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  • Question 1 - You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to the proximal medial thigh following abdominal hysterectomy. You suspect genitofemoral nerve injury. What spinal segment(s) is the genitofemoral nerve derived from?

      Your Answer: T12,L1

      Correct Answer: L1,L2

      Explanation:

      The genitofemoral nerves takes its origin from the L1 and L2 spinal segments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following statements regarding the Vaginal artery is typically TRUE? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding the Vaginal artery is typically TRUE?

      Your Answer: It arises from the Internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The Vaginal artery, like the Uterine artery is typically a branch of the Internal Iliac artery. It can sometimes arise as a branch of the Uterine artery so it is important to read the question (if the stem stated it CAN arise from the Uterine artery then that would be true)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old female patient comes to your office complaining of a foul-smelling grey...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old female patient comes to your office complaining of a foul-smelling grey vaginal discharge. Bacteria adhering to vaginal epithelial cells are visible under light microscopy using a wet mount preparation.

      Which of the following creatures is most likely to be a pathogen?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Gardnerella vaginalis is one of the bacteria implicated in the development of bacterial vaginosis , many women (>50%) with this vaginal infection have no signs or symptoms, when these are present they are most often :
      Vaginal discharge, grey, white or green, with a strong unpleasant odour
      Strong vaginal odour and fishy smell after sex
      Vaginal itching
      Burning during urination
      Vaginal bleeding after sex
      Gardnerella vaginalis can also be responsible for serious infections (sepsis, wound infections) in locations other than those associated with the genital tract or obstetrics, these cases are very rare but have been reported, including in men.

      Mycoplasma Hominis is one of the organisms involved in the pathogenesis of BV but it appears normal on wet mount.

      Candida presents with white cottage cheese like discharge.

      Chlamydia is not seen on wet mount and produces clear vaginal discharge.

      Trichomonas shows clue cells on wet mount.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by: ...

    Correct

    • The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by:

      Your Answer: Chromosomal analysis (Karyotyping)

      Explanation:

      Standard karyotyping is the best confirmatory test for the diagnosis of Turner syndrome among patients who have some doubtful clinical presentations. It is done on peripheral blood mononuclear cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Physiological changes in the reproductive system include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Physiological changes in the reproductive system include:

      Your Answer: Lower segment of the uterus will be formed in the 1st trimester

      Correct Answer: The uterus 1st enlarges by hyperplasia then by hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Although uterine growth during the first few weeks of pregnancy is accomplished by increased numbers of smooth muscle cells (i.e. hyperplasia) and a smaller contribution from increased cell size (i.e. hypertrophy), the predominant growth of the uterus during pregnancy is by way of stretch‐induced myometrial hypertrophy. This ongoing process of stretch‐induced tissue remodelling and smooth muscle hypertrophy is accompanied by the lack of uterine contractions during most of gestation to accommodate the developing foetus (phase 0 of parturition). Phase 1 of parturition represents myometrial activation. The final stages of pregnancy are characterized by increases in spontaneous low‐amplitude contractions that gradually increase in frequency, rhythmicity and strength, normally culminating in labour and delivery of the foetus at term (phase 2 of parturition).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved into chromosomes and pulled apart?

      Your Answer: Telophase

      Correct Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      Mitosis is the process during which cell division occurs. It is divided into 4 stages:
      – The first stage is the prophase during which the chromosomes condense, mitotic spindles form and the chromosomes pair which each other.
      – The second stage is the metaphase during which the chromatids align at the equatorial plane.
      – The third stage is the anaphase during which the chromatids are separated into 2 daughter chromosomes.
      – The fourth phase is the telophase during which the chromatids decondense and a new nuclear envelop forms around the each of the daughter chromosomes. Cytokinesis is the process during which the cell cytoplasm divides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came for pre-pregnancy counselling. Which of the following is the most suitable advise for her?

      Your Answer: She should aim to have a pre-pregnancy HbA1c of <48 mmol/mol (6.5%)

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines women with type I diabetes, who are expecting a child should aim to keep their HbA1c level[1] below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) without causing problematic hypoglycaemia. Women with diabetes whose HbA1c level is above 86 mmol/mol (10%) should be strongly advised not to get pregnant because of the associated risks. The risks are higher with chronic diabetes. There is an increased risk to the foetus or mother due to diabetes in pregnancy. Women who are waiting to become pregnant should take folic acid (5 mg/day) until 12 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of having a baby with a neural tube defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Ulipristal is thought to prevent pregnancy by what primary mechanism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Ulipristal is thought to prevent pregnancy by what primary mechanism?

      Your Answer: Increased cervical mucus

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation

      Explanation:

      Ulipristal is a progesterone receptor modulator that is used up to 120 hours following unprotected intercourse. It inhibits ovulation. The dose is 30 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of...

    Correct

    • A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of a sudden gush of clear fluid.

      On Speculum examination, premature rupture of membranes is confirmed with closed cervix.

      In addition to transferring patient to a tertiary care, what is the most appropriate in the management of this case?

      Your Answer: Betamethasone

      Explanation:

      This patient who is at her 29 weeks of pregnancy, presented with sudden gush of clear fluid and Speculum examination has confirmed premature rupture of membrane (PROM).

      Approximately, 50% of PROM progress to labour within 24 hours and in the remaining, 80% within seven days. The most important next step of management in this case is transferring this patient to tertiary care hospital as soon as possible. It is equally important to give corticosteroid therapy, like Betamethasone, if delivery prior to 34 weeks is likely to occur, as it will help in fetal lung maturity.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is usually not available in general practice settings and it can be done only while in the hospital. If CTG shows any abnormality or if there is any presence of infection it is better to induce labor.

      Salbutamol and nifedipine are of no use in this case, as the patient is not in labour and does not require tocolytics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following organisms causes toxoplasmosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organisms causes toxoplasmosis?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasma Gondii

      Explanation:

      Toxoplasma gondii, an intracellular protozoan, is the main causative agent for Toxoplasmosis. Though the primary host for the organism is the domestic cat, humans can become infected by eating undercooked meat of animals harbouring cysts, consuming water or food contaminated with cat faeces, or through maternal-fetal transmission. Toxoplasmosis can cause complications in pregnancy such as miscarriages and congenital infection which can lead to hydrocephalus, microcephaly, mental disability and vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the incubation period for Rubella? ...

    Correct

    • What is the incubation period for Rubella?

      Your Answer: 12-23 days

      Explanation:

      The incubation period of rubella is 12-23 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 24-year-old pregnant female presented with severe pain in the lower abdomen and...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old pregnant female presented with severe pain in the lower abdomen and excessive vaginal bleeding at 35 weeks gestation. Which of the following investigations should be done?

      Your Answer: US abdomen

      Explanation:

      Ultrasound of abdomen should be done to rule out the cause of the excessive bleeding in this patient, this could confirm the very high suspicion of rupture of the placenta in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids?

      Your Answer: Early menarche

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Risk factors of fibroids include early menarche, nulliparity, early exposure to oral contraceptives (one study showed 13-16 years old), diet rich in red meats and alcohol, vitamin D deficiency, hypertension, obesity, and/or history of sexual or physical abuse.

      Smoking is associated with actual reduced risk due to an unknown mechanism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior...

    Correct

    • Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior sagittal diameter, convergent sidewalls, prominent ischial spines, and narrow pubic arch?

      Your Answer: Android

      Explanation:

      There are four types pelvic shapes:
      1) Android pelvis: it has a larger inlet and smaller outlet along with small posterior sagittal diameter, prominent ischial spines and has a two finger arch.
      2) Gynecoid pelvis: it has a transverse or nearly a circular ellipse and it is the most favourable for delivery.
      3) Anthropoid pelvis: the brim is an anteroposterior ellipse.
      4) Platypelloid pelvis: in this type the pelvic brim is kidney shape

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old woman came in with a two-year history of amenorrhea and excessive...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman came in with a two-year history of amenorrhea and excessive facial hair growth. She had previously given birth to two children. FSH, LH, Prolactin, and oestrogen levels in the blood are all normal. The amount of testosterone in the blood is somewhat higher.
      More than 12 tiny cysts can be seen on a transvaginal pelvic ultrasonography.


      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      This patient has experienced polycystic ovarian syndrome-like symptoms.
      At least two out of three of the following criteria must be met to diagnose polycystic ovarian syndrome:
      1- Hyperandrogenism suggesting an excess of androgens e.g. excess hair growth, acne etc.
      2- Menstrual irregularities e.g. dysmenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, and amenorrhea.
      3-The ovaries are polycystic if one ovary has 12 or more follicles or if the size of one or both ovaries has risen.

      Low FSH, LH, and pituitary hormones are typically associated with hypothalamic dysfunction, however this is not the case here.
      Similarly, with premature ovarian failure, FSH/LH levels rise while oestrogen levels decrease.

      All of the other choices are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient is about to undergo an elective C-section. She wants to know...

    Correct

    • A patient is about to undergo an elective C-section. She wants to know how long it will take for her wound to completely heal.

      How much time does it take for healing by primary intention to reach full tensile strength?

      Your Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Wound healing typically undergoes different stages that include haemostasis, inflammation, proliferation and remodelling. The phases are often shortened when healing occurs by primary intention such as in a surgical wound. Remodelling, which is the major strengthening phase, takes about 3 weeks, while it takes a total of 12 weeks to reach maximum tensile strength.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal...

    Correct

    • Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?

      Your Answer: Foramen Ovale

      Explanation:

      Blood enters the right atrium of the fetal heart and most passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. From there it is pumped through the aorta. The foramen ovale is the major structure for bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation. Some of the blood in the right atrium does enters the right ventricle and then into the pulmonary artery however most of this passes through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta thus bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45 year old women is seen in clinic following hysteroscopy and biopsy...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old women is seen in clinic following hysteroscopy and biopsy due to irregular menstrual bleeding. Her BMI is 34 kg/m2. This shows atypical hyperplasia. Which of the following is the most appropriate 1st line management?

      Your Answer: Weight loss

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopic hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia is at high risk of progression to cancer and hysterectomy is indicated There is high risk of progression to cancer with endometrial hyperplasia with atypia and hysterectomy is indicated. Although weight loss would be beneficial this shouldn’t delay surgical management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as: ...

    Incorrect

    • Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as:

      Your Answer: Fibroid

      Correct Answer: Adenomyosis

      Explanation:

      Adenomyosis is a disorder characterised by the presence of endometrial glands deep within the myometrium. It presents with increasing severe secondary dysmenorrhoea and increased in the flow of menstrual blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A patient who is 36 weeks pregnant comes to see you as she...

    Correct

    • A patient who is 36 weeks pregnant comes to see you as she has developed tingling to the right lateral thigh over the past 3 weeks. On examination there are no skin changes and no muscle weakness. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meralgia Paraesthetica

      Explanation:

      Raised pressure with the pelvis can cause a number of nerve entrapment syndromes. This is entrapment of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (or lateral femoral cutaneous nerve) also known as Meralgia Paraesthetica. Pregnancy is a risk factor. Shingles can effect this nerve but the rash would usually present itself within 14days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old female patient visits you for a cervical cancer screening. You inform...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits you for a cervical cancer screening. You inform her that while Pap smears are no longer performed, Cervical Screening tests are done five times a year.

      She has a cervical screening test, which reveals that she has non-16/18 HPV and low-grade cytology alterations.

      What's would you do next?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy

      Correct Answer: Repeat cervical screening test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      Referral to an oncologist is not necessary since there is no established diagnosis of malignancy. All other options are unacceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve? ...

    Correct

    • Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?

      Your Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The pudenal nerves has three branches, namely the inferior rectal, perineal and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris. The perineal nerve has two branches: The superficial perineal nerve gives rise to posterior scrotal or labial (cutaneous) branches, and the deep perineal nerve supplies the muscles of the deep and superficial perineal pouches, the skin of the vestibule, and the mucosa of the inferior most part of the vagina. The inferior rectal nerve communicates with the posterior scrotal or labial and perineal nerves. The dorsal nerve of the penis or clitoris is the primary sensory nerve serving the male or female organ, especially the sensitive glans at the distal end.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following increases in pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following increases in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Th2

      Explanation:

      T-Helper cells type 2 increase during pregnancy. They secret cytokines IL-4,5,9,10 and 13.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30 year old women who is 24 weeks pregnant attends EPU due...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old women who is 24 weeks pregnant attends EPU due to suprapubic pain. Ultrasound shows a viable foetus and also a fibroid with a cystic fluid filled centre. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adenomyosis

      Correct Answer: Red degeneration of fibroid

      Explanation:

      Red degeneration of fibroids is one of 4 methods of fibroid degeneration. Although uncommon outside pregnancy it is thought to be the most common form of fibroid degeneration during pregnancy and typically occurs in the 2nd trimester. It is thought to arise from the fibroid outgrowing its blood supply and haemorrhagic infarction occurs. Ultrasound will typically show a localised fluid collection (blood) within the fibroid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11...

    Incorrect

    • A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11 months’ duration of infertility. On investigation, she is found to be ovulating, and her hysterosalpingogram is normal. On semen analysis, the following results were found:

      Semen volume 5mL (2-6 mL)
      Sperm count 1 million/mL * (>20 million)
      Motility 15% (>40%)
      Abnormal forms 95% (<60%)

      A second specimen three months later confirms the above results.

      Which would be the most suitable next step in management?

      Your Answer: Carry out insemination of the wife with donor sperm.

      Correct Answer: Carry out in vitro fertilisation (IVF) using intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI).

      Explanation:

      Achieving spontaneous pregnancy is rare in cases where a couple have been infertile with abnormal semen analysis (count <5million/mL and reduced motility), hence there is generally an indication for treatment. FSH injection usually would not be expected to improve the semen specimen. Rate of pregnancy would be much lower if at the time of intrauterine insemination, the total motile count is less 5 million. In this case, his count is 1 million. Pregnancy is likely to be achieved with donor sperm but as it would not contain the husband’s genetic material, it would be only considered later on once all other methods involving his own sperm have failed. Out of all the options, IVF would most likely result in a pregnancy, in which it allows the husband’s sperm to spontaneously fertilise the oocyte. Rate of pregnancy would roughly be 2% per treatment cycle. This rate would increase to roughly 20% if ISCI is also used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old primigravida was admitted to the hospital in active labor. On admission,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old primigravida was admitted to the hospital in active labor. On admission, her cervix was 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced. She received epidural anesthesia and proceeded to complete cervical dilation with fetal head at +3 station within a few hours. Patient who has been pushing for 4 hours is exhausted now and says she cannot feel her contractions, nor knows when to push because of the epidural anesthesia. Patient had no complications during the pregnancy and has no chronic medical conditions. 
      Estimated fetal weight by Leopold maneuvers is 3.4 kg (7.5 lb), patient's vital signs are normal and fetal heart rate tracing is category 1. Tocodynamometer indicates contractions every 2-3 minutes and a repeat cervical examination shows complete cervical dilation with the fetal head at +3 station, in the left occiput anterior position with no molding or caput. 

      Among the following, which is considered the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Apply uterine fundal pressure

      Correct Answer: Perform vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery

      Explanation:

      The period from attaining a complete cervical dilation of 10 cm to fetal delivery is considered as the second stage of labor. In the given case patient have achieved an excellent fetal descent to +3 due to her average-sized infant of 3.4 kg, suitable pelvis (no fetal molding or caput, suggesting no resistance against the bony maternal pelvis), and a favorable fetal position of left occiput anterior. 
      But with no further fetal descent the patient fulfills the following criterias suggestive of second-stage arrest like:
      ≥3 hours of pushing in a primigravida without an epidural or ≥4 hours pushing with an epidural, as in this patient
      OR
      ≥2 hours of pushing in a multigravida without an epidural or ≥3 hours pushing with an epidural.

      As continued pushing without any effect will lead to complications like postpartum hemorrhage, limiting the chances of spontaneous vaginal delivery, it is better to manage this case by operative vaginal delivery procedures like vacuum-assisted delivery, to expedite delivery. maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, and maternal conditions like hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, in which the Valsalva maneuver is not recommended are the other indications for performing an operative vaginal delivery.

      Fundal pressure is the technique were external pressure is applied to the most cephalad portion of the uterus, were the applied force is directed toward the maternal pelvis. The maneuver was not found to be useful in improving the rate of spontaneous vaginal deliveries.

      Epidurals will not arrest or affect spontaneous vaginal delivery rates, instead they just lengthen the second stage of labor. Also an appropriate analgesia is a prerequisite to use in operative vaginal delivery.

      Manual rotation of an infant to a breech presentation for breech vaginal delivery is called as internal podalic version. It is contraindicated in singleton deliveries due to the high risk associated with breech vaginal delivery in regards to neonatal mortality and morbidity.

      The ideal fetal head position in vaginal delivery is occiput anterior (OA) as the flexed head in this provides a smaller diameter and facilitates the cardinal movements of labor. The occiput posterior (OP) position, in contrast to OA, presents with a larger-diameter head due to the deflexed position. So the chance for spontaneous vaginal delivery will be decreased if fetal head is rotated to OP position.

      A lack of fetal descent after ≥4 hours of pushing in a primigravida with an epidural (≥3 hours without) or ≥3 hours in a multigravida with an epidural (≥2 hours without) is defined as second stage arrest of labor.  The condition is effectively managed with operative vaginal delivery procedures like vacuum-assisted delivery. Other common indications for operative vaginal delivery are maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, and maternal conditions where the Valsalva maneuver is not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      58
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A lactating mother has developed a breast abscess. Which organism is the most...

    Correct

    • A lactating mother has developed a breast abscess. Which organism is the most common?

      Your Answer: Staph aureus

      Explanation:

      Staph aureus is the most common causative organism of skin and soft tissue infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Regarding female urinary tract infections, which organism is the most common causative agent?...

    Correct

    • Regarding female urinary tract infections, which organism is the most common causative agent?

      Your Answer: Escherichia Coli

      Explanation:

      The most common causative agent found in female urinary tract infections is Escherichia Coli. E. Coli is a bacteria found in the environment and the human gastrointestinal system. Other common causes of UTI include Klebsiella sp, Proteus sp and various Enterococci.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is:

      Your Answer: Twin-twin transfusion syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cord entrapment

      Explanation:

      Cord entanglement, a condition unique to MoMo pregnancies, occurs in 42 to 80% of the cases and it has been traditionally related to high perinatal mortality. Umbilical cord entanglement is present in all monoamniotic twins when it is systematically evaluated by ultrasound and colour Doppler. Perinatal mortality in monoamniotic twins is mainly a consequence of conjoined twins, twin reversed arterial perfusion (TRAP), discordant anomaly and spontaneous miscarriage before 20 weeks’ gestation. Expectantly managed monoamniotic twins after 20 weeks have a very good prognosis despite the finding of cord entanglement. The practice of elective very preterm delivery or other interventions to prevent cord accidents in monoamniotic twins should be re-evaluated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the half life of Ergometrine? ...

    Correct

    • What is the half life of Ergometrine?

      Your Answer: 30-120 minutes

      Explanation:

      Ergometrine has a half life of 30-120 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      20.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (4/5) 80%
Gynaecology (4/8) 50%
Embryology (2/2) 100%
Physiology (1/2) 50%
Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Clinical Management (1/5) 20%
Obstetrics (1/3) 33%
Microbiology (3/3) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Passmed