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  • Question 1 - A 60 year-old patient being treated for hypertension presents to the ED with...

    Correct

    • A 60 year-old patient being treated for hypertension presents to the ED with swelling of the left upper limb due to poor venous return. On examination, it is found that an aneurysm of the ascending aorta is impinging on a large vein lying immediately anterosuperior to it. Which vein is it likely to be?

      Your Answer: Left brachiocephalic

      Explanation:

      Among the veins listed, only the left brachiocephalic vein is anterosuperior to the ascending aorta. The right brachiocephalic vein being on the right side would not be affected by the aortic aneurysm.

      The azygos vein lies deep in the chest on the right side.

      The internal thoracic vein lies interior to the anterior wall of the chest.

      The left superior intercostal vein is close to the aortic arch, crossing it laterally. This vein drains the 2nd to 4th interspaces on the left side.

      The Right internal jugular vein joins the right brachiocephalic vein which would not be affected by the aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following factors will not affect the wound healing process in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors will not affect the wound healing process in a young women who suffered serious burns to her chest and hands?

      Your Answer: Vitamin A deficiency

      Explanation:

      Healing can be sped-up or slowed down due to various reasons: 1. blood supply, 2. infection, 3. denervation, 4. collection of blood/hematoma, 5. mechanical stress, 6. foreign body, 7. techniques used during surgery and 8. dressing of the wound. Other systemic factors include 1. nutrition e.g. deficiency of zinc, vitamin C, protein deficiency, 2. metabolic status, 3. circulatory status and 4. hormonal influence

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger...

    Correct

    • While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger down the edge of the medial crus of the superficial inguinal ring and felt a bony prominence deep to the lateral edge of the spermatic cord. What was this bony prominence?

      Your Answer: Pubic tubercle

      Explanation:

      At the superficial inguinal ring, the pubic tubercle would be felt as a bony prominence lateral to the edge of the spermatic cord. This tubercle is the point of attachment of the inguinal ligament that makes up the floor of the inguinal canal.

      Pecten pubis is the ridge on the superior surface of the superior pubic ramus and the point of attachment of the pectineal ligament.

      The pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones and the iliopubic eminence is a bony process on the pubis found near the articulation of the pubis and the ilium.

      The iliopectineal line is formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis. It is the line that marks the transition between the abdominal and pelvic cavity.

      The sacral promontory is found on the posterior wall of the pelvis and would not be felt through the inguinal ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum...

    Correct

    • The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum are all located on which bone at the base of the skull?

      Your Answer: Sphenoid

      Explanation:

      The sphenoid bone consists of two parts, a central part and two wing-like structures that extend sideways towards each side of the skull. It forms the base of the skull, and floor and sides of the orbit. On its central part lies the optic foramen. The foramen ovale, foramen spinosum and foramen rotundum lie on its great wing while the superior orbital fissure lies on its lesser wing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Investigations in a 40-year old gentleman with splenomegaly reveal the following: haemoglobin 21.5...

    Correct

    • Investigations in a 40-year old gentleman with splenomegaly reveal the following: haemoglobin 21.5 g/dl, haematocrit 66%, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 86 fl, mean cell haemoglobin concentration 34 g/dl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin 34.5 pg, platelet count 450 × 109/l, and white blood cell count 12 × 109/l, with 81% polymorphonuclear leukocytes, 4% bands, 3% monocytes, and 7% lymphocytes.

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia vera

      Explanation:

      The markedly increased haematocrit, along with thrombocytosis and the leucocytosis suggest a myeloproliferative disorder.

      Polycythaemia vera is the commonest myeloproliferative disorders occurring more often in males (about 1.4 to 1). The mean age at diagnosis is 60 years (range 15–90 years) with 5% of patients below 40 years at onset. It involves increased production of all cell lines, including red blood cells (independent of erythropoietin), white blood cells and platelets. If confined only to red blood cells, it is known as ‘primary erythrocytosis’. There is an increase in blood volume and hyperviscosity occurs, predisposing to thrombosis. Increased bleeding occurs due to abnormal functioning of platelets. Patients become hypermetabolic, and increased cell turnover leads to hyperuricaemia.

      Usually asymptomatic, occasionally symptoms include weakness, pruritus, headache, light-headedness, visual disturbances, fatigue and dyspnoea. Face appears red with engorged retinal veins. Lower extremities appear red and painful, along with digital ischaemia (erythromelalgia). Hepatomegaly is common and massive splenomegaly is seen in 75% patients. Thrombosis can lead to stroke, deep venous thrombosis, myocardial infarction, retinal artery or vein occlusion, splenic infarction (often with a friction rub) or Budd–Chiari syndrome. Gastrointestinal bleeding is seen in 10-20% patients. Hypermetabolism can lead to low-grade fevers and weight loss. Late features include complications of hyperuricaemia (e.g. gout, renal calculi). 1.5% to 10% cases transform to acute leukaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the innervation of the laryngeal mucosa inferior to the true vocal...

    Correct

    • What is the innervation of the laryngeal mucosa inferior to the true vocal cord?

      Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Motor innervation to all other muscles of the larynx and sensory innervation to the subglottis is by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient presented with continuous bleeding several hours after dental extraction. Which of...

    Correct

    • A patient presented with continuous bleeding several hours after dental extraction. Which of the following findings is most often associated with clinical bleeding?

      Your Answer: Factor IX deficiency

      Explanation:

      Factor IX deficiency, also called Haemophilia B or Christmas disease, is a disorder caused by missing or defective clotting factor IX. Deficiency of the factor IX causes irregular bleeding that can happen spontaneously or after mild trauma, surgery and dental extractions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The following joint has an anastomotic circulation that is provided by branches of...

    Incorrect

    • The following joint has an anastomotic circulation that is provided by branches of the brachial artery:

      Your Answer: Glenohumeral joint

      Correct Answer: Elbow joint

      Explanation:

      The arterial anastomoses of the elbow joint is contributed by branches of the brachial artery and the Profunda brachii artery. The brachial artery gives off the superior ulnar collateral artery and the inferior collateral artery. On the other hand, the Profunda brachii gives off the radial and medial recurrent arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction but normal hearing when tested by bone conduction?

      Your Answer: Fibrosis causing fixation of the ossicles

      Explanation:

      As the cochlea is embedded into bone, the vibrations from the bone are transmitted directly to the fluid in the cochlea. Hence, any damage to the ossicles or tympanic membrane will not show an abnormal result on bone conduction test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The orbicularis oculi us a muscle that closes the eyelids. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • The orbicularis oculi us a muscle that closes the eyelids. What is the motor innervation of this muscle?

      Your Answer: A branch of the same nerve that innervates the temporalis muscle

      Correct Answer: A branch of a nerve that exits through the stylomastoid foramen

      Explanation:

      The orbicularis oculi is a muscle in the face that closes the eyelids. It is supplied by zygomatic branch of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), which exits through the stylomastoid foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45 year old female had a stroke and was diagnosed with a...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old female had a stroke and was diagnosed with a homonymous hemianopsia. Which of the following structures was likely affected?

      Your Answer: Optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Hemianopia or hemianopsia, is the loss of vision of half of the eye or loss of half the visual field. Homonymous hemianopia is the loss of vision or blindness on half of the same side of both eyes (visual field) – either both lefts of the eyes or both rights of the eyes. This condition is mainly caused by cerebrovascular accidents like a stroke that affects the optic radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Hormones of the anterior pituitary include which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Hormones of the anterior pituitary include which of the following?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis or pars distalis) synthesizes and secretes:

      1. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)

      2. LH (luteinizing hormone)

      3. Growth hormone

      4. Prolactin

      5. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)

      6. TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone).

      The posterior pituitary gland (neurohypophysis) stores and secretes 2 hormones produced by the hypothalamus:

      1. ADH (antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin)

      2. Oxytocin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The mechanism of action of streptokinase involves: ...

    Correct

    • The mechanism of action of streptokinase involves:

      Your Answer: Direct conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

      Explanation:

      Streptokinase is an enzyme that is produced by group A beta haemolytic streptococcus and is an effective and cost efficient method for the dissolution of a clot used in cases of MI and pulmonary embolism. It works by directly converting plasminogen to plasmin which breaks down the blood components in the clot and fibrin, dissolving the clot. Streptokinase is a bacterial product and thus the body will develop immunity against it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A medical officer was shown an X ray with barium contrast and was...

    Correct

    • A medical officer was shown an X ray with barium contrast and was asked to distinguish the small from the large bowel. Which of the following features listed is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: Circular folds of the mucosa

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing features include:

      1. Three strips of longitudinal muscle-taenia coli- on the wall instead of a continuous surrounding longitudinal muscle that is seen in the small intestine

      2. The colon has bulges called haustra that are not on the small bowel.

      3. The surface of the colon is covered with fatty omental appendages. Both the colon and the small intestine have similar circular smooth muscle layer, serosa. Peyer’s patches are lymphoid tissues that are not visible on X ray with barium contrast.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid: ...

    Correct

    • Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid:

      Your Answer: Is relatively rich in glucose

      Explanation:

      The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. Ensuring the right amount of body water is part of fluid balance, an aspect of homeostasis. The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all fluids outside the cells. This fluid can be divided into three fluid departments: interstitial (in the tissue spaces) fluid, blood plasma and lymph, and specialised compartments called transcellular fluid. The extracellular fluid surrounds all the cells in the body and is in equilibrium with the intracellular fluid. So, its composition must remain fairly constant even though substances are passing into and out of the cells. The interstitial fluid, though called a fluid, is in a reality a gel-like composition made up of: water, proteoglycan molecules and collagen. The extracellular fluid constitutes 40% of total body water, with intracellular fluid making up the remaining 60%. It is relatively rich in glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts....

    Correct

    • The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts. These parts of the stomach have varied arterial blood supply that ensure that the whole organ receive oxygenated blood. Which of the following arteries if ligated, will not render any portion of the stomach ischaemic?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the stomach is through the following arteries:

      – The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the lower part of the duodenum, pancreas and two-thirds of the transverse colon. Thus ligation of the superior mesenteric artery would not affect the stomach.

      – The right and the left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach – along its edges.

      – The short gastric artery supplies blood to the upper portion of the of the greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach.

      – The gastroduodenal artery supplies blood to the distal part of the stomach (the pyloric sphincter) and the proximal end of the duodenum.

      – The left gastroepiploic and the short gastric are branches of the splenic artery and therefore ligation of the splenic artery would directly affect the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - During a clinical rotation in the ENT clinic, you observe a flexible bronchoscopy....

    Correct

    • During a clinical rotation in the ENT clinic, you observe a flexible bronchoscopy. As the scope is passed down the trachea, you see a cartilaginous structure that resembles a ship's keel and separates the right and the left main stem bronchi. This structure is the:

      Your Answer: Carina

      Explanation:

      The carina (a keel-like cartilage) is found at the bifurcation of the trachea separating the right from the left main stem bronchi. It is a little more to the left than to the right.

      The cricoid cartilage is the inferior and posterior cartilage of the larynx.

      The costal cartilage on the other hand elongates the ribs anteriorly and contribute to the elasticity of the thoracic cage.

      The pulmonary ligament is a fold of pleura located below the root of the lung.

      Tracheal rings are rings of cartilage that support the trachea.

      Peritracheal fascia is a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea from the outside and is not visible on bronchoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 23 year old woman is Rh -ve and she delivered a baby...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old woman is Rh -ve and she delivered a baby with a Rh+ blood group. What measure can be performed to prevent Rh incompatibility in the next pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Immunoglobulin D

      Explanation:

      Rh disease is also known as erythroblastosis fetalis and is a disease of the new-born. In mild states it can cause anaemia with reticulocytosis and in severe forms causes severe anaemia, morbus hemolytcus new-born and hydrops fetalis. RBCs of the Rh+ baby can cross the placenta and enter into the maternal blood. As she is Rh- her body will form antibodies against the D antigen which will pass through the placenta in subsequent pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is a potential cause of a positive D-dimer assay?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a potential cause of a positive D-dimer assay?

      Your Answer: Deep venous thrombosis

      Explanation:

      A D-dimer test is performed to detect and diagnose thrombotic conditions and thrombosis. A negative result would rule out thrombosis and a positive result although not diagnostic, is highly suspicious of thrombotic conditions like a deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism as well as DIC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following mediators of inflammation requires arachidonic acid for synthesis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following mediators of inflammation requires arachidonic acid for synthesis?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandins

      Explanation:

      Arachidonic acid is normally present in the phospholipids that make up the cell membrane and is cleaved by phospholipase A2 from the phospholipid. Arachidonic acid is a precursor for the production of eicosanoids which include: 1) prostaglandins, prostacyclins and thromboxane, 2) leukotrienes and 3) anandamides. The production of these products along with their action on the body is called the arachidonic acid cascade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A man was stabbed in the thigh following a bar brawl. A superficial...

    Correct

    • A man was stabbed in the thigh following a bar brawl. A superficial vein was injured which terminates in the femoral vein. This superficial vein is?

      Your Answer: Great saphenous

      Explanation:

      The great saphenous vein is considered the longest vein in the body. It terminates in the femoral vein nearly 3cm below the inguinal ligament. It begins at the dorsum of the foot in the medial marginal vein and ascends at the medial side of the leg in relation with the saphenous nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen saturation of 70%, and the pressure ranging from 12 to 24 mm Hg, it implies that the catheter tip is located in the:

      Your Answer: Right atrium

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      Normal values for various parameters are as follows:

      Systolic arterial blood pressure (SBP): 90–140 mmHg.

      Diastolic arterial blood pressure: 60–90 mmHg.

      Mean arterial blood pressure (MAP): SBP + (2 × DBP)/3 (normal range: 70-105 mmHg).

      Right atrial pressure (RAP): 2–6 mmHg.

      Systolic right ventricular pressure (RVSP): 15–25 mmHg.

      Diastolic right ventricular pressure (RVDP): 0–8 mmHg.

      Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP): Systolic (PASP) is 15-25 mmHg and Diastolic (PADP) is 8–15 mmHg.

      Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP): 6–12 mmHg.

      Left atrial pressure (LAP): 6–12 mmHg.

      Thus, the given value indicates that the position of catheter tip is likely to be in the pulmonary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pupil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pupil?

      Your Answer: Pupil diameter is determined by the balance between parasympathetic tone to the radial fibres of the iris and sympathetic tone to the pupillary sphincter muscle.

      Correct Answer: Phentolamine causes pupil constriction

      Explanation:

      A balance between the sympathetic tone to the radial fibres of the iris and parasympathetic tone to the pupillary sphincter muscle determines the pupil size. Phentolamine (α-adrenergic receptor blocker) causes pupillary constriction. Dilatation of the pupil occurs with increased sympathetic activity, decreased parasympathetic activity during darkness or block of muscarinic receptors by atropine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following structures carry part of the right bundle branch of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures carry part of the right bundle branch of the AV bundle?

      Your Answer: Moderator band (septomarginal trabecula)

      Explanation:

      The moderator band extends from the base of the anterior papillary muscle to the ventricular septum. It is the structure which carries part of the right AV bundle. Its role it to prevent overdistention of the ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old smoker presents with painless haematuria, urinary frequency and urgency. He is...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old smoker presents with painless haematuria, urinary frequency and urgency. He is diagnosed with bladder cancer. Which is the most likely type?

      Your Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      90% of bladder cancers are transitional cell carcinomas derived from the bladder urothelium. Risk factors include industrial chemicals, smoking and infection. Schistosomiasis and bladder stones predispose to the squamous cell variety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following statements regarding the femoral artery is CORRECT? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding the femoral artery is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It has the femoral nerve lying lateral to it

      Explanation:

      The femoral artery begins immediately behind the inguinal ligament, midway between the anterior superior spine of the ilium and the symphysis pubis. The first 4 cm of the vessel is enclosed, together with the femoral vein, in a fibrous sheath (the femoral sheath). The femoral nerve lies lateral to this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An 18 -year-old female is diagnosed with folliculitis in the left axilla. What...

    Correct

    • An 18 -year-old female is diagnosed with folliculitis in the left axilla. What is the most likely organism that could cause this condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Folliculitis is the inflammation of the hair follicles. It is usually caused by Staphylococcus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - When you rest your elbows on a desk, what bony landmark of the...

    Correct

    • When you rest your elbows on a desk, what bony landmark of the upper limb are you resting on?

      Your Answer: Olecranon process of the ulna

      Explanation:

      At the upper and back part of the ulna, there exists a curved eminence which is the olecranon process. This process lodges in the olecranon fossa of the humerus. It’s posterior surface is subcutaneous and this triangular area is what you rest your elbow upon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A patient sustained an iatrogenic injury to one of the structures passing through...

    Incorrect

    • A patient sustained an iatrogenic injury to one of the structures passing through the deep inguinal ring. This was during an operation to repair an inguinal hernia. Which structure is most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve

      Correct Answer: Round ligament of the uterus

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring transmits the spermatic cord in the man and the round ligament of the uterus in the female. It is bound below and medially by the inferior epigastric vessels (so these don’t go through it).

      The ilioinguinal nerve, although it courses through the inguinal canal, does not pass through it.

      The iliohypogastric nerves run between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis in the abdominal wall, piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to travel just deep to the external oblique.

      The inferior epigastric artery runs between the transversus abdominis and the peritoneum forming the lateral umbilical fold.

      The medial umbilical ligament is the obliterated umbilical artery that it lies within the medial umbilical fold of peritoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following two cerebral veins join up to form the great...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following two cerebral veins join up to form the great cerebral vein, otherwise also known as the great vein of Galen?

      Your Answer: Superficial cerebral veins

      Correct Answer: Internal cerebral veins

      Explanation:

      The great vein of Galen or great cerebral vein, is formed by the union of the internal cerebral veins and the basal veins of Rosenthal. This vein curves upwards and backwards along the border of the splenium of the corpus callosum and eventually drains into the inferior sagittal sinus and straight sinus at its anterior extremity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 65-year-old man with no history of smoking complains of shortness of breath...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with no history of smoking complains of shortness of breath and persistent cough over the past 8 months. He reveals that in the 1960s he worked for several years as a boiler operator. Chest X-ray shows diffuse lung infiltrates. Which of the following is the most probable cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Asbestosis

      Explanation:

      Asbestosis is a chronic lung disease which leads to long-term respiratory complications and is caused by the inhalation of asbestos fibres. Symptoms due to long exposure to asbestos usually appear 10 to 40 years after initial exposure and include shortness of breath, cough, weight loss, clubbing of the fingers and chest pain. Typical chest X-ray findings include diffuse lung infiltrates that cause the appearance of shaggy heart borders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - The vagus nerve passes through which of the following foramen? ...

    Correct

    • The vagus nerve passes through which of the following foramen?

      Your Answer: Jugular foramen

      Explanation:

      The jugular foramen is a large foramen in the base of the skull. It is located behind the carotid canal and is formed in front by the petrous portion of the temporal bone, and behind by the occipital bone. Cranial nerves IX, X, and XI and the internal jugular vein pass through the jugular foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - What is the nerve supply of the muscle that is inserted onto the...

    Correct

    • What is the nerve supply of the muscle that is inserted onto the crest of the lesser tubercle of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Lower subscapular

      Explanation:

      The muscle is the subscapularis muscle which is supplied by the lower subscapular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 76 year old man who presented with lower back pain is diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 76 year old man who presented with lower back pain is diagnosed with prostatic carcinoma that has metastasized to his lumber spine. Which of the following markers is characteristically elevated?

      Your Answer: PSA

      Explanation:

      Spread of prostatic carcinoma is common to the lumbar spine and pelvis. This results in osteoblastic metastases that will present as lower back pain with increased alkaline phosphatase, prostatic acid phosphates and PSA. PSA is more specific and a PSA > 10 ng/ml for any age is worrisome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia; Urology
      • Pathology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count =...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 90 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 41 g/dl. Further examination of blood sample revealed increased osmotic fragility of the erythrocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s findings?

      Your Answer: Spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      Spherocytes are small rounded RBCs. It is due to an inherited defect of the RBC cytoskeleton membrane tethering proteins. Membrane blebs form that are lost over time and cells become round instead of biconcave. As it is a normochromic anaemia, the MCV is normal. it is diagnosed by osmotic fragility test which reveals increased fragility in a hypotonic solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Multiple, non-tender lymphadenopathy with biopsy showing several crowded follicles of small, monomorphic lymphocytes...

    Correct

    • Multiple, non-tender lymphadenopathy with biopsy showing several crowded follicles of small, monomorphic lymphocytes and the absence of Reed-Sternberg cells is seen in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Poorly differentiated lymphocytic lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Malignant lymphoma usually causes non-tender lymphadenopathy, unlike the tender lymphadenopathy caused by infections (including infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus). Also, the lymphoid hyperplasia seen in infectious mononucleosis is benign and polyclonal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 75-year old patient is in atrial fibrallation but has never been on...

    Correct

    • A 75-year old patient is in atrial fibrallation but has never been on anticoagulation therapy. To reduce the risk of future emboli, she would benefit from starting on long-term warfarin. Arterial emboli leading to acute limb ischaemia most commonly lodge at which one of the following sites?

      Your Answer: Common femoral artery

      Explanation:

      The common femoral artery is the commonest site of arterial emboli causing acute limb ischemia. The treatment of choice is urgent femoral embolectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A swimmer was struggling to finish his training following an injury to his...

    Correct

    • A swimmer was struggling to finish his training following an injury to his right arm. On further examination it was found that any movements involving adduction, medial rotation and extension of her arm were particularly weak. Which nerve in this case was damaged?

      Your Answer: Thoracodorsal

      Explanation:

      Weakness on these particular movements indicate that there is a problem with the latissimus dorsi muscle. This muscle is very important particularly in swimming movements and is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial...

    Correct

    • Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, except for:

      Your Answer: Ampulla of the rectum

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal lymph nodes form a chain immediately below the inguinal ligament. They receive lymphatic supply from the skin of the penis, scrotum, perineum, buttock and abdominal wall below the level of the umbilicus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which of the following is found to be elevated in a case of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is found to be elevated in a case of hepatocellular carcinoma?

      Your Answer: AFP

      Explanation:

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a glycoprotein that is normally produced by the yolk sac of the embryo, and then the fetal liver. It is elevated in the new-born and thus, also in the pregnant women. Eventually, it decreases in the first year of life to reach the adult normal value of < 20 ng/ml by 1 year of age. Markedly elevated levels (>500 ng/ml) in a high-risk patient is considered diagnostic for primary hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). Moreover, due to smaller tumours secreting less quantities of AFP, rising levels can be a better indication. However, not all hepatocellular carcinomas produce AFP. Also, the level of AFP is not a prognostic factor. Populations where hepatitis B and HCC are common (e.g.: sub-Saharan Africans, ethnic Chinese) can see AFP levels as high as 100,000 ng/ml, whereas levels are low (about 3000 ng/ml) in regions with lesser incidences of HCC.

      AFP can also be elevated up to 500 ng/ml in conditions like embryonic teratocarcinomas, hepatoblastomas, fulminant hepatitis, hepatic metastases from gastrointestinal tract cancers, some cholangiocarcinomas). Lesser values are seen in acute and chronic hepatitis.

      Overall, the sensitivity of AFP value ≥20 ng/ml is 39-64% and the specificity is 76%–91%. Value of 500 ng/ml is considered as the diagnostic cut-off level for HCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following tumours is very radiosensitive? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following tumours is very radiosensitive?

      Your Answer: Seminoma

      Explanation:

      Seminoma is the most radiosensitive tumour and responds well to radiation therapy after unilateral orchidectomy. The ipsilateral inguinal areas are routinely not treated however, depending on the stage, the mediastinum and the left supraclavicular regions may also be irradiated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia; Urology
      • Pathology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - What is the linea aspera: ...

    Correct

    • What is the linea aspera:

      Your Answer: Serves as an attachment for adductors of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The linea aspera is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the middle third of the femur. It has a medial and a lateral lip and a narrow, rough, intermediate line. The vastus medialis arises from the medial lip of the linea aspera and has superior and inferior prolongations. The vastus lateralis takes origin from the lateral lip . The adductor magnus is inserted into the linea aspera. Two muscles are attached between the vastus lateralis and the adductor magnus: the gluteus maximus is inserted above and the short head of the biceps femoris arises below. Four muscles are inserted between the adductor magnus and the vastus medialis: the iliacus and pectineus superiorly, and the adductor brevis and adductor longus inferiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 40 year old man sustained a fracture to the surgical neck of...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old man sustained a fracture to the surgical neck of his left humerus. Which of the following arteries is suspected to be injured in this case?

      Your Answer: Posterior humeral circumflex

      Explanation:

      The posterior humeral circumflex artery arises from the axillary artery and runs with the axillary nerve through the quadrangular space which is bounded laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus. After winding around the surgical neck of the humerus, it is distributed to the deltoid muscle and the shoulder joint. Thus fractures in the surgical neck of the humerus could result in an injury to this artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which of the following causes the maximum increase in the secretion of antidiuretic...

    Correct

    • Which of the following causes the maximum increase in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

      Your Answer: Increased plasma osmolarity

      Explanation:

      The most potent stimulus for ADH release is increased plasma osmolarity. Decreased plasma volume is a less potent stimulus in comparison. However, decrease blood volume and arterial pressure due to severe haemorrhage does lead to ADH secretion. Hypothalamic releasing factors do not control the release of posterior pituitary hormones ADH and oxytocin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A victim of mob justice was brought to the A & E with...

    Correct

    • A victim of mob justice was brought to the A & E with a stab wound in the anterior chest 2 cm lateral to the left sternal border. He underwent an emergency thoracotomy that revealed clots in the pericardium, with a puncture wound in the right ventricle. To evacuate the clots from the pericardial cavity the surgeon slipped his hand behind the heart at its apex. He extended his finger upwards until its tip was stopped by a line of pericardial reflection which forms the:

      Your Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus

      Explanation:

      Transverse sinus: part of pericardial cavity that is behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and in front of the superior vena cava separating the outflow vessels from the inflow vessels.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: is behind the left atrium where the visceral pericardium reflects onto the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava. Sliding a finger under the heart will take you to this space.

      Cardiac notch: indentation of the ‘of the heart’ on the superior lobe of the left lung.

      Hilar reflection: the reflection of the pleura onto the root of the lung to continue as mediastinal pleura.

      Costomediastinal recess: part of the pleural sac where the costal pleura transitions to become the mediastinal pleura.

      Sulcus terminalis: a groove between the right atrium and the vena cava

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A ‘claw hand’ is usually associated with injury to which of the following...

    Correct

    • A ‘claw hand’ is usually associated with injury to which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      A ‘claw hand’ is associated with injury to the ulnar nerve at the wrist affecting the interossei, lumbricals and hypothenar muscles of the hand. It is characterized by hypothenar eminence wasting, hyperextended metacarpophalangeal joints and flexed interphalangeal joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 25 year old primi gravida lady was scheduled for a regular antenatal...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old primi gravida lady was scheduled for a regular antenatal check up. During the vaginal exam of this lady, the registrar discovered a malignant growth on the anterior wall of her vagina. Which of the following structures, adjacent to the vagina, is likely to be involved as well?

      Your Answer: Fundus of the bladder

      Explanation:

      The fundus of the bladder is related anatomically to the anterior surface of the vagina and the urethra as well. If there was a malignant growth in the anterior surface of the vagina, then most likely the fundus of the bladder would be involved as well aspotentially the urethra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      279.5
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old...

    Correct

    • The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old lady of African descent with tuberculous of the abdomen and suspected perforation. The small bowel is matted due to adhesions and it is difficult to differentiate the ileum from the jejunum. Which of the following features is typical of the jejunum?

      Your Answer: It has sparse aggregated lymph nodules

      Explanation:

      The jejunum has a wider diameter, is thicker and more vascularized, hence of a deeper colour compared to the ileum. The valvulae conniventes (circular folds) of its mucous membranes are large and thick and its villi are larger than those in the ileum. The jejunum also has sparse aggregates of lymph nodules and most of its part occupies the umbilical and left iliac regions whilst the ileum is mostly in the umbilical, hypogastric, right iliac and pelvic regions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - What principal artery that supplies the meninges is susceptible to rupture following trauma...

    Correct

    • What principal artery that supplies the meninges is susceptible to rupture following trauma to the side of the head over the temporal region:

      Your Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery normally arises from the first or mandibular segment of the maxillary artery. The artery runs in a groove on the inside of the cranium, this can clearly be seen on a lateral skull X-ray. An injured middle meningeal artery is the most common cause of an epidural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 55 year old man presented with a 4 day history of cough...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old man presented with a 4 day history of cough and fever. His sputum culture showed the presence of Strep pneumoniae. Which of the following substances produced by the inflammatory cells will result in effective clearance of this organism from the lung parenchyma?

      Your Answer: Hydrogen peroxide

      Explanation:

      Hydrogen peroxide is produced by myeloperoxidase to form a potent oxidant that eliminates bacteria, but is not effective in chronic granulomatous diseases.

      Platelet activating factor will lead to the activation, adhesion and aggregation of platelets but will not directly kill bacteria.

      Prostaglandins cause vasodilation but do not activate neutrophils.

      Kallikrein promotes formation of bradykinin that leads to vasodilation.

      Leukreines increase vascular permeability.

      Cytokines are communicating molecules between immune cells but directly will not kill bacteria.

      Interleukins will regulate the immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which of the following muscle divide the posterior triangle of the neck into...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscle divide the posterior triangle of the neck into the occipital and the subclavian triangle?

      Your Answer: Posterior belly of the digastric

      Correct Answer: Inferior belly of the omohyoid

      Explanation:

      The posterior triangle (or lateral cervical region) is a region of the neck bounded in front by the sternocleidomastoid; behind, by the anterior margin of the trapezius; inferiorly by the middle third of the clavicle and superiorly by the occipital bone. The posterior triangle is crossed, about 2.5 cm above the clavicle, by the inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle, which divides the space into two triangles: an upper or occipital triangle and a lower or subclavian triangle (or supraclavicular triangle).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the...

    Correct

    • The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following statements regarding the blood– brain barrier is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It breaks down in areas of brain that are infected

      Explanation:

      The blood–brain barrier is a membrane that controls the passage of substances from the blood into the central nervous system. It is a physical barrier between the local blood vessels and most parts of the central nervous system and stops many substances from travelling across it. During meningitis, the blood–brain barrier may be disrupted. This disruption may increase the penetration of various substances (including either toxins or antibiotics) into the brain. A few regions in the brain, including the circumventricular organs, do not have a blood–brain barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 5-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department because of fever, erythema...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department because of fever, erythema and neck stiffness. The child is also hypotensive upon physical examination. Which is the most likely toxin responsible for this child's condition?

      Your Answer: Endotoxin

      Explanation:

       An endotoxin is part of the bacterial outer membrane, and it is not released until the bacterium is killed by the immune system. The body’s response to an endotoxin can involve severe inflammation. In general, the inflammation process is usually considered beneficial to the infected host, but if the reaction is severe enough, it can lead to sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E...

    Correct

    • A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E with symptoms of acute haemorrhagic shock. An emergency endoscopy is done that shows that a duodenal ulcer has perforated the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum. Which artery is most likely to be the cause of the haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal

      Explanation:

      The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the hepatic artery and descends near the pylorus between the first part of the duodenum and the neck of the pancreas to divide at the lower border of the duodenum into the right gastroepiploic and pancreaticoduodenal arteries. Before it divides, it gives off a few branches to the pyloric end of the stomach and to the pancreas. The artery that is most likely involved in this situation is the gastroduodenal artery since it is posterior to the first part of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      63.8
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Where is the foramen ovale located? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the foramen ovale located?

      Your Answer: Sphenoid

      Explanation:

      The foramen ovale is an oval shaped opening in the middle cranial fossa located at the posterior base of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, lateral to the lingula. It transmits the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN Vc), accessory meningeal artery, emissary veins between the cavernous sinuses and pterygoid plexus, otic ganglion, and occasionally the nervus spinosus and lesser petrosal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - If a patient takes long-term corticosteroid therapy, which of the following diseases is...

    Correct

    • If a patient takes long-term corticosteroid therapy, which of the following diseases is most likely to develop?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      One of the complications of long-term intake of corticosteroids is osteoporosis. Some guidelines recommend prophylactic calcium and vitamin D supplementation in patients who take more than 30 mg hydrocortisone or 7.5 mg of prednisolone daily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      152.8
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 20-year old gentleman was brought to the emergency department with headache and...

    Correct

    • A 20-year old gentleman was brought to the emergency department with headache and nausea for 2 days. He also complained of intolerance to bright light and loud sounds. Lumbar puncture showed glucose < 45 mg/dl, protein > 5 mg/dl and neutrophil leucocytosis. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Meningitis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of meningitis can be carried out with examination of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) with a lumbar puncture (LP). In a case of bacterial meningitis, the CSF analysis will show:

      – Opening pressure: > 180 mmH2O

      – White blood cell count: 10–10 000/μl with neutrophil predominance

      – Glucose: < 40 mg/dl – CSF glucose to serum glucose ratio: < 0.4 – Protein: > 4.5 mg/dl

      – Gram stain: positive in > 60%

      – Culture: positive in > 80%

      – Latex agglutination: may be positive in meningitis due to Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, Escherichia coli and group B streptococci

      – Limulus, lysates: positive in Gram-negative meningitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - In a young, sexually active male, what is the most common cause of...

    Correct

    • In a young, sexually active male, what is the most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia

      Explanation:

      Non-gonococcal urethritis is most commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis (50% cases). Less common organisms include Mycoplasma genitalium, Urea urealyticum and Trichomonas vaginalis. Chlamydia is also the commonest cause of non-gonococcal cervicitis in women and proctitis in both sexes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - What is the most likely cause of prolonged bleeding time in a 40...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely cause of prolonged bleeding time in a 40 year old women admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia

      Explanation:

      Bleeding time is related to platelet function, thus a decrease in platelet function, as seen in thrombocytopenia, DIC and von Willebrand disease in which platelet aggregation is defective, leads to an increase in bleeding time. It is not affected by a decrease or deficiency of any other clotting factors. Aspirin and other COX inhibitors prolong bleeding time along with warfarin and heparin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - All the following statements are FALSE regarding the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are FALSE regarding the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, except:

      Your Answer: It follows the optic nerve and enters the bony orbit with it

      Correct Answer: The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest branch of the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest of the three trigeminal divisions. The cutaneous branches of the ophthalmic nerve supply the conjunctiva, the skin over the forehead, the upper eyelid, and much of the external surface of the nose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Which of the following diseases affects young adults, causing pain in any bone...

    Correct

    • Which of the following diseases affects young adults, causing pain in any bone -particularly long bones- which worsens at night, and is typically relieved by common analgesics, such as aspirin?

      Your Answer: Osteoid osteoma

      Explanation:

      Osteoid osteoma, which tends to affect young adults, can occur in any bone but is most common in long bones. It can cause pain (usually worse at night) that is typically relieved by mild analgesics, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. X-ray findings include a small radiolucent zone surrounded by a larger sclerotic zone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Which of the following morphological features is most characteristic of hyaline degeneration? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following morphological features is most characteristic of hyaline degeneration?

      Your Answer: Homogeneous, ground-glass, pink-staining appearance of cells

      Explanation:

      The characteristic morphological features of hyaline degeneration is ground-glass, pinking staining cytoplasm with an intact cell membrane. The accumulation of lipids, calcium salts, lipofuscin and an amorphous cytoplasm with an intact cell membrane are all characteristically found in different situations.

      Pyknotic nucleus and orphan Annie eye nucleus are not seen in hyaline degeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 76-year-old man with a urinary tract obstruction due to prostatic hyperplasia develops...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old man with a urinary tract obstruction due to prostatic hyperplasia develops acute renal failure. Which of the following physiological abnormalities of acute renal failure will be most life threatening for this patient?

      Your Answer: Acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acute renal failure (ARF) is a rapid loss of renal function due to damage to the kidneys, resulting in retention of nitrogenous (urea and creatinine) and non-nitrogenous waste products that are normally excreted by the kidney. This accumulation may be accompanied by metabolic disturbances, such as metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia, changes in body fluid balance and effects on many other organ systems. Metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia are the two most serious biochemical manifestations of acute renal failure and may require medical treatment with sodium bicarbonate administration and antihyperkalaemic measures. If not appropriately treated these can be life-threatening. ARF is diagnosed on the basis of characteristic laboratory findings, such as elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine, or inability of the kidneys to produce sufficient amounts of urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:...

    Correct

    • The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:

      Your Answer: Calcaneus

      Explanation:

      The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg form the characteristic ‘calf’ shape of the posterior leg and include the gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. The gastrocnemius and soleus together form a muscular mass which is occasionally described as the triceps surae; its tendon of insertion is the tendo calcaneus. The tendo calcaneus is the thickest and strongest in the body and together with the tendon of the plantaris muscle is inserted into the posterior part of the calcaneus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following...

    Correct

    • The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The otic ganglion is a small (2–3 mm), oval shaped, flattened parasympathetic ganglion of a reddish-grey colour, located immediately below the foramen ovale in the infratemporal fossa and on the medial surface of the mandibular nerve. The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus of the glossopharyngeal nerve. They leave the glossopharyngeal nerve by its tympanic branch and then pass via the tympanic plexus and the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion. Here, the fibres synapse, and the postganglionic fibres pass by communicating branches to the auriculotemporal nerve, which conveys them to the parotid gland. They produce vasodilator and secretomotor effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 42 - year old male patient with an acute onset headache was...

    Correct

    • A 42 - year old male patient with an acute onset headache was brought in to the emergency department with suspicion of a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH). The SHO on call decided to have a diagnostic lumbar puncture after computed topography scan failed to support the suspicion. To perform a successful lumbar puncture without causing injury to the spine, which anatomical landmark should guide the SHO to locate the fourth vertebra for insertion of the spinal needle?

      Your Answer: Iliac crest

      Explanation:

      The safest spinal level for conducting a lumbar puncture, is at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra. The anatomical landmark used to locate the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4), is the iliac crest. The needle can safely be inserted either above or below L4. The conus medullaris is at the level of the border of L1 and L2 so L4 is safely distant from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord?

      Your Answer: Is filled with jelly of Wharton

      Explanation:

      The umbilical cord that connects the fetus to the placenta is about 50cm long. This tissue consists of the body stalk and vitelline duct. The former containing the allantoic diverticulum and the umbilical vessels. The latter contains the connection linking the digestive tube and the yolk sac. This cord is wrapped by stratum of ectoderm and gelatinous tissue or jelly of Wharton. The right umbilical vein plus the vitelline vessels and ducts disappear and this at birth the cord has three vessels which are the umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon?

      Your Answer: High serum concentration of glucose

      Correct Answer: Low serum concentration of glucose

      Explanation:

      The most potent stimulus for secretion of glucagon is hypoglycaemia whereas hyperglycaemia is a stimulus for insulin release. Glucagon secretion also occurs in response to high levels of amino acids. Somatostatin inhibits glucagon secretion. Parasympathetic stimulation increases pancreatic acinar secretion, but not of α-cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy regimens would be used in this case?

      Your Answer: ABVD

      Explanation:

      ABVD is a chemotherapy regimen used in the first-line treatment of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It consists of concurrent treatment with the chemotherapy drugs, adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine and dacarbazine. It supplanted the older MOPP protocol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - The thyrocervical trunk branches into which artery that passes upward and in front...

    Correct

    • The thyrocervical trunk branches into which artery that passes upward and in front of the vertebral artery and longus colli muscle:

      Your Answer: Inferior thyroid

      Explanation:

      The inferior thyroid artery is an artery in the neck. It arises from the thyrocervical trunk and passes upward, in front of the vertebral artery and longus colli muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle?

      Your Answer: Edinger–Westphal nucleus

      Explanation:

      The Edinger–Westphal nucleus (accessory oculomotor nucleus) is the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 62-year-old man presented with a persistent cough and weight loss. Chest x-ray...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presented with a persistent cough and weight loss. Chest x-ray demonstrated widespread nodular opacities. After a bronchoalveolar lavage, atypical cells were detected. Which is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchioalveolar carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma (BAC) is a term used to define a particular subtype of adenocarcinoma which develops in cells near the alveoli, in the outer regions of the lungs. On a chest X-ray it can appear as a single peripheral spot or as scattered spots throughout the lungs. Symptoms include cough, haemoptysis, chest pain, dyspnoea and loss of weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to...

    Correct

    • A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to have aspirated a Lego piece which he was seen playing with. Where would you expect the piece to be?

      Your Answer: Right main bronchus

      Explanation:

      Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space and impossible for the seed to lodge here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - In a study, breast lumps were analysed to determine the characteristic of malignant...

    Correct

    • In a study, breast lumps were analysed to determine the characteristic of malignant neoplasm on biopsy. What microscopic findings are suggestive of malignancy?

      Your Answer: Invasion

      Explanation:

      Invasion is suggestive of malignancy and an even better option would have been metastasis. Pleomorphism is found in both benign and malignant neoplasms along with atypia and anaplasia. A height nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio is suggestive of malignancy but not the best indicator. Malignant tumours are aggressive and growth rapidly. Necrosis can be seen in benign tumours if they deplete their blood supply.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus

      Correct Answer: Trapezius

      Explanation:

      The latissimus dorsi receives blood from the thoracodorsal artery, the supraspinatus receives its blood from the suprascapular artery, the levator scapulae and the rhomboids are supplied by the dorsal scapular artery and the transverse cervical artery supplies blood to the trapezius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward...

    Incorrect

    • Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward and medially. What structure limits the straight-vertical-downward movement?

      Your Answer: Stomach

      Correct Answer: Left colic flexure

      Explanation:

      The left colic flexure (also known as the splenic flexure), is the point where the colon takes a sharp turn downwards. It is the point where the transverse colon ends and the descending colon begins. It is located immediately inferior to the spleen so an enlarged spleen must move medially to avoid this colic flexure.

      The left suprarenal gland is retroperitoneal.

      The Ligament of Treitz suspends the fourth part of the duodenum from the posterior abdominal wall.

      The stomach, pancreas and liver lie medial to the spleen and thus would not prevent a vertical downward movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 31 -year-old female patient had a blood gas done on presentation to...

    Correct

    • A 31 -year-old female patient had a blood gas done on presentation to the emergency department. She was found to have a metabolic acidosis and decreased anion gap. The most likely cause of these findings in this patient would be?

      Your Answer: Hypoalbuminemia

      Explanation:

      A low anion gap might be caused by alterations in serum protein levels, primarily albumin (hypoalbuminemia), increased levels of calcium (hypercalcaemia) and magnesium (hypermagnesemia) or bromide and lithium intoxication. However, the commonest cause is hypoalbuminemia, thus if the albumin concentration falls, the anion gap will also be lower. The anion gap should be corrected upwards by 2.5 mmol/l for every 10g/l fall in the serum albumin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - T lymphocytes that express the MCH type II antigen are most likely to...

    Correct

    • T lymphocytes that express the MCH type II antigen are most likely to produce which of the following cytokines?

      Your Answer: Gamma interferon

      Explanation:

      Interferon gamma is a soluble cytokine previously known as the macrophage activating factor. It is the only member belonging to the type II class of the interferons. It is secreted by a number of cells taking part in the immune reaction including: T-helper cells (CD-4), cells with immunological memory (CD45PA), killer cells (CD8), dendrite cells (CD23,35), natural killer cells (CD16) and B lymphocytes (CD22,CD23). It has both a defending as well as a pathological effect. It induces differentiation in the myeloid cell in the bone marrow. If macrophages are infected by parasites it activates the macrophages to destroy them. IFN-γ strengthens the anti-tumour activities of the cytotoxic lymphocytes. Together with CD4 or CD8 toxins, produced by lymphocytes, it suppresses the growth of the tumour cells. along with these functions it increases the non specific response of the natural killer cells, causing changes in the cell membrane surface to prevent adhesion and penetration of a virus. It can either increase or decrease B cell response and it activates osteoclasts which increases bone resorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Regarding innervation to the peroneus brevis muscle: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding innervation to the peroneus brevis muscle:

      Your Answer: Could be damaged by a fracture of the neck of the fibula

      Explanation:

      The peroneus brevis is supplied by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerves through the superficial peroneal nerve which is one of the two terminal branches of the common peroneal nerve. The common peroneal nerve winds around the neck of the fibula and can be injured in cases of fractured neck of fibula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - Which is the site of action of the drug omeprazole? ...

    Correct

    • Which is the site of action of the drug omeprazole?

      Your Answer: H+/K+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      H+/K+-ATPase or ‘proton pump’ located in the canalicular membrane plays a major role in acid secretion. The ATPase here is magnesium-dependent. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor and blocks H+/K+- ATPase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the: ...

    Correct

    • The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the:

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The superior rectal artery or superior haemorrhoidal artery is the continuation of the inferior mesenteric artery. It descends into the pelvis between the layers of the mesentery of the sigmoid colon, crossing the left common iliac artery and vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 45 year old women has a 4 cm non tender mass in...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old women has a 4 cm non tender mass in her right breast which is fixed to the chest wall. Another 2cm non-tender mass is palpable in the left axilla. Chest x ray reveals multiple nodules ranging from 0.5 - 0.2 cm in both the lungs. What is the stage of her disease?

      Your Answer: T4 N1 M1

      Explanation:

      This woman has an invasive primary tumour mass with axillary node and lung metastases, making this stage T4 N1 M1. Looking at the other stems, T1 N1 M0 signifies a small primary cancer with nodal metastases but no distant metastases; T1 N0 M1 signifies a small primary cancer with no lymph node metastases but with distant metastases; T2 N1 M0 signifies a larger primary cancer with nodal metastases but no distant metastases; and T3 N0 M0 indicates a larger primary cancer with no metastases to either lymph nodes or to distant sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia; Female Health
      • Pathology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - What is the percentage of bone calcium that is freely exchangeable with the...

    Correct

    • What is the percentage of bone calcium that is freely exchangeable with the extracellular fluid that is available for buffering changes in the calcium ion balance?

      Your Answer: 1%

      Explanation:

      Around 1% of calcium in the body is available for buffering changes in calcium ion balance. These are mainly derived from the bone that are freely exchangeable with extracellular fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - An old man fell and fractured a carpal bone articulating with the pisiform...

    Correct

    • An old man fell and fractured a carpal bone articulating with the pisiform bone. Which bone was most likely fractured?

      Your Answer: Triquetral

      Explanation:

      The pisiform bone has an oval facet for articulation with the triquetral bone. The pisiform bone is a sesamoid bone, and is anterior to the other carpal bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - The dilator pupillae muscle is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibres. Where do the...

    Incorrect

    • The dilator pupillae muscle is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibres. Where do the postganglionic sympathetic fibres originate?

      Your Answer: Ciliary ganglion

      Correct Answer: Superior cervical ganglion

      Explanation:

      The postganglionic sympathetic axons are derived from the superior cervical ganglion and innervate the eye and lacrimal gland allowing for vasoconstriction of the iris and sclera, pupillary dilation, widening of the palpebral fissure, and a reduction in tear production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Atrial septal defect (ASD) is most likely to be due to incomplete closure...

    Correct

    • Atrial septal defect (ASD) is most likely to be due to incomplete closure of which one of the following structures:

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      Atrial septal defect is a congenital heart defect that results in a communication between the right and left atria of the heart and may involve the interatrial septum. It results from incomplete closure of the foramen ovale which is normally open during fetal life and closes just after birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Renal function is an indication of the state of the kidney, measured by glomerular...

    Correct

    • Renal function is an indication of the state of the kidney, measured by glomerular filtration rate (GFR). In a healthy person, GFR would be greatly increased by: 

      Your Answer: Substantial increases in renal blood flow

      Explanation:

      An increase in the rate of renal blood flow (RBF) greatly increases the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). The more plasma available (from increased RBF), the more filtrate is formed. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal (kidney) glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time. Central to the physiologic maintenance of GFR is the differential basal tone of the afferent and efferent arterioles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 27-year-old woman has chronic low serum calcium levels. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman has chronic low serum calcium levels. Which of the following conditions may be responsible for the hypocalcaemia in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hypoparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Chronic hypocalcaemia is mostly seen in patients with hypoparathyroidism as a result of accidental removal or damage to parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Which of the following is true about a patient who has undergone total...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about a patient who has undergone total colectomy and ileostomy?

      Your Answer: This patient is at increased risk of anaemia due to malabsorption of vitamin B12

      Correct Answer: Following total colectomy and ileostomy, the volume and water content of ileal discharge decreases over time

      Explanation:

      After a patient has undergone total colectomy and ileostomy, the volume of ileal discharge, along with its water content gradually decreases over time. Post surgery, most patients can live a normal life. Iron and vitamin B12 absorption do not take place in the colon and hence are not affected significantly by a colectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Which of the following muscles aid in inspiration? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles aid in inspiration?

      Your Answer: Diaphragm and external intercostals

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm and external intercostals are muscles of inspiration as they increase the volume of thoracic cavity and reduce the intrathoracic pressure. Muscles of expiration include abdominal muscles and internal intercostals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It...

    Incorrect

    • During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It was a deep cut that led to profuse bleeding from an artery situated on the supinator muscle immediately below the elbow. The vessel most likely to have been injured is?

      Your Answer: Posterior ulnar recurrent artery

      Correct Answer: Radial recurrent artery

      Explanation:

      The radial recurrent artery is situated on the supinator muscle then passing between the brachialis and the brachioradialis muscles. It originates from the radial artery and ends by anastomosing with the terminal part of the Profunda brachii.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      75
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - upon stroking the plantar surface of a patient's foot, extension of toes was...

    Correct

    • upon stroking the plantar surface of a patient's foot, extension of toes was noted. This is likely to be accompanied with:

      Your Answer: Spasticity

      Explanation:

      An upper motor neuron lesion affects the neural pathway above the anterior horn cell or motor nuclei of the cranial nerves, whereas a lower motor neurone lesion affects nerve fibres travelling from the anterior horn of the spinal cord to the relevant muscles. An upper motor neurone lesions results in the following:

      – Spasticity in the extensor muscles (lower limbs) or flexor muscles (upper limbs).

      – ‘clasp-knife’ response where initial resistance to movement is followed by relaxation

      – Weakness in the flexors (lower limbs) or extensors (upper limbs) with no muscle wasting

      – Brisk tendon jerk reflexes

      – Positive Babinski sign (on stimulation of the sole of the foot, the big toe is raised rather than curled downwards)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - What is the 5-year survival rate of carcinoma of the pancreas? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the 5-year survival rate of carcinoma of the pancreas?

      Your Answer: 5 per cent

      Correct Answer: 30 per cent

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic cancer typically has a poor prognosis, partly because the cancer usually initially remains symptomless, leading to locally advanced or metastatic disease at the time of diagnosis. Median survival from diagnosis is around 3–6 months. Even in those suitable for resectional surgery, 5-year survival rates are still only 30 per cent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - The basilar artery arises from the confluence of which two arteries? ...

    Correct

    • The basilar artery arises from the confluence of which two arteries?

      Your Answer: Vertebral

      Explanation:

      The basilar artery is part of the vertebrobasilar system. It is formed by the confluence of the two vertebral arteries which arise from the subclavian arteries. These two vertebral arteries merge at the level of cranial nerve VI at the junction between the pons and the medulla oblangata to form what is know as the basilar artery. This vertebrobasilar system supplies the upper spinal cord, brainstem, cerebellum, and posterior part of brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 59-year old gentleman admitted for elective cholecystectomy was found to have a...

    Correct

    • A 59-year old gentleman admitted for elective cholecystectomy was found to have a haemoglobin 12.5 g/dl, haematocrit 37%, mean corpuscular volume 90 fl, platelet count 185 × 109/l, and white blood cell count 32 × 109/l; along with multiple, small mature lymphocytes on peripheral smear. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      CLL or chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is the most common leukaemia seen in the Western world. Twice more common in men than women, the incidence of CLL increases with age. About 75% cases are seen in patients aged more than 60 years. The blood, marrow, spleen and lymph nodes all undergo infiltration, eventually leading to haematopoiesis (anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia), hepatomegaly, splenomegaly and decreased production of immunoglobulin. In 98% cases, CD+5 B cells undergo malignant transformation.

      Often diagnosed on blood tests while being evaluated for lymphadenopathy, CLL causes symptoms like fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, pallor, dyspnoea on exertion, abdominal fullness or distension. Findings include multiple lymphadenopathy with minimal-to- moderate hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. Increased susceptibility to infections is seen. Herpes Zoster is common. Diffuse or maculopapular skin infiltration can also be seen in T-cell CLL.

      Diagnosis is by examination of peripheral blood smear and marrow: hallmark being a sustained, absolute leucocytosis (>5 ×109/l) and increased lymphocytes in the marrow (>30%). Other findings can include hypogammaglobulinemia (<15% of cases) and, rarely, raised lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). Only 10% cases demonstrate moderate anaemia and/or thrombocytopenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A histology report of a cervical biopsy taken from a patient with tuberculosis...

    Correct

    • A histology report of a cervical biopsy taken from a patient with tuberculosis revealed the presence of epithelioid cells. What are these cells formed from?

      Your Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      Granulomas formed in tuberculosis are called tubercles and are made up polynuclear phagocytes, Langhans cells and epithelioid cells. Macrophages when enlarged, consist of abundant cytoplasm and have a tendency of arranging themselves very closely to each other representing epithelial cells. These enlarged macrophages are therefore termed as epithelioid cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A young man came to the emergency room after an accident. The anterior...

    Correct

    • A young man came to the emergency room after an accident. The anterior surface of his wrist was lacerated with loss of sensation over the thumb side of his palm. Which nerves have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      The median nerve provides cutaneous innervation to the skin of the palmar radial three and a half fingers. Also the site of injury indicates that the medial nerve may have been injured as it passes into the hand by crossing over the anterior wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - The accumulation of eosinophils within tissues is mostly regulated by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The accumulation of eosinophils within tissues is mostly regulated by which of the following cytokines?

      Your Answer: Interleukin 3

      Correct Answer: Interleukin-5

      Explanation:

      IL-5 is produced by TH2 helper cells and by mast cells. They stimulate increased secretion of immunoglobulins and stimulate B cell growth. They are the major regulators in eosinophil activation and control. They are also released from eosinophils and mast cells in asthmatic patients and are associate with a many other allergic conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Loperamide is a drug used to treat diarrhoea. What is the mechanism of...

    Correct

    • Loperamide is a drug used to treat diarrhoea. What is the mechanism of action of loperamide?

      Your Answer: Opiate agonist

      Explanation:

      Loperamide is an opioid-receptor agonist and acts on the mu opioid receptors in the myenteric plexus of large intestine. It works by decreasing the motility of the circular and longitudinal smooth muscles of the intestinal wall. It is often used for this purpose in gastroenteritis, inflammatory bowel disease, and short bowel syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis with fibrinoid necrosis, petechial haemorrhages, microinfarcts in the kidneys and elevated...

    Incorrect

    • Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis with fibrinoid necrosis, petechial haemorrhages, microinfarcts in the kidneys and elevated plasma renin are common findings in which of the following patients?

      Your Answer: A 56-year-old man with an acute myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: A 45-year-old woman with scleroderma

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma, also known as systemic sclerosis, is a chronic disease of the connective tissue. Involvement of the kidneys occurs in patients with diffuse scleroderma, causing rapid onset of high blood pressure with hyperreninemia, thrombotic microangiopathy, and progressive renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      4.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (38/48) 79%
Thorax (6/6) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (3/3) 100%
Pathology (29/32) 91%
Abdomen (6/8) 75%
Head & Neck (11/16) 69%
Haematology (4/4) 100%
Upper Limb (7/10) 70%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Physiology (16/20) 80%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
General (5/5) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (5/5) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology (2/3) 67%
Lower Limb (6/6) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Neoplasia (2/3) 67%
Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (3/3) 100%
Neoplasia; Urology (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (2/2) 100%
Renal (3/4) 75%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Neoplasia; Female Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed