-
Question 1
Correct
-
A chest X-ray in a healthy, non-smoker, asymptomatic 48-year-old woman reveals a 2cm left lower lobe well-defined round opacity. Which of the following conditions is most probably responsible for this finding?
Your Answer: Pulmonary hamartoma
Explanation:An asymptomatic healthy patient with no history of smoking and a lesion of small size most probably has a benign lung lesion. Hamartomas are one of the most common benign tumours of the lung that accounts for approximately 6% of all solitary pulmonary nodules. Pulmonary hamartomas are usually asymptomatic and therefore are found incidentally when performing an imaging test for other reasons.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Lack of findings in the bladder but presence of atypical epithelial cells in urinalysis is most often associated with which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma of prostate
Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma of renal pelvis
Explanation:The presence of atypical cells in urinalysis without findings in the bladder suggests a lesion located higher up, most probably in ureters or renal pelvis. Transitional cell cancer of the renal pelvis is a disease in which malignant cells form in the renal pelvis and is characterised by the presence of abnormal cells in urine cytology.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Renal
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 55-year-old woman died 3 years after a cardiac transplant due to worsening congestive heart failure. Autopsy revealed diffuse hyperplasia of the vascular intima involving the entire length of the coronary arteries. The most probable cause of deterioration of the cardiac function is:
Your Answer: Coronary atherosclerosis
Explanation:Allograft coronary artery disease (CAD) can begin right after the transplant and is the major cause of later death in cardiac transplant recipients. This form of atherosclerosis progresses quickly resulting in allograft failure. Due to lack of premonitory symptoms CAD may lead to sudden death.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pathology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of appetite over the last month, was referred to a haematologist because he presented with easy bruising and petechiae. His prothrombin time, platelet count, partial thromboplastin and bleeding time were all normal. Which of the following would explain the presence of the petechiae and easy bruising tendency?
Your Answer: Scurvy
Explanation:Scurvy is a condition caused by a dietary deficiency of vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid. Humans are unable to synthesize vitamin C, therefore the quantity of it that the body needs has to come from the diet. The presence of an adequate quantity of vitamin C is required for normal collagen synthesis. In scurvy bleeding tendency is due to capillary fragility and not coagulation defects, therefore blood tests are normal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Multiple, non-tender lymphadenopathy with biopsy showing several crowded follicles of small, monomorphic lymphocytes and the absence of Reed-Sternberg cells is seen in which of the following?
Your Answer: Hodgkin’s disease, lymphocyte predominance type
Correct Answer: Poorly differentiated lymphocytic lymphoma
Explanation:Malignant lymphoma usually causes non-tender lymphadenopathy, unlike the tender lymphadenopathy caused by infections (including infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus). Also, the lymphoid hyperplasia seen in infectious mononucleosis is benign and polyclonal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
Which of the following diseases can cause paraesthesia along the distribution of the median nerve of the hand, especially after activities which require flexion and extension of the wrist?
Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Carpal tunnel syndrome tends to occur in women between the ages of 30-50. There are many risk factors, including diabetes, hypothyroidism, obesity, pregnancy, and repetitive wrist work. Symptoms include pain in the hand and wrist, tingling, and numbness distributed along the median nerve (the palmar side of the thumb, the index and middle fingers, and the radial half of the ring finger), which worsens at night.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 90-year-old man is prescribed spironolactone after his family notices his legs are swollen. What class of drugs does spironolactone belong to?
Your Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretics
Explanation:Spironolactone is a renal competitive aldosterone antagonist in a class of drugs called ‘potassium-sparing diuretics’, that is primarily used to treat fluid build-up due to heart failure, liver scarring, or kidney disease. It is also used in the treatment of high blood pressure, low blood potassium, early-onset puberty, and acne and excessive hair growth in women. Spironolactone inhibits the effect of aldosterone by competing for intracellular aldosterone receptors in the distal tubule cells. This increases the secretion of water and sodium, while decreasing the excretion of potassium.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
What is the normal amount of oxygen that is carried in the blood?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20 ml oxygen/100 ml blood
Explanation:Normally, 100 ml of blood contains 15g haemoglobin and a single gram of haemoglobin can bind to 1.34 ml oxygen when 100% saturated. Thus, 15 × 1.34 = 20 ml O2/100 ml blood. The haemoglobin in venous blood that is leaving the tissues is about 75% saturated with oxygen, and hence it carries about 15 ml O2/100 ml venous blood. This implies that for each 10 ml of blood, 5 ml oxygen is transported to the tissues. With a p(O2) > 100 mm Hg, only 3 ml of oxygen is dissolved in every one litre of plasma. By increasing the pA(O2) by breathing 100% oxygen, one can add an extra amount of oxygen in the plasma, but the amount of oxygen carried by haemoglobin will not increase significantly as it is already > 95% saturated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B3
Explanation:Vitamin B6 is required for collagen cross-links.
Vitamin A is required for epithelial cell proliferation.
Zinc is required for RNA and DNA synthesis.
Copper is required for cross-linking of collagen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Physiology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A medical student is asked to calculate the net pressure difference in a capillary wall, considering: Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure = –3 mmHg, Plasma colloid osmotic pressure = 28 mmHg, Capillary hydrostatic pressure = 17 mmHg, Interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure = 8 mmHg, and Filtration coefficient = 1. Which is the correct answer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0 mmHg
Explanation:The rate of filtration at any point along a capillary depends on a balance of forces sometimes called Starling’s forces after the physiologist who first described their operation in detail. The Starling principle of fluid exchange is key to understanding how plasma fluid (solvent) within the bloodstream (intravascular fluid) moves to the space outside the bloodstream (extravascular space). Fluid movement = k[(pc– pi)–(Πc– Πi)] where k = capillary filtration coefficient, pc = capillary hydrostatic pressure, pi= interstitial hydrostatic pressure, Πc = capillary colloid osmotic pressure, Πi = interstitial colloid osmotic pressure. Therefore: 1 × [capillary hydrostatic pressure (17) – interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure (–3)] – [plasma colloid osmotic pressure (28) – interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure (8)] = 0 mmHg
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Physiology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 50-year old lady presented to the clinic with chronic pain in the abdomen. On physical examination, she was found to be pale. Further investigations revealed a decrease in both serum iron and total iron-binding capacity, along with an increase in serum ferritin. These findings are seen in:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease
Explanation:Anaemia of chronic disease is characterized by low serum iron, iron-binding capacity and saturation with increased ferritin (storage iron). Haemolytic anaemia is characterized by normal iron levels as the haemoglobin released from the haemolysed red blood cells is recycled. Anaemia due to chronic blood loss leads to low serum iron, low ferritin and high total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). Malabsorption, especially with duodenal involvement can also lead to iron deficiency anaemia with low ferritin and high TIBC. Megaloblastic anaemia due to vitamin B12 and folate deficiency is not associated with abnormalities in metabolism of iron.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is responsible for the maximum increase in total peripheral resistance on sympathetic stimulation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arterioles
Explanation:Arterioles are also known as the resistance vessels as they are responsible for approximately half the resistance of the entire systemic circulation. They are richly innervated by the autonomic nervous system and hence, will bring about the maximum increase in peripheral resistance on sympathetic stimulation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A histology report of a cervical biopsy taken from a patient with tuberculosis revealed the presence of epithelioid cells. What are these cells formed from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:Granulomas formed in tuberculosis are called tubercles and are made up polynuclear phagocytes, Langhans cells and epithelioid cells. Macrophages when enlarged, consist of abundant cytoplasm and have a tendency of arranging themselves very closely to each other representing epithelial cells. These enlarged macrophages are therefore termed as epithelioid cells.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
The histological exam of a tuberculous granuloma shows a periphery of multinuclear giant cells, with a central area of:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Caseous necrosis
Explanation:Granulomas with necrosis tend to have an infectious cause. The chronic infective lesion in this case typically presents with a central area of caseous (cheese-like) necrosis. Foam cells are the fat-laden M2 macrophages seen in atherosclerosis
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Dermatology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT true regarding malignant hyperpyrexia
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can be caused by nitrous oxide
Explanation:Malignant hyerpyrexia occurs in 1 in 150,000. All inhalational anaesthetic agents and suxamethonium, except nitrous oxide can cause malignant hyperpyrexia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old HIV patient started on an antifungal agent. Which antifungal agent that inhibits the biosynthesis of fungal ergosterol was given to the patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ketoconazole
Explanation:Ketoconazole is a synthetic imidazole antifungal drug used primarily to treat fungal infections. It inhibits the biosynthesis of ergosterol by blocking demethylation at the C14 site of the ergosterol precursor. Amphotericin B and Nystatin impair permeability of the cell membrane. Flucytosine interferes with DNA synthesis, while the target of griseofulvin is the microtubules
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Calculate the cardiac output in an adult male with the following parameters:
Heart rate 70 beats/min
Arterial [O2] 0.24 ml O2/min
Venous [O2] 0.16 ml O2/mi
Whole body O2 consumption 500 ml/min
Pulmonary diastolic pressure 15 mmHg
Pulmonary systolic pressure 25 mmHg
Wedge pressure 5 mmHg.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6.25 l/min
Explanation:As per Fick’s principle, VO2 = (CO × CAO2) – (CO × CVO2) where VO2 = oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CAO2 = oxygen concentration of arterial blood and CVO2 = oxygen concentration of venous blood. Thus, CO = VO2/CAO2– CVO2, CO = 500/0.24 – 0.16, CO = 500/0.8, CO = 6.25 l/min.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteochondroma
Explanation:Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old pregnant woman develops high blood pressure at 20 weeks. She complains of headaches and swollen feet, and a test reveals proteinuria (350 mg/day). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre-eclampsia
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia (PE) is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by the onset of high blood pressure (two separate readings taken at least 6 h apart of 140/90 or more) and often a significant amount of protein in the urine (>300 mg of protein in a 24-h urine sample). While blood pressure elevation is the most visible sign of the disease, it involves generalised damage to the maternal endothelium of the kidneys and liver, with the release of vasopressive factors only secondary to the original damage. Pre-eclampsia may develop at varying times within pregnancy and its progress differs among patients; most cases present pre-term. It has no known cure apart from ending the pregnancy (induction of labour or abortion). It may also present up to 6 weeks post partum. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include obesity, prior hypertension, older age, and diabetes mellitus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Which is the most common benign germ-cell tumour that could occur in a premenopausal woman?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermoid cyst
Explanation:A dermoid cyst is a teratoma of a cystic nature that contains an array of developmentally mature and solid tissues. Dermoid cysts grow slowly and this type of cystic teratoma is nearly always benign.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 34-year-old woman is diagnosed with cerebral oedema after suffering a severe head trauma. Which of the following conditions is not likely to be associated with the extracellular oedema?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure
Explanation:Cerebral oedema is extracellular fluid accumulation in the brain. Increased capillary permeability, increased capillary pressure, increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure and lymphatic blockage would increase fluid movement into the interstitial spaces. Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure, however, would oppose fluid movement from the capillaries into the interstitial compartment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Physiology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Which of these HLA alleles is most likely to be present in ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HLA-B27
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis usually appears between the ages of 20-40 years old and is more frequent in men. It is strongly associated with HLA-B27, along with other spondyloarthropathies, which can be remembered through the mnemonic PAIR (Psoriasis, Ankylosing spondylitis, Inflammatory bowel disease, and Reactive arthritis).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A sexually active 21 year old man presents with the history of dysuria for the past 3 days. Urine culture confirmed Neisseria gonorrhoeae and smear showed abundant neutrophils. Which of the following mediators is responsible for causing diapedesis of the neutrophils to reach the site of infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Complement C5a
Explanation:C5a is part of the complement cascade and is released frim the complement C5. It acts as a chemotactic factor for neutrophils. Other chemotactic mediators are TNF, leukotrienes and bacterial products.
Bradykinin is associated with the production of pain and vasodilation.
Hageman factor is a clotting factor.
Histamine causes vasodilation.
C3B causes opsonisation.
IL-6 and IL-12 are inflammatory mediators causing B cell maturation and mediating inflammation and prostaglandins are involved with pain, increasing cell permeability and vasodilation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology; Urology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
If a patient takes long-term corticosteroid therapy, which of the following diseases is most likely to develop?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoporosis
Explanation:One of the complications of long-term intake of corticosteroids is osteoporosis. Some guidelines recommend prophylactic calcium and vitamin D supplementation in patients who take more than 30 mg hydrocortisone or 7.5 mg of prednisolone daily.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which of the following has the least malignant potential?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperplastic polyp
Explanation:Non-neoplastic (non-adenomatous) colonic polyps include hyperplastic polyps, hamartomas, juvenile polyps, pseudopolyps, lipomas, leiomyomas and others.
An autosomal dominant condition, Peutz–Jeghers syndrome is a disease that is characterized by multiple hamartomatous polyps in the stomach, small bowel and colon. Symptoms of this syndrome include hyperpigmentation of the skin and mucous membranes, especially of the lips and gums.
Juvenile polyps develop in children, and once they outgrow their blood supply, they autoamputate around puberty. In cases of uncontrolled bleeding or intussusception, treatment is needed.
Inflammatory polyps and pseudopolyps occur in chronic ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease. There is an increased risk of cancer with multiple juvenile polyps (not with sporadic polyps).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
- Pathology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
The patient who is diagnosed with bladder cancer asked his physician, what could have been the contributing factor in the development of his bladder cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Tobacco smoking is the main known contributor to urinary bladder cancer. In most populations, smoking is associated with over half of bladder cancer cases in men and one-third of cases among women.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old woman complains of a new, persisting headache. She is diagnosed with vasculitis and the histopathological sample revealed giant-cell arteritis. What is the most probable diagnose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temporal arteritis
Explanation:Giant cell arteritis (GCA), also known as temporal arteritis, is the most common systemic inflammatory vasculitis that occurs in adults. It is of unknown aetiology and affects arteries large to small however the involvement of the superficial temporal arteries is almost always present. Other commonly affected arteries include the ophthalmic, occipital and vertebral arteries, therefore GCA can result in systemic, neurologic, and ophthalmologic complications. GCA usually is found in patients older than 50 years of age and should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a new-onset headache accompanied by an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Diagnosis depends on the results of artery biopsy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pathology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 76 year old man who presented with lower back pain is diagnosed with prostatic carcinoma that has metastasized to his lumber spine. Which of the following markers is characteristically elevated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PSA
Explanation:Spread of prostatic carcinoma is common to the lumbar spine and pelvis. This results in osteoblastic metastases that will present as lower back pain with increased alkaline phosphatase, prostatic acid phosphates and PSA. PSA is more specific and a PSA > 10 ng/ml for any age is worrisome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia; Urology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A young lady visited a doctor with complaints of fever and a dull, continuous pain in the right lumbar region for 6 days. On, enquiry, she recalled passing an increasing number of stools with occasional blood in last few months. Lower gastrointestinal endoscopic biopsy was taken 5 cm proximal to ileocaecal valve which showed transmural inflammation with several granulomas. Tissue section showed the absence of acid-fast bacillus. She denies any history of travel and her stool cultures were negative. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:Crohn’s disease is a chronic, inflammatory disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract but is usually seen in the distal ileum and colon. It is transmural and symptoms include chronic diarrhoea, abdominal pain, fever, anorexia and weight loss. On examination, there is usually abdominal tenderness with a palpable mass or fullness seen occasionally. Rectal bleeding is uncommon (except in isolated colonic involvement) which manifests like ulcerative colitis. Differential diagnosis includes acute appendicitis or intestinal obstruction. 25%-33% patients also have perianal disease in the form of fissure or fistulas.
Extra intestinal manifestations predominate in children, and include: arthritis, pyrexia, anaemia or growth retardation. Histologically, the disease shows crypt inflammation and abscesses initially, which progress to aphthoid ulcers. These eventually develop into longitudinal and transverse ulcers with interspersed mucosal oedema, leading to the characteristic ‘cobblestoned appearance’. Transmural involvement leads to lymphoedema and thickening of bowel wall and mesentery, leading to extension of mesenteric fat on the serosal surface of bowel and enlargement of mesenteric nodes. There can also be hypertrophy of the muscularis mucosae, fibrosis and stricture formation, which can cause bowel obstruction.
Abscesses are common and the disease can also leas to development of fistulas with various other organs, anterior abdominal wall and adjacent muscles. Pathognomonic non-caseating granulomas are seen in 50% cases and they can occur in nodes, peritoneum, liver, and in all layers of the bowel wall. The clinical course does not depend on the presence of granulomas. There is sharp demarcation between the diseased and the normal bowel (skip areas).
35% cases show only the ileal involvement, whereas in 45% cases, both the ileum and colon are involved with a predilection for right side of colon. 20% cases show only colonic involvement, often sparing the rectum (unlike ulcerative colitis). In occasional cases, there is jejunoileitis – involvement of the entire small bowel. The stomach, duodenum and oesophagus are rarely involved, although there has been microscopic evidence of disease involving the gastric antrum in younger patients. The affected small bowel segments show increased rick of cancer. Moreover, patients with colonic disease show a long-term risk of cancer similar to that seen in ulcerative colitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
- Pathology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Investigations in a 40-year old gentleman with splenomegaly reveal the following: haemoglobin 21.5 g/dl, haematocrit 66%, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 86 fl, mean cell haemoglobin concentration 34 g/dl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin 34.5 pg, platelet count 450 × 109/l, and white blood cell count 12 × 109/l, with 81% polymorphonuclear leukocytes, 4% bands, 3% monocytes, and 7% lymphocytes.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycythaemia vera
Explanation:The markedly increased haematocrit, along with thrombocytosis and the leucocytosis suggest a myeloproliferative disorder.
Polycythaemia vera is the commonest myeloproliferative disorders occurring more often in males (about 1.4 to 1). The mean age at diagnosis is 60 years (range 15–90 years) with 5% of patients below 40 years at onset. It involves increased production of all cell lines, including red blood cells (independent of erythropoietin), white blood cells and platelets. If confined only to red blood cells, it is known as ‘primary erythrocytosis’. There is an increase in blood volume and hyperviscosity occurs, predisposing to thrombosis. Increased bleeding occurs due to abnormal functioning of platelets. Patients become hypermetabolic, and increased cell turnover leads to hyperuricaemia.
Usually asymptomatic, occasionally symptoms include weakness, pruritus, headache, light-headedness, visual disturbances, fatigue and dyspnoea. Face appears red with engorged retinal veins. Lower extremities appear red and painful, along with digital ischaemia (erythromelalgia). Hepatomegaly is common and massive splenomegaly is seen in 75% patients. Thrombosis can lead to stroke, deep venous thrombosis, myocardial infarction, retinal artery or vein occlusion, splenic infarction (often with a friction rub) or Budd–Chiari syndrome. Gastrointestinal bleeding is seen in 10-20% patients. Hypermetabolism can lead to low-grade fevers and weight loss. Late features include complications of hyperuricaemia (e.g. gout, renal calculi). 1.5% to 10% cases transform to acute leukaemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
