prominent when standing and felt like a 'bag of worms'. Examination revealed a non-tender mass along the spermatic cord. Also, the right testis was larger than the left testis. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Varicocele

      Explanation:

      Varicocele refers to dilatation and increased tortuosity of the pampiniform plexus – which is a network of veins found in spermatic cord that drain the testicle. Defective valves or extrinsic compression can result in outflow obstruction and cause dilatation near the testis. Normal diameter of the small vessels ranges from 0.5 – 1.5mm. A varicocele is a dilatation more than 2mm.

      The plexus travels from the posterior aspect of testis into the inguinal canal with other structures forming the spermatic cord. They then form the testicular veins out of which the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava and the left into the left renal vein.

      It affects 15-20% men, and 40% of infertile males. Usually diagnosed in 15-25 years of age, they are rarely seen after 40 years of age. Because of the vertical path taken by the left testicular vein to drain into left renal vein, 98% idiopathic varicoceles occur on the left side. It is bilateral in 70% cases. Right-sided varicoceles are rare.

      Symptoms include pain or heaviness in the testis, infertility, testicular atrophy, a palpable mass, which is non-tender and along the spermatic cord (resembling a ‘bag of worms’). The testis on the affected side might be smaller.

      Diagnosis can be made by ultrasound. Provocative measures such as Valsalva manoeuvre or making the patient stand up to increase the dilatation by increasing the intra-abdominal venous pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The following organs would be expected to lie within the right lower quadrant...

    Correct

    • The following organs would be expected to lie within the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, assuming that the gastrointestinal tract is rotated normally:

      Your Answer: Distal jejunum, caecum, vermiform appendix

      Explanation:

      The abdomen is divided by theoretical anatomic lines into four quadrants. The median plane follows the linea alba and extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis and splits the abdomen in half. The transumbilical plane is a horizontal line that runs at the level of the umbilicus. This forms the upper right and left quadrants and the lower right and left quadrants. Structures in the right lower quadrant include: caecum, appendix, part of the small intestine, ascending colon, the right half of the female reproductive system, right ureter. Pain in this region is most commonly associated with appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      31.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (3/4) 75%
Abdomen (5/5) 100%
Anatomy (11/14) 79%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Pathology (10/12) 83%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (3/3) 100%
Embryology (1/2) 50%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (4/5) 80%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed