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  • Question 1 - Which one of the following statements regarding fetal blood pH is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding fetal blood pH is correct?

      Your Answer: Can be measured during labour

      Explanation:

      A sample for fetal blood pH can be taken during the labour. The mother should be lying in a left lateral position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      535.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days

      Explanation:

      The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in Pregnancy: Erythromycin 500mg four times a day for 7 days or Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days or Amoxicillin 500 mg three times a day for 7 days or Azithromycin 1 gm stat (only if no alternative, safety in pregnancy not fully assessed) The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in NON-PREGNANT patients: Doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days OR Azithromycin 1gm orally in a single dose NOTE: Doxycycline and Ofloxacin are contraindicated in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - At ovulation the surge in LH causes rupture of the mature oocyte via...

    Incorrect

    • At ovulation the surge in LH causes rupture of the mature oocyte via action on what?

      Your Answer: Theca interna

      Correct Answer: Theca externa

      Explanation:

      The luteinizing hormone (LH) surge during ovulation causes: Increases cAMP resulting in increased progesterone and PGF2 production PGF2 causes contraction of theca externa smooth muscle cells resulting in rupture of the mature oocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular cycles. The most...

    Correct

    • An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Combined pill

      Explanation:

      Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia?

      Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation

      Explanation:

      The most common congenital thrombophilia is Factor V Leiden mutation. Other congenital causes are JAK-2 mutations and the Prothrombin G20210A mutation. Protein C and S deficiencies are type 1 and antiphospholipid syndrome is not congenital it is an acquired thrombophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient who has been seen in fertility clinic phones regarding the timing...

    Correct

    • A patient who has been seen in fertility clinic phones regarding the timing of her progesterone blood test. She has regular 35 day menstrual cycles. When testing for ovulation what day of her cycle should she have the test on?

      Your Answer: 28

      Explanation:

      The mid-luteal progesterone sample should be taken 7 days before the expected period i.e. day 21 in a 28-day cycle or day 28 of a 35 day cycle

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In reducing the risk of blood transfusion in pregnancy and labour which of...

    Correct

    • In reducing the risk of blood transfusion in pregnancy and labour which of the following strategies is recommended?

      Your Answer: A Hb of less than 10.5g/l should prompt haematinics and exclusion of haemoglobinopathies

      Explanation:

      Anaemia in pregnancy is most frequently caused by iron or folate deficiency, however, a wide variety of other causes may be considered, especially if the haemoglobin value is below 9.0 g/dL. A haemoglobin level of 11 g/dL or more is considered normal early in pregnancy, with the upper limit of the ‘normal range’ dropping to 10.5 g/dL by 28 weeks gestation. Haemoglobin < 10.5 g/dl in the antenatal period, one should exclude haemoglobinopathies and consider haematinic deficiency. Oral iron is 1st line treatment for iron deficiency. Anaemia not due to haematinic deficiency will not respond to any form of iron. This should be managed with transfusion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital due to contractions and spontaneous rupture of membranes. Patient underwent a cesarean delivery with her first child due to breech presentation, but this pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has no chronic medical conditions and is taking only a prenatal vitamin. 

      Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 20 kg/m2 and she has gained 15.9 kg (35 lb) during pregnancy.  On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/80 mm Hg. 

      The patient is admitted and epidural anesthesia is administered with an intrauterine pressure catheter in place. She quickly dilates to 10 cm with the fetal vertex at 0 station, occiput transverse.  Four hours later, the pelvic examination is unchanged but there is molding and caput on the fetal head.  Fetal monitoring is category I.  Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and the patient pushes with each contraction.  The contraction strength is an average of 210 MVU every 10 minutes. 

      Which among the following is most likely the etiology for this patient’s clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Fetal malposition

      Explanation:

      Condition where there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours in nulliparous and ≥2 hours if multiparous women is defined as Second stage arrest of labor. Common risk factors for this presentation are maternal obesity, excessive weight gain during pregnancy and diabetes mellitus. Cephalopelvic disproportion, malposition, inadequate contractions and maternal exhaustion are the common etiologies of Second stage arrest of labor. Management includes Operative vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery as indicated in the case.

      The second stage of labor begins with the dilatation of cervix to 10 cm and will end with fetal delivery. Parity and use of neuraxial anesthesia are the two factors which will affect the duration of second stage of labor and fetal station, which measures the descent of the fetal head through the pelvis determines its progression.

      When there is no fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours or ≥2 hours in in nulliparous and multiparous patients respectively the condition is called an arrested second stage of labor. As her first delivery was a cesarean session due to breech presentation, this patient in the case is considered as nulliparous.

      Most common cause of a protracted or arrested second stage is fetal malposition, which is the relation between the fetal presenting part to the maternal pelvis. Occiput anterior is the optimal fetal position as it facilitates the cardinal movements of labor, any deviations from this position like in occiput transverse position, can lead to cephalopelvic disproportion resulting in second stage arrest.
      Inadequate contractions, that is less than 200 MVU averaged over 10 minutes, can lead to labor arrest but contractions are adequate in case of the patient mentioned.
      Second stage arrest can be due to maternal obesity and excessive weight gain during pregnancy but this patient had a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 20 kg/m2 and an appropriate weight gain of 15.9 kg 35 lb. So this also cannot be the reason.

      Maternal expulsive efforts will change the fetal skull shape. This process called as molding helps to facilitate delivery by changing the fetal head into the shape of the pelvis. Whereas prolonged pressure on head can result in scalp edema which is called as caput, presence of both molding and caput suggest cephalopelvic disproportion, but is not suggestive of poor maternal effort.

      Patients with a prior history of uterine myomectomy or cesarean delivery are at higher risk for uterine rupture.  In cases of uterine rupture, the patient will present with fetal heart rate abnormalities, sudden loss of fetal station (eg, going from +1 to −3 station) along with fetal retreat upward and into the abdominal cavity through the uterine scar due to decreased intrauterine pressure. In the given case patient’s fetal heart rate tracing is category 1 and fetal station has remained 0 which are non suggestive of uterine rupture.

      When there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing ≥3 hours in nulliparous patients or ≥2 hours in multiparous patients is considered as second stage arrest of labor. The most common cause of second stage arrest is cephalopelvic disproportion, were the fetus presents in a nonocciput anterior position called as fetal malposition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      920.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department of your hospital complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department of your hospital complaining of fever, she had given birth to a healthy male baby four days ago. During vaginal delivery, she sustained small vaginal laceration, suture repair was not done as the lesion were small. Presently she is breastfeeding her baby.

      Physical examination shows no uterine tenderness and the rest of the examinations were unremarkable.

      Which of the following can be the most likely cause of this Patient's fever?

      Your Answer: Endometritis

      Correct Answer: Infection of the unrepaired vaginal laceration

      Explanation:

      As the time of onset of fever is the 4th day of postpartum and absence of uterine tenderness on exam makes infection of vaginal laceration the most likely cause of this presentation.

      Exquisite uterine tenderness will be experienced in case of endometritis and symptoms are expected to start much earlier like by 2-3 days of postpartum.

      UTI is often expected on days one or two of postpartum, also there are no urinary symptoms suggestive of UTI

      Breast engorgement usually develops by 7th -2st day of postpartum and in the given case it’s too soon for it to occur.

      As it is expected during the first 2 hours postpartum, Atelectasis is unlikely to be the cause of symptoms in the given case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is contained within the deep perineal pouch? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is contained within the deep perineal pouch?

      Your Answer: Proximal portion of urethra

      Explanation:

      The deep perineal pouch contains the external urethral sphincter, proximal urethra in females and membranous urethra in males, deep transverse perineal muscles and the glands of cowper.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia....

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. She has been using an IUCD for one year now and wants to know the cause of her current condition. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Asherman syndrome

      Correct Answer: PID

      Explanation:

      IUCD is a risk factor for PID and PID has the clinical picture already described. However, fibroids should also be excluded since they may present in the same way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Spinnbarkheit is a term which means: ...

    Correct

    • Spinnbarkheit is a term which means:

      Your Answer: Threading of the cervical mucous

      Explanation:

      Spinnability (or Spinnbarkeit), which measures the capacity of fluids to be drawn into threads, represents an indirect measurement of the adhesive and elastic properties of mucus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 24-year-old primigravid woman comes to the office to establish prenatal care at...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old primigravid woman comes to the office to establish prenatal care at 14 weeks gestation. Patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping, no chronic medical conditions, and her only medication is a daily dose of prenatal vitamin. Patient follows a vegan diet and drinks 2 cups of coffee in the morning, also she is an avid runner who runs 5 miles most days. Patient does not use tobacco, alcohol or any other illicit drugs. 

      On physical examination her vital signs are normal, with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 22 kg/m2.
      Transvaginal ultrasound shows a single intrauterine gestation with a heart rate of 155/min. 

      Among the following possible lifestyle modifications needed during pregnancy, which is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Discontinue the vegan diet

      Correct Answer: Increase caloric intake by about 350 kcal/day

      Explanation:

      Nutrition in pregnancy
      Weight gain must be:
      – In patients <18.5 kg/m2, there should be an increase of 12.7 - 18 kg (28-40 lb)
      – In patients 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb)
      – In patients 25 – 29.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 6.8 – 11.4 kg (15-25 lb)
      – In patients ≥30 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 5 – 9 kg (11-20 lb)

      Supplementation required:
      – Intake of daily prenatal vitamin
      – Additional specific supplements as indicated
      – Avoidance of harmful substances like drugs, alcohol, etc
      – Substance abuse counseling
      – Avoidance of fish with high mercury levels
      – Moderating caffeine intake

      Food safety:
      – Avoid undercooked meat, fish & eggs
      – Clean raw fruits & vegetables before consuming
      – Avoid unpasteurized dairy products

      Nutrition in pregnancy is addressed at the initial prenatal visit based on pre-pregnancy BMI. Appropriate weight gain for a women with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 should be 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy. This weight gain is equivalent to the increasing caloric intake of 350 kcal/day during the second and 450 kcal/day during the third trimesters.  Patients following any specific diets like veganism can continue their usual diet throughout pregnancy as long as it contains a well-balanced quantity of protein, carbohydrates and fats.

      Vitamin and mineral supplementation during pregnancy is a single, daily prenatal vitamin recommended for majority of pregnant women as it helps to fulfill most of the daily vitamin and mineral supplementation requirements. In case of patients with vitamin or mineral deficiencies like iron, calcium, etc, a specific supplementation of the deficit vitamin/mineral only is required rather than multiple prenatal vitamins to avoid consuming harmful amounts of other vitamins like vitamin A.  Vegans, who are at risk for some vitamin and mineral deficiencies like vitamin B12, calcium, iron, etc, secondary to lack of meat consumption, may require supplementation.

      Pregnant women are counselled on avoidance of harmful substances like alcohol, drugs, etc and substances like fish with high mercury levels.  Although high caffeine intake during pregnancy can be harmful, a moderate intake ie, 1 or 2 cups of coffee a day is thought to be safe.

      Safe handling of food is important because some food products are found to result in congenital infection and intrauterine fetal demise. Patients are also counselled to avoid undercooked meat, fish, and eggs; to thoroughly clean raw fruits and vegetables and to avoid consumption of unpasteurized dairy products.

      By maintaining a proper maternal nutrition during pregnancy, patients are provide appropriate nutrition to the fetal and thereby reducing the risk of pregnancy related complications like low birth weight, preterm delivery, etc.

      Pregnant patients are counseled to avoid exercises like contact sports, downhill skiing, etc which increases the risk of abdominal trauma resulting in increased risk of placental abruption. But those patients with an uncomplicated pregnancy, who are already accustomed with long-duration, high-intensity exercise like running 5 miles/day, as in the given case, can continue with their regimen if tolerated.

      Proper nutrition in pregnancy includes appropriate weight gain, supplementation of vitamins and minerals, avoidance of any harmful substances, and safe handling of food. Patients with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI should gain around 11.4-15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy by increasing their caloric intake by 350 kcal/day in the second and 450 kcal/day in the third trimesters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      62.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came for pre-pregnancy counselling. Which of the following is the most suitable advise for her?

      Your Answer: She should aim to have a pre-pregnancy HbA1c of <48 mmol/mol (6.5%)

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines women with type I diabetes, who are expecting a child should aim to keep their HbA1c level[1] below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) without causing problematic hypoglycaemia. Women with diabetes whose HbA1c level is above 86 mmol/mol (10%) should be strongly advised not to get pregnant because of the associated risks. The risks are higher with chronic diabetes. There is an increased risk to the foetus or mother due to diabetes in pregnancy. Women who are waiting to become pregnant should take folic acid (5 mg/day) until 12 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of having a baby with a neural tube defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She is Rh-negative, and her baby is Rh-positive.

      Speculum examination shows a dilated cervix with visible products of conception. Pelvic ultrasound confirmed the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion.

      In this case, what will you do regarding Anti-D administration?

      Your Answer: Give anti-D now

      Explanation:

      As the mother is found to be rhesus negative while her baby being rhesus positive, the given case is clinically diagnosed as spontaneous abortion due to Rh incompatibility. The mother should be administered anti-D for prophylaxis for avoiding future complications.

      Rhesus (Rh) negative women who deliver a Rh-positive baby or who comes in contact with Rh positive red blood cells are at high risk for developing anti-Rh antibodies. The Rh positive fetuses
      eonates of such mothers are at high risk of developing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, which can be lethal or associated with serious morbidity.
      In such situations both spontaneous and threatened abortion after 12 weeks of gestation, are indications to use anti-D in such situations.

      All the other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old woman with irregular menstrual cycle has a positive pregnancy test. She...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman with irregular menstrual cycle has a positive pregnancy test. She wants to know the age of her baby.

      Which of the following methods is considered the most accurate for estimating gestational age?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound at 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Ultrasound has emerged as the more accurate method of assessing fetal gestational age, especially in the first trimester. Both transvaginal and transabdominal probe assessments are used to obtain a more accurate measurement of gestational age. Transvaginal is more helpful in first trimester pregnancies.

      A transvaginal ultrasound exam should not be performed in a pregnant patient with vaginal bleeding and known placenta previa, a pregnant patient with premature rupture of membranes, and a patient who refuses exam despite informed discussion.

      Sonographic assessment within the first 13 weeks and 6 days will provide the most accurate estimate of gestational age. Both transvaginal and transabdominal approaches may be used. However, the transvaginal approach may provide a more clear and accurate view of early embryonic structures. Although the gestational sac and yolk sac are the first measurable markers visible on ultrasound, these poorly correlate with gestational age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has...

    Correct

    • You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has one-sided pain that is widespread and mild, but can be intense at times. Menstruation has been regular. She denies having fever.

      With the exception of a smooth movable adnexal mass on the right side, her pelvic examination seems normal.

      Which of the following is the most likely reason for your discomfort?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cyst

      Explanation:

      An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign. Most patients with ovarian cysts are asymptomatic, with the cysts being discovered incidentally during ultrasonography or routine pelvic examination. Some cysts, however, may be associated with a range of symptoms, sometimes severe, including the following:

      Pain or discomfort in the lower abdomen

      Severe pain from torsion (twisting) or rupture – Cyst rupture is characterized by sudden, sharp, unilateral pelvic pain; this can be associated with trauma, exercise, or coitus. Cyst rupture can lead to peritoneal signs, abdominal distention, and bleeding (which is usually self-limited)
      Discomfort with intercourse, particularly deep penetration
      Changes in bowel movements such as constipation
      Pelvic pressure causing tenesmus or urinary frequency
      Menstrual irregularities
      Precocious puberty and early menarche in young children
      Abdominal fullness and bloating
      Indigestion, heartburn, or early satiety
      Endometriomas – These are associated with endometriosis, which causes a classic triad of painful and heavy periods and dyspareunia
      Tachycardia and hypotension – These may result from haemorrhage caused by cyst rupture
      Hyperpyrexia – This may result from some complications of ovarian cysts, such as ovarian torsion
      Adnexal or cervical motion tenderness

      Underlying malignancy may be associated with early satiety, weight loss
      achexia, lymphadenopathy, or shortness of breath related to ascites or pleural effusion

      The absence of fever or vaginal discharge rules out PID

      The absence of pain on the right lower quadrant, fever, nausea and vomiting rule out appendicitis.

      The patient has regular menses, no vaginal bleeding no signs of shock that rules out ectopic pregnancy.

      her symptoms are also not consistent with the presentation of leiomyoma. Leiomyoma presents with enlarged uterus, pelvic pressure. It early causes pain when it is complicated with red degeneration which usually occurs in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 43-year-old woman complains of a greenish foul smelling discharge from her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman complains of a greenish foul smelling discharge from her left nipple. She has experienced the same case before. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Breast abscess

      Correct Answer: Duct ectasia

      Explanation:

      Mammary duct ectasia occurs when the lactiferous duct becomes blocked or clogged. This is the most common cause of greenish discharge. Mammary duct ectasia can mimic breast cancer. It is a disorder of peri- or post-menopausal age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - According to NICE guidance what should be used for wound cleansing for the...

    Correct

    • According to NICE guidance what should be used for wound cleansing for the first 48 hours postoperatively?

      Your Answer: Sterile saline

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines (CG74) advise the following regarding postoperative wound management Use sterile saline for wound cleansing up to 48 hours after surgery. Advise patients that they may shower safely 48 hours after surgery. Use tap water for wound cleansing after 48 hours if the surgical wound has separated or has been surgically opened to drain pus. Do not use topical antimicrobial agents for surgical wounds that are healing by primary intention to reduce the risk of surgical site infection

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following muscles is NOT a constituent of the pelvic floor...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles is NOT a constituent of the pelvic floor (diaphragm)?

      Your Answer: Piriformis

      Explanation:

      The pelvic floor or diaphragm is composed of Coccygeus and Levator Ani. Levitator Ani is composed of 3 muscles: puborectalis, pubococcygeus and iliococcygeal. Although Piriformis assists in closing the posterior pelvic outlet it is not considered a component of the pelvic floor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure? ...

    Correct

    • The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure?

      Your Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Explanation:

      The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal and lacunar ligaments are part of the floor The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A patient is about to undergo a pudendal nerve block after vaginal delivery...

    Correct

    • A patient is about to undergo a pudendal nerve block after vaginal delivery to repair an episiotomy. Which spinal segments form the pudendal nerve?

      Your Answer: S2, S3 and S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve provides sensory innervation to regions of the anus, the perineum, the labia and the clitoris in women. The nerve is formed from the ventral rami of the S2-S4 sacral spinal nerves. The nerve is paired, each innervating the left and the right side of the body. Pudendal nerve blocks are indicated for analgesia of the second stage of labour, repair of an episiotomy or perineal laceration, and for minor surgeries of the lower vagina and perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 24 year old, 16 week pregnant patient presents with vaginal discharge. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old, 16 week pregnant patient presents with vaginal discharge. There is heavy growth of N. gonorrhoea as shown on swabs taken. Which treatment course is most advisable?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone 1g intramuscularly as a single dose with azithromycin 2 g oral as a single dose

      Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone 1 mg intramuscularly as a single dose with azithromycin 2g oral as a single dose

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is a diplococcus bacteria known to infect the female genital tract. The bacteria is sexually transmitted and can cause an ascending infection in the uterus and fallopian tubes. According to the BASHH guidelines (British Association for Sexual Health and HIV), indication for therapy include confirmation of intracellular diplococci on microscopy or a confirmed positive NAAT. Treatment of gonorrhoea in pregnancy is as follows: Ceftriaxone 1g intramuscularly as a single dose with azithromycin 2g oral as a single dose. Pregnant individuals are not to be treated with quinolones or tetracyclines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Regarding urinary tract infection (UTI) in pregnancy. What is the most common causative...

    Correct

    • Regarding urinary tract infection (UTI) in pregnancy. What is the most common causative organism of urinary tract infection?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      E.coli is the most common cause of UTI. Other organisms include pseudomonas, proteus and klebsiella.

      NICE guidelines: UTI in pregnancy (updated in July 2015)

      Send urine for culture and sensitivity from all women in whom UTI is suspected before starting empirical antibiotics and 7 days after antibiotic treatment is completed.
      Prescribe an antibiotic to all women with suspected UTI (awaiting culture result is not advised)
      Although local antibiotic resistance needs to be taken into account the following is advised in terms of antibiotic selection:
      1. Nitrofurantoin 50 mg QDS (or 100 mg MR BD) for 7 days.
      2. Trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily, for 7 days
      Give folic acid 5 mg OD if it is the 1st trimester
      Do not give trimethoprim if the woman is folate deficient, taking a folate antagonist, or has been treated with trimethoprim in the past year.
      3. Cefalexin 500 mg BD (or 250 mg 6qds) for 7 days

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old lady at 16 weeks of gestation who had histories of second-trimester...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old lady at 16 weeks of gestation who had histories of second-trimester pregnancy losses, presented with backache and pre-menstrual-like cramping along with increased vaginal discharge for the past one week.

      Pelvic examination shows that her cervix is dilated by 4 cm and effaced 80%.

      What will be the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Cervical insufficiency

      Explanation:

      This woman has signs and symptoms suggestive of cervical insufficiency, whose clinical features include pelvic pressure, premenstrual-like cramping and backache with increased vaginal discharge. Usually these symptoms will persist for several days to weeks.
      Cervical insufficiency is seen between 14 – 20 weeks of gestation, which is presented as soft effaced cervix, with minimal dilation on physical examination and a 4 cm dilated and more than 80% effaced cervix will be the clinical presentation in a more advanced case.

      Placental abruption presents with painful vaginal bleeding, whereas Placenta Previa presents as painless vaginal bleeding. Both cases will lead to shock but will not show any features of cervical insufficiency.

      Anaemia, polyhydramnios, large for gestational age uterus and severe hyperemesis gravidarum are the commonly associated symptoms of a twin pregnancies.

      New menstrual cycle after an abortion is expected to be presented with cervical dilation however signs of effacement will not be present along with it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents for headache and right upper quadrant abdominal pain for three days. The pregnancy has been normal and unremarkable until now.

      Her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg and urinalysis shows protein ++. On physical exam, her ankles are slightly swollen. There is slight tenderness to palpation under the right costal margin.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia.

      Explanation:

      There are a few differential diagnoses to think of in a patient that presents such as this one. Pre-eclampsia, cholecystitis, and fatty liver could all cause pain and tenderness, but cholecystitis would not normally cause the hypertension and proteinuria seen in this patient and neither would acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The more likely explanation is pre-eclampsia which must always be considered in the presence of these symptoms and signs. This process is particularly severe in the presence of pain and tenderness under the right costal margin due to liver capsule distension.

      Chronic renal disease could cause the hypertension and mild proteinuria seen, but it would not usually produce the pain and tenderness that this patient has unless it was complicated by severe pre-eclampsia.

      Biliary cholestasis does not usually produce pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Bladder neck closure and relaxation of the bladder is mediated by? ...

    Correct

    • Bladder neck closure and relaxation of the bladder is mediated by?

      Your Answer: Sympathetic Fibres L1,L2

      Explanation:

      The neck of the bladder is surrounded by the internal sphincter. It is supplied by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves of the splanchnic nerve. Parasympathetic stimulation causes the detrusor muscle to contract and the internal urethral sphincter to relax. It Is predominantly by the parasympathetic nerves S2-S4. Relaxation of the bladder is caused by inhibiting the sacral parasympathetic preganglionic neurons and exciting the lumbar sympathetic preganglionic neurons. Remember SYMPATHETIC is for STORAGE and PARASYMPATHETIC is for PEEING.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25 year old unmarried female presented with dizziness, nausea and vomiting for...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old unmarried female presented with dizziness, nausea and vomiting for 1 week. According to her, she has been stressed recently and her usual menstrual period has been delayed by 4 weeks. Examination findings were normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Dipstick for B-hCG

      Explanation:

      There is high possibility of her being pregnant. Urine B-hCG has to be checked to exclude pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A diminishing blood volume within the first 4 hours post-partum may be seen...

    Incorrect

    • A diminishing blood volume within the first 4 hours post-partum may be seen when a warning sign occurs.

      Which of the following is considered the single most important warning sign for the said situation?

      Your Answer: Decrease in blood pressure

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a cumulative blood loss greater than 1000 mL with signs and symptoms of hypovolemia within 24 hours of the birth process, regardless of the route of delivery.

      The first step in managing hemorrhagic shock is recognition. This should occur before the development of hypotension. Close attention should be paid to physiological responses to low blood volume. Tachycardia, tachypnoea, and narrowing pulse pressure may be the initial signs.

      Tachycardia is typically the first abnormal vital sign of hemorrhagic shock. As the body attempts to preserve oxygen delivery to the brain and heart, blood is shunted away from extremities and nonvital organs. This causes cold and modelled extremities with delayed capillary refill. This shunting ultimately leads to worsening acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most...

    Correct

    • The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most common aetiology listed is:

      Your Answer: Molding

      Explanation:

      With the help of molding, the fetal head changes its shape as the skull bones overlap. This helps in smooth delivery of the foetus through the birth canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 44-year-old woman underwent a cervical screening test at your clinic a week ago...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old woman underwent a cervical screening test at your clinic a week ago revealing Invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
      What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Refer to a gynaecologist at tertiary hospital

      Explanation:

      If a cervical screening test reveals invasive squamous cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma, refer the patient to a gynaecologist at a tertiary hospital right once for further treatment.
      Colposcopy at a GP practice is not appropriate in these situations. When it comes to the prospect of cancer, reassurance isn’t enough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve? ...

    Correct

    • Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?

      Your Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The Pudendal nerve divides into inferior rectal, perineal and dorsal nerve of the clitoris (or penis in males). The dorsal nerve of clitoris supplies sensory innervation to the clitoris. The perineal branch supplies sensory innervation to the skin of the labia majora and minora and the vestibule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 22 year old woman had a C-section two hours ago. However, she...

    Correct

    • A 22 year old woman had a C-section two hours ago. However, she has not urinated since then and claims she had no urinary complaints before the operation. Upon inspection she appears unwell and her abdomen is distended and tender suprapubically and in the left flank. Auscultation reveals no bowel sounds. Further examination reveals the following: Temp=37.5C, BP=94/73mmHg, Pulse=116bpm, Sat=97%. What's the most likely complication?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract injury

      Explanation:

      Urologic injury is the most common injury at the time of either obstetric or gynaecologic surgery, with the bladder being the most frequent organ damaged. Risk factors for bladder injury during caesarean section include previous caesarean delivery, adhesions, emergency caesarean delivery, and caesarean section performed during the second stage of labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 32 year old patient with a 28 day menstrual cycle is offered...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old patient with a 28 day menstrual cycle is offered a Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) at an infertility clinic.

      At which point in her cycle should the HSG be performed?

      Your Answer: Days 6-12

      Explanation:

      Hysterosalpingography is a radiological test used to investigate infertility especially in patients with no history suggesting tubal blockages such as pelvic surgery or PID, in which case a laparoscopy and dye is better suited. For the procedure, a contrast dye is inserted through the cervix, flows through the uterus and the fallopian tubes and should spill into the peritoneum. Fluoroscopy provides dynamic images of these structures to determine if there are any abnormalities or blockages. HSG is best performed on day 6-12 in the cycle, after the cessation of menses, and before ovulation, to avoid X Ray exposure in case of an unknown early pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the following hormones inhibits lactogenesis during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones inhibits lactogenesis during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen and Progesterone

      Explanation:

      Under the influence of prolactin, oestrogen and progesterone and human placental lactogen (hPL), the mammary epithelium proliferates but remains presecretory during mammogenesis. Lactogenesis is inhibited by high circulating levels of progesterone and oestrogen which block cortisol binding sites. Cortisol would have otherwise have worked synergistically with prolactin in milk production. A sharp decrease in progesterone levels after delivery allows prolactin and oxytocin to stimulate milk production and the milk ejection reflex in response to suckling. Prolactin continues to maintain milk production in galactopoiesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the clinic for advice because she is planning...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the clinic for advice because she is planning to conceive and has never been pregnant before. Upon history taking, it was noted that she has no history of diabetes, mental health issues, and is not taking any regular medication.

      Which of the following is considered the best recommendation to give to the patient for the prevention of neural tube defects?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 0.4 mg daily for a minimum of one month before conception to first 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).

      Women who are at high risk of having babies with neural tube defects and who would benefit from higher doses of folic acid include those with certain folate-enzyme genotypes, previous pregnancies with neural tube defects, diabetes, malabsorption disorders, or obesity, or those who take antifolate medications or smoke. Such women should take 5 mg/d of folic acid for the 2 months before conception and during the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Oxytocin binds to what receptor type? ...

    Correct

    • Oxytocin binds to what receptor type?

      Your Answer: G-protein-coupled receptors

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin binds to the G protein coupled receptors that triggers the IP3 mechanism leading to an elevated intracellular calcium ion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 27-year-old woman would usually take her oral contraceptive pill (ethinyl oestradiol 30µg,...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman would usually take her oral contraceptive pill (ethinyl oestradiol 30µg, levonorgestrel 150 µg) each night at around 11 pm. One day, she presents at 7pm and says that she had forgotten to take her pill the evening before and would like some advice as to what she should do. Last sexual intercourse was last night and she is now on day-27 of her cycle. She is due to take her last pill tonight and then start the first of seven lactose tablets tomorrow night.

      What would be the best advice to give her?

      Your Answer: Take her next contraceptive pill tonight and forget about the one she missed.

      Correct Answer: Stop the current course of contraceptive pills, and start the next course of hormone tab lets in five days’ time.

      Explanation:

      Taking into consideration that she had only missed one pill and that they were going to be stopped the next day anyway, the rate of pregnancy would be low; hence all of the responses would be acceptable and effective. However, the most appropriate step would be to initiate her hormone-free interval starting from the time she missed her pill i.e. 11pm the night before. This would make tonight the 2nd lactose pill day and hence she should commence the next course of hormone pills on the 5 nights from tonight. In doing this, her hormone-free period would be the usual length of 7 days. Although the risk of pregnancy is low after missing only one pill, this opposite occurs when the missed pill causes a longer than normal hormone-free duration between the end of the current cycle and the starting of the subsequent one.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - In pregnancy, the following lung function value remains unchanged: ...

    Correct

    • In pregnancy, the following lung function value remains unchanged:

      Your Answer: FEV1

      Explanation:

      The biochemical and mechanical effects of progesterone and the enlarging uterus are responsible for some changes in lung function during pregnancy.

      Progesterone increases the sensitivity of the respiratory centre to arterial carbon dioxide while also causing hyperaemia in the airway leading to nasal obstruction. As a result, minute ventilation and tidal volume increase by 50% to allow greater arterial oxygen saturation.

      The enlarging uterus displaces the diaphragm upwards, and also limits the movement of the thoracic cage, thereby decreasing the functional residual capacity (FRC) and the expiratory reserve volume (ERV) by 20%.

      Functional Expiratory Volume in 1 second (FEV1) and Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) remain unchanged in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan...

    Correct

    • You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan at 13 weeks following a positive pregnancy test. The patient has had 2 previous pregnancies for which she opted for termination on both occasions. The scan shows a large irregular haemorrhagic mass that appears to be invading into the myometrium. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Choriocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Choriocarcinoma may arise as a complication of gestation or as spontaneous germ cell tumours. As this scenario depicts that the women has previous abortion points to the fact that these may have been molar pregnancies. As choriocarcinoma can arise from a molar pregnancy it can be differentiated from it by the presence of invasion into the uterus and metastasis to the lungs primarily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 38-year-old woman presents to the gynaecologic clinic with a complaint of headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to the gynaecologic clinic with a complaint of headache, irritability, insomnia, abdominal bloating, anxiety, and breast tenderness around 4 to 5 days before menstruation for the last 8 months. There's also a limitation on daily activities and she has to take a week off from work. The patient's symptoms are relieved with the onset of menstruation. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. There is no other significant past medical history.

      Which of the following is the best treatment?

      Your Answer: Evening primrose oil

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      The signs and symptoms of premenstrual dysmorphic disorder are well-known in this patient. Fluoxetine is the greatest therapeutic option among the available options.
      For severe symptoms, clomipramine and danazol can be used interchangeably.
      Bromocriptine, like oral contraceptives and evening primrose, has no scientific evidence to support its use in this syndrome.
      NSAIDs are helpful for painful symptoms, but they only address a limited number of them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Changing of cervical mucous to thick and scanty

      Correct Answer: Mid-cycle elevation in prolactin

      Explanation:

      An elevation in serum PRL is associated with a variety of reproductive disorders, including amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, anovulation and/or luteal phase defects with subsequent infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 66-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of a brownish vaginal discharge...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of a brownish vaginal discharge that has been bothering her for the previous three months. Atrophic vagina is seen on inspection.

      Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer should always be the first diagnosis to rule out in a 65-year-old lady with brownish vaginal discharge. The inquiry focuses on the most likely source of the symptoms, rather than the most significant diagnosis to explore.
      Blood typically causes the dark hue of vaginal discharge. The uterine cavity or the vagina can both be the source of bleeding. Only 5-10% of postmenopausal women with vaginal bleeding were found to have endometrial cancer. Around 60% of the women had atrophic vaginitis.

      Urogenital atrophy is caused by oestrogen insufficiency in postmenopausal women. Urogenital atrophy can cause the following symptoms:
      – Dry vaginal skin
      – Vaginal inflammation or burning
      – Vaginal lubrication is reduced during sexual activity.
      – Vulvar or vaginal pain, as well as dyspareunia (at the introitus or within the vagina)
      – Vaginal or vulvar bleeding (e.g. postcoital bleeding. fissures)
      – Vaginal discharge from the cervix (leukorrhea or yellow and malodorous)
      – A vaginal bulge or pelvic pressure
      – Symptoms of the urinary tract (e.g. urinary frequency, dysuria, urethral discomfort, haematuria).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - From what does the blastocyst hatch? ...

    Correct

    • From what does the blastocyst hatch?

      Your Answer: Zona Pellucida

      Explanation:

      The blastocyst hatchs from the Zona Pellucida

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 30 year old patient is due for delivery in about two weeks....

    Correct

    • A 30 year old patient is due for delivery in about two weeks. She has some concerns after a family member recently gave birth to a baby with profound hearing loss due to an infection. Which of the following would you describe to her as the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital cytomegalovirus infections are the most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss in babies. Cytomegalovirus infection during the perinatal period can be transferred to the foetus especially if the primary infection is during pregnancy. Babies born with congenital CMV are either symptomatic or develop symptoms later in life. Some of the features of CMV infection include sensorineural hearing loss, visual impairment, cerebral palsy, microcephaly and seizures. Other causes of infective congenital sensorineural hearing loss include: Rubella, HIV, Herpes Simplex Virus, Measles, Varicella Zoster virus, Mumps and West Nile Virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 46 year old women with a BMI of 34 is seen in...

    Correct

    • A 46 year old women with a BMI of 34 is seen in clinic following hysteroscopy and biopsy for irregular menstrual bleeding. Histology shows atypical hyperplasia. Which of the following is the most appropriate 1st line management?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      There is an increase risk of developing carcinoma of the uterus, if the endometrium shows hyperplasia with atypia. The standard surgery is total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingectomy which can be performed abdominally or laparoscopically If the disease is grade 1-2 and less than 1B i.e. less than 50% invasion of the uterine body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she plans to get pregnant soon. However, she is worried about how she should change her diet once she becomes pregnant already.

      Which of the following is considered the best to give to the patient in addition to giving folic acid?

      Your Answer: Iodine

      Explanation:

      There is evidence that folic acid, iodine and vitamin D are important for reproductive outcomes. Folic acid and iodine supplementation is recommended for women planning to conceive and in pregnancy.

      The recommended dose of folic acid for women without special considerations planning to conceive is 400-500 mcg. The recommended dose of folic acid for women with special considerations is 2-5 mg per day.

      Women planning a pregnancy, including those with thyroid disease, should take iodine supplements in the dose of 150 mcg per day prior to and during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A young patient presented with foul smelling greyish vaginal discharge. She also has...

    Correct

    • A young patient presented with foul smelling greyish vaginal discharge. She also has burning and itching. She is sexually active.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a clinical condition characterized by a shift in vaginal flora away from Lactobacillus species toward more diverse bacterial species, including facultative anaerobes. The altered microbiome causes a rise in vaginal pH and symptoms that range from none to very bothersome. Future health implications of BV include, but are not limited to, increased susceptibility to other sexually transmitted infections and preterm birth. Fifty to 75 percent of women with BV are asymptomatic. Symptomatic women typically present with vaginal discharge and/or vaginal odour. The discharge is off-white, thin, and homogeneous; the odour is an unpleasant fishy smell that may be more noticeable after sexual intercourse and during menses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 43-year-old woman, with a history of bilateral tubal ligation, presents with regular...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old woman, with a history of bilateral tubal ligation, presents with regular but excessively heavy periods. She has a history of multiple uterine leiomyoma and her uterus is the size of a 12-week pregnancy.

      Pap smear is normal; haemoglobin level is 93 g/L. She underwent dilatation and curettage 8 months ago but it did not result in symptom improvement nor was it able to find the underlying cause of her symptoms.

      Which is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Total abdominal hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Oral progestogen therapy for 21 days (day 5-26) is considered effective but is only a short-term therapy for menorrhagia. Myomectomy should only be considered if the woman would like to conceive later on. Due to the recurrent nature of fibroids, it is likely that the woman would need more surgeries in the future, which is not ideal. Furthermore, if there is a large number of fibroids or the size of the fibroids are large, myomectomy would not be an option for reasons such as the feasibility. If myomectomy for multiple fibroids prove to be unsuccessful, the ultimate outcome would still have to be a hysterectomy.

      In cases where there is significant enlargement of the uterus, endometrial ablation would be difficult and the long-term cure rate of symptoms would be considerably low. The best next step would be a total abdominal hysterectomy since it would solve her menorrhagia and within a few years’ time, she would be expected to attain menopause anyway. Ponstan or mefenamic acid has been found to be superior to tranexamic acid for menorrhagia. However, it can still prove to be ineffective in some cases and also not a long term solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Etiological factors in spontaneous abortion include: ...

    Correct

    • Etiological factors in spontaneous abortion include:

      Your Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Spontaneous abortion is the loss of pregnancy naturally before twenty weeks of gestation. Colloquially, spontaneous abortion is referred to as a ‘miscarriage’ to avoid association with induced abortion. Early pregnancy loss refers only to spontaneous abortion in the first trimester. In 50% of cases, early pregnancy loss is believed to be due to fetal chromosomal abnormalities. Advanced maternal age and previous early pregnancy loss are the most common risk factors. For example, the incidence of early pregnancy loss in women 20-30 years of age is only 9 to 17%, while the incidence at 45 years of maternal age is 80%. Other risk factors include alcohol consumption, smoking, and cocaine use.

      Several chronic diseases can precipitate spontaneous abortion, including diabetes, celiac disease, and autoimmune conditions, particularly anti-phospholipid antibody syndrome. Rapid conception after delivery and infections, such as cervicitis, vaginitis, HIV infection, syphilis, and malaria, are also common risk factors. Another important risk factor is exposure to environmental contaminants, including arsenic, lead, and organic solvents. Finally, structural uterine abnormalities, such as congenital anomalies, leiomyoma, and intrauterine adhesions, have been shown to increase the risk of spontaneous abortion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (3/4) 75%
Clinical Management (7/9) 78%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (7/12) 58%
Data Interpretation (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (10/13) 77%
Anatomy (6/6) 100%
Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Biophysics (1/1) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Passmed