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Question 1
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A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with severe abdominal pain and per vaginal bleeding. On examination there was tenderness over her left iliac region. Her pulse rate was 110 bpm and blood pressure was 90/65mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Immediate laparotomy
Explanation:A ruptured ectopic pregnancy is the most probable diagnosis. As she is in shock (tachycardia and hypotension) immediate laparotomy is needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Question 3
Correct
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A 36 year old women attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The histology shows Psammoma bodies. What type of tumour would this be consistent with?
Your Answer: Serous
Explanation:Serous tumours of the ovaries are large, cystic and spherical to ovoid in shape. They can be benign or malignant. Malignant tumours are usually nodular with irregularities in the surface where the tumour penetrates into the serosa. Psammoma bodies are a histological identification for these tumours which appear in the tips of the papillae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 21 year old married gravida 1 para 1 has not used her oral contraceptives for 6 months. She comes to your office for evaluation because her menstrual period is 2 weeks late. Her menses had been regular since discontinuing the oral contraceptives. A urine hCG is negative. Which one of the following is true regarding this situation?
Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasonography should be performed
Correct Answer: It is unlikely that she is pregnant
Explanation:With the high level of sensitivity and specificity of current tests to measure hCG in serum and urine, pregnancy can now be diagnosed before the time of the first missed menstrual period- For current serum hCG assays, the low threshold for detection is 10-25 IU/L, while for urine assays it is 25-50 IU/L, which corresponds to approximately the seventh day after conception. Because the levels of hCG in the blood and urine are very similar, the tests are equivalent. Urine testing may reveal a positive result as early as 3-4 days after implantation. By the time of the expected menstrual period, the test will be positive 98% of the time- If a test is negative more than 1 week after the expected time of the menstrual period, it is almost certain the patient is not pregnant. To cover these rare instances where a woman has a low hCG and conceived later than expected, the test should be repeated in 1 week for a definitive result.
Since ectopic pregnancy is not a life-threatening problem for the mother until 2 months after conception, a patient with a negative urine hCG does not require ultrasonography to exclude ectopic pregnancy. Patients with a suspected ectopic pregnancy and a negative urine hCG should be followed closely, as early laparoscopic intervention can improve the chances of future fertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Correct
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Regarding the diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes which of the following tests is recommended by the WHO for diagnosis?
Your Answer: 75g OGTT with 2 hour glucose
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justify ed to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specific city for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral 75g glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks of gestation, presented with a history of vaginal pressure, vaginal spotting and lower back pain.
Transvaginal ultrasound finding shows cervical shortening to 2 cm, cervical dilation, and protrusion of fetal membranes into the cervical canal.
Which among the following risk factors is not related to the development of this condition?Your Answer: Congenital disorder of collagen synthesis
Correct Answer: Alcohol abuse
Explanation:This woman has developed non-specific symptoms of cervical insufficiency, is a painless dilation of cervix resulting in the delivery of a live fetus during the 2nd trimester or premature delivery.
The following has been identified as the risk factors associated with increased incidence of cervical insufficiency:
– Congenital disorders of collagen synthesis like Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
– Prior cone biopsies.
– Prior deep cervical lacerations, which is secondary to vaginal or cesarean delivery.
-Müllerian duct defects like bicornuate or septate uterus.
– More than three prior fetal losses during the 2nd trimesterFrom the given options, alcohol abuse is the only one not associated with increased incidence of cervical insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 42 year old woman in early pregnancy is rushed to the emergency department complaining of vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. What percentage of women her age have miscarriages?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:With increasing maternal age, the risk of miscarriage increases. For women between the ages of 40-44, the miscarriage rates sit at about 50% and increases to over 75% for women 45 years and over. The miscarriage rate for women between the ages of 35-39 is 25%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 8
Correct
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A mother typically becomes aware of fetal movements at what gestation?
Your Answer: 18-20 weeks
Explanation:Foetal movements often become apparent at about 18-20 weeks gestation. This phenomenon is also called quickening. The Foetal movements continue to increase in frequency and force until 32 weeks where they plateau. Foetal movements can be used to monitor the wellbeing of the foetus, alerting the mother and healthcare providers to a problem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 9
Correct
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With sneezing, a 45-year-old mother of two reported leaking a small bit of urine. It started to happen with exercising recently. She denies having experienced recent life pressures.
Which of the following best characterizes the incontinence she's dealing with?Your Answer: Stress incontinence
Explanation:Overflow incontinence typically presents with continuous urinary leakage or dribbling in the setting of incomplete bladder emptying. Associated symptoms can include weak or intermittent urinary stream, hesitancy, frequency, and nocturia. When the bladder is very full, stress leakage can occur or low-amplitude bladder contractions can be triggered resulting in symptoms similar to stress or urgency incontinence.
Women with urgency incontinence experience the urge to void immediately preceding or accompanied by involuntary leakage of urine
Individuals with stress incontinence have involuntary leakage of urine that occurs with increases in intraabdominal pressure (e.g., with exertion, sneezing, coughing, laughing) in the absence of a bladder contraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female is at her second trimester of pregnancy and she presented to the medical clinic to receive human papillomavirus vaccination.
Which of the following is considered the best step to do?Your Answer: Give her vaccine now
Correct Answer: Postpone vaccination until after delivery
Explanation:Genital HPV is a common virus that is passed from one person to another through direct skin-to-skin contact during sexual activity. Most HPV types cause no symptoms and go away on their own, but some types can cause cervical cancer in women and other less common cancers — like cancers of the anus, penis, vagina, and vulva and oropharynx. Other types of HPV can cause warts in the genital areas of men and women, called genital warts.
HPV vaccination is recommended for 11 and 12 year-old girls. It is also recommended for girls and women age 13 through 26 years of age who have not yet been vaccinated or completed the vaccine series; HPV vaccine can also be given to girls beginning at age 9 years. CDC recommends 11 to 12 year olds get two doses of HPV vaccine to protect against cancers caused by HPV.
The vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women. Studies show that the HPV vaccine does not cause problems for babies born to women who were vaccinated while pregnant, but more research is still needed. A pregnant woman should not get any doses of the HPV vaccine until her pregnancy is completed.
Getting the HPV vaccine when pregnant is not a reason to consider ending a pregnancy. If a woman realizes that she got one or more shots of an HPV vaccine while pregnant, she should wait until after her pregnancy to finish any remaining HPV vaccine doses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 23 year old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe lower abdominal and pelvic pain. History reveals she normally has regular 28 day cycles but she missed her last period. Past medical history reveals 2 termination of pregnancy procedures in the past 3 years. The most recent one 6 months ago. She smokes 5 cigarettes per day.
Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:This patient is most likely to have a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. The history of multiple TOPs suggests her contraceptive methods are not reliable and her missed period is suggestive she may currently be pregnant. There is no temperature or vaginal discharge to suggest PID though this is of course possible as is appendicitis. The last termination was 6 months ago so endometritis is unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 12
Correct
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Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as:
Your Answer: Adenomyosis
Explanation:Adenomyosis is a disorder characterised by the presence of endometrial glands deep within the myometrium. It presents with increasing severe secondary dysmenorrhoea and increased in the flow of menstrual blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following hormones inhibits Galactopoiesis and Lactogenesis postpartum?
Your Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:Galactopoiesis and Lactogenesis are stimulated by Prolactin. Dopamine released under hypothalamic control inhibits Prolactin production. Note oestrogen and progesterone inhibit lactogenesis up until term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 14
Correct
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The typical female breast contains how many lobes?
Your Answer: 15-20
Explanation:The female breast is made of about 15 to 20 individual lobes. The lobules each consists of alveoli which drain into a single lactiferous duct. The ductal system leads to lactiferous sinuses and collecting ducts which expel milk from openings in the nipple.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy 2 years ago. She is planning to conceive but is concerned about what her medications may do to her baby.
Which of the following is considered to reduce the incidence of neural tube defects?Your Answer: High dose folic acid for one month before conception and during first trimester
Explanation:CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).
The use of lamotrigine during pregnancy has not been associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects; however, the recommendation regarding higher doses of folic acid supplementation is often, but not always, broadened to include women taking any anticonvulsant, including lamotrigine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 17-year-old girl presented to the medical clinic for emergency contraception. Upon interview, it was revealed that she had unprotected sexual intercourse last night and is worried that she may become pregnant. She mentioned that her last menstrual period was 1 week ago, and she has regular menses since menarche.
Further physical examination was performed and results are normal and her urine pregnancy test is negative. After discussing various emergency contraceptive options, the patient asked for a pill option and requested to not inform her parents about this visit.
In most states, which of the following is considered the most appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Provide levonorgestrel pill
Explanation:Levonorgestrel, also known as the morning-after pill, is a first-line oral emergency contraceptive pill with approval from the World Health Organization to prevent pregnancy. It is FDA-approved to be used within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse or when a presumed contraceptive failure has occurred.
A prescription is not needed, and it is available over the counter at local pharmacies. The FDA has also approved levonorgestrel availability for all age groups due to its lack of life-threatening contraindications and side-effect profile.
There are several contraindications for the emergency contraceptive form, including allergy, hypersensitivity, severe liver disease, pregnancy, and drug-drug interactions with liver enzyme-inducing drugs. The medication is not for use in women confirmed to be pregnant; however, there is no proof nor reports of adverse effects on the mother or foetus following inadvertent exposure during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 29 year old patient presents due to the sensation of reduced fetal movements (RFM). From what gestation is CTG assessment of RFM advised?
Your Answer: 28+0 weeks
Explanation:The cardiotocograph (CTG) is a continuous tracing of the fetal heart rate used to assess fetal wellbeing. The Doppler effect detects fetal heart motion and allows the interval between successive beats to be measured, thereby allowing a continuous assessment of fetal heart rate. The mother perceives the fetal movement by the 18-20 week of gestation and these increase until the 32 week. A mother should under go CTG if the fetal movements are reduced by the 28 week of gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 18
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents for an antenatal visit in her first pregnancy. The pregnancy has been progressing normally thus far. Her routine mid-trimester ultrasound examination, performed at 18 weeks of gestation, shows that the placenta occupies the lower part of the uterus. It is noted that the placenta is reaching to within 1 cm of the internal cervical os. The patient is wondering what this means for her pregnancy and what needs to be done about it.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Repeat the ultrasound at 34 weeks of gestation.
Explanation:This patient is presenting with a low-lying placenta at 18 weeks of gestation. This is a common finding on ultrasound at 18-20 weeks. If there is not bleeding, there is an 80-90% chance that by late pregnancy, the placenta will have moved and is no longer occupying the lower uterine segment. For this reason, the repeat ultrasound examination is usually performed at 32-34 weeks of gestation. Further discussions about management can then be made after obtaining those results.
Leaving the repeat ultrasound until term would be inappropriate as intervention would be needed prior. If the placenta praevia is still present, it is typically advisable to deliver prior to term.
Cardiotocographic (CT) fetal heart rate monitoring is not required in the absence of bleeding or other symptoms.
Delivery by Caesarean section would not be necessary if the placenta was no longer praevia by the time the repeat ultrasound is done.
Repeat ultrasound examination at 22 weeks of gestation would also unnecessary and inappropriate as it is too close in time for the change to occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is 39+6 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM). What is the risk of serious neonatal infection with PROM?
Your Answer: 5 in 100
Correct Answer: 1 in 100
Explanation:Prelabour Rupture of Membranes:
– Risk of serious neonatal infection 1% (vs 0.5% for women with intact membranes)
– 60% of patients with PROM will go into labour within 24 hrs
– Induction appropriate if >34 weeks gestation and >24 hours post rupture and patients labour hasn’t started.
– If <34 weeks induction of labour should not be carried out unless there are additional obstetric indications e.g. infection -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 20
Correct
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Which one of the following features best describes the role of prostaglandins?
Your Answer: Are involved in the onset of labour
Explanation:Prostaglandins are involved in the uterine contraction and cervical dilatation during labour. Higher prostaglandin concentrations can also lead to severe menstrual cramps.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 21
Correct
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Which one of the following features indicates complete placental separation after delivery?
Your Answer: All of the options given
Explanation:At the time of delivery, the most important signs of complete placental separation are lengthening of the umbilical cord, per vaginal bleeding and change in shape of uterus from discoid to globular shape. The uterus contracts in size and rises upward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Correct
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After birth, all of the following vessels constrict, EXCEPT the:
Your Answer: Hepatic portal vein
Explanation:Immediately after birth the liver is deprived of the large flow of blood supplied during foetal development via the umbilical vein and portal sinus. Simultaneously the blood pressure in the portal sinus, previously as high as in the umbilical vein, falls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 29-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at her 18 weeks gestational age for an unscheduled visit due to right-sided groin pain. She describes the pain as sharp in nature, which is occurring with movement and exercise and that the pain will be alleviated with application of a heating pad. She denies any change in urinary or bowel habits and there is no fever or chills.
What would be the most likely etiology of pain in this patient?Your Answer: Round ligament pain
Explanation:The patient is presenting with classic symptoms of round ligament pain.
Round ligaments are structures which extends from the lateral portion of the uterus below to the oviduct and will travel downward in a fold of peritoneum to the inguinal canal to get inserted in the upper portion of the labium majus. As the gravid uterus grows out of pelvis during pregnancy, these ligaments will stretch, mostly during sudden movements, resulting in a sharp pain. Due to dextrorotation of uterus, which occurs commonly in pregnancy, the round ligament pain is experienced more frequently over the right side. Usually this pain improves by avoiding sudden movements, by rising and sitting down gradually, by the application of local heat and by using analgesics.As the patient is not experiencing any symptoms like fever or anorexia a diagnosis of appendicitis is not likely. Also in pregnant women appendicitis often presents as pain located much higher than the groin area as the growing gravid uterus pushes the appendix out of pelvis.
As the pain is localized to only one side of groin and is alleviated with a heating pad the diagnosis of preterm labor is unlikely. In addition, the pain would persist even at rest and not with just movement in case of labor.
As the patient has not reported of any urinary symptoms diagnosis of urinary tract infection is unlikely.
Kidney stones usually presents with pain in the back and not lower in the groin. In addition, with a kidney stone the pain would occur not only with movement, but would persist at rest as well. So a diagnosis of kidney stone is unlikely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she plans to get pregnant soon. However, she is worried about how she should change her diet once she becomes pregnant already.
Which of the following is considered the best to give to the patient in addition to giving folic acid?Your Answer: Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: Iodine
Explanation:There is evidence that folic acid, iodine and vitamin D are important for reproductive outcomes. Folic acid and iodine supplementation is recommended for women planning to conceive and in pregnancy.
The recommended dose of folic acid for women without special considerations planning to conceive is 400-500 mcg. The recommended dose of folic acid for women with special considerations is 2-5 mg per day.
Women planning a pregnancy, including those with thyroid disease, should take iodine supplements in the dose of 150 mcg per day prior to and during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old lady comes to your office complaining of unpredictable vaginal bleeding for the past four months since starting to take combined oral contraceptive tablets (Microgynon 30). She engages in sexual activity and uses condoms to prevent sexually transmitted illnesses.
Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?Your Answer: She should continue the same oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: She should switch to a new combined pill with ethinylestradiole 50mcg
Explanation:Evidence is not yet of sufficient quality for there to be evidence-based guidelines or recommendations. Having excluded other causes:
Reassure patients that breakthrough bleeding is a common side-effect of CHC and usually resolves after three cycles of use.
Advise women who smoke that stopping smoking may improve cycle control.
If bleeding persists after three cycles, consider changing formulation:
Increase dose of oestrogen, particularly if on a 20-microgram ethinylestradiol (EE) preparationAll other options are not acceptable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old woman presents with a complaint of blood-stained vaginal discharge.
On speculum examination, her ectocervix and vagina show signs of atrophy.
No evidence of malignant cells is seen on cervical cytology, although no endocervical cells were visualised.
Choose the most suitable next step for management of this patient.
Your Answer: Ultrasound assessment of endometrial thickness.
Correct Answer: Hysteroscopy and dilatation and curettage
Explanation:Diagnostic hysteroscopy with dilatation and curettage (D&C) is the most suitable step for immediate management of this patient (correct answer). This would aid in determining if an endometrial lesion exists and enable histologic examination of any endometrium that may be present.
Assessment of endometrial thickness via ultrasound examination is commonly used to decide if a patient requires D&C. In postmenopausal women, an endometrial thickness of more than 4mm indicates need for D&C.However, this method is more beneficial in younger postmenopausal women. In women who are 70 years or older, postmenopausal bleeding should be considered to be due to a malignancy until confirmed otherwise.
In this patient, a vaginal swab for culture or a colposcopy would not be appropriate.
Similarly, laparoscopy is not indicated unless the bleeding continued despite a normal hysteroscopy and D&C.
If the endometrial thickness is less than 4mm, a malignancy is less likely to be present; however, the risk cannot be completely excluded.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Correct
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The most common aetiology for spontaneous abortion of a recognized first trimester gestation:
Your Answer: Chromosomal anomaly in 50-60% of gestations
Explanation:Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of first trimester miscarriage and are detected in 50-85% of pregnancy tissue specimens after spontaneous miscarriage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Correct
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Question 29
Correct
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A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for antenatal follow-up.
On examination, the fundal height is found to be18 cm.
which among the following would be the best next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Perform an ultrasound scan
Explanation:At 12 weeks gestation the fundus is expected to be palpable above the pubis symphysis and it is expected to be felt at the level of umbilicus by 20 weeks. Though the uterine fundus stands in between from 12 and 20 weeks, the height of the fundus in centimeters is equivalent to the weeks of pregnancy after 20 weeks.
For 14-week pregnant uterus a fundal height of 18cm is definitely large and dating errors is considered as the most common cause for such a discrepancy. Hence, it is better to perform an ultrasound scan for more accurately estimating the gestational age. Also if the case is not a simple dating error, ultrasonography can provide definitive additional information about other possible conditions such as polyhydramnios, multiple gestation, etc that might have led to a large-for-date uterus.
A large-for-gestational-age uterus are most commonly found in conditions like:
– Dating errors which is the most common cause
– Twin pregnancy
– Gestational diabetes
– Polyhydramnios
– Gestational trophoblastic disease, also known as molar pregnancy -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the fetal head is true?
Your Answer: Can be delivered vaginally in persistent occipito-mental presentation
Correct Answer: Considered to be engaged when the biparietal diameter passes the level of the pelvic inlet
Explanation:The fetal head is engaged when the head of the foetus or the presenting part enters the pelvic inlet or pelvic brim. It usually occurs at 38 weeks of gestation.
The Spalding sign refers to the overlapping of the fetal skull bones caused by collapse of the fetal brain. It appears usually a week or more after fetal death in utero.
In brow presentation the scalp is deflexed as the foetus is looking upward. Normally the head is inflexed such that the chin is touching the chest. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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