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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis had gained weight, developed resistant hypertension, muscle...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis had gained weight, developed resistant hypertension, muscle weakness, and ankle oedema. This patient is most likely suffering from what condition?

      Your Answer: Cushing's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Overuse of cortisol medication, as seen in the treatment of patients with chronic asthma or rheumatoid arthritis, can cause Cushing’s syndrome.

      Weight gain, thin arms and legs, a round face, increased fat around the base of the neck, a fatty hump between the shoulders, easy bruising, wide purple stretch marks primarily on the abdomen, breasts, hips, and under the arms, weak muscles, hirsutism, hypertension, erectile dysfunction, osteoporosis, frontal alopecia, acne, depression, poor wound healing, and polycythaemia are all clinical features of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 13-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with a heavy nosebleed. His...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with a heavy nosebleed. His medical record shows that he was diagnosed with Haemophilia B as a child.

      What is the mode of inheritance of this disease?

      Your Answer: X-linked recessive

      Explanation:

      Deficiency of Factor IX causes Haemophilia B, and like the other Haemophilia’s, it has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance, affecting males born to carrier mothers.

      Haemophilia B is the second commonest form of haemophilia and is rarer than haemophilia A. Haemophilia B is similar to haemophilia A but is less severe. You can distinguish the two disorders by specific coagulation factor assays.

      The incidence of Haemophilia B is one-fifth of that of haemophilia A.

      In laboratory findings, you get prolonged APTT, normal PT and low factor IX for Haemophilia B.

      There is also a variation called Leyden, in which factor IX levels are below 1% until puberty, when they rise, potentially reaching as high as 40-60% of normal. This is thought to be due to the effects of testosterone at puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 61-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm and jaw. An ECG is taken, and the lateral leads show extensive ST depression. His blood pressure is currently 190/123 mmHg, and as part of his treatment, you intend to begin drug therapy to lower it.

      Which of the following is the INITIAL drug treatment for this patient's BP reduction?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Correct Answer: Glyceryl trinitrate

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.

      In the presence of cardiac ischaemia, hypertensive emergencies require immediate treatment to prevent myocardial infarction.

      Similarly, if myonecrosis occurs in the presence of an existing infarction, prompt treatment is required to prevent further myonecrosis. When thrombolysis is used as the primary reperfusion therapy for acute myocardial infarction, blood pressure control is especially important.

      An intravenous nitrate is the drug of choice in this situation (e.g. GTN). These have a dual purpose in that they can help patients with ischaemic chest pain manage their symptoms. Because lowering blood pressure with nitrates isn’t always enough to achieve optimal results, intravenous beta-blockers are frequently used as a supplement. For this, intravenous atenolol and metoprolol are commonly used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Gallstones are commonly found lodged in which of the following parts of the...

    Correct

    • Gallstones are commonly found lodged in which of the following parts of the gallbladder?

      Your Answer: Neck

      Explanation:

      There is a significant association between the presence of Hartmann’s pouch and gallbladder stones. It is the most common location for gallstones to become lodged and cause cholestasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The lymph drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line is initially...

    Incorrect

    • The lymph drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line is initially to the:

      Your Answer: Deep inguinal nodes

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac nodes

      Explanation:

      Above the pectinate line, the anal canal drains to the internal iliac lymph nodes which subsequently drain to the lumbar (para-aortic) nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding Campylobacter gastroenteritis, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Campylobacter gastroenteritis, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: It is associated with the subsequent development of Reiter's syndrome.

      Correct Answer: Infection usually requires antibiotic treatment.

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter jejuni is the primary human pathogen, typically causing dysentery (bloody diarrhoea illness) following ingestion of contaminated meat, especially poultry. Infection is typically self-limiting and does not require antibiotic therapy. Campylobacter gastroenteritis is associated with the immune-mediated complications of Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis and Reiter’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old carpenter presented to the emergency room with a laceration of his...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old carpenter presented to the emergency room with a laceration of his upper volar forearm. Upon further exploration and observation, it was revealed that the nerve that innervates the pronator teres muscle has been damaged.

      Which of the following nerves is most likely damaged in the case?

      Your Answer: The median nerve

      Explanation:

      Pronator teres syndrome (PTS) is caused by a compression of the median nerve (MN) by the pronator teres (PT) muscle in the forearm.

      The median nerve, C6 and C7, innervates the pronator teres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      73.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient is diagnosed with a Klebsiella infection.
    Which SINGLE statement regarding Klebsiella infections...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is diagnosed with a Klebsiella infection.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding Klebsiella infections is true?

      Your Answer: Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis is a common cause of nocosomial infection in the U.K.

      Correct Answer: Klebsiella spp are an important cause of ventilator-associated pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Klebsiellais a genus of non-motile,Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteriawith a prominent polysaccharide-based capsule. They are routinely found in the nose, mouth and gastrointestinal tract as normal flora, however, they can also behave as opportunistic pathogens.
      Infections with Klebsiella spp. areusually nosocomial. They are an important cause of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), urinary tract infection, wound infection and bacteraemia. Outbreaks of infections with Klebsiellaspp. in high-dependency units have been described and are associated with septicaemia and high mortality rates. Length of hospital stay and performance of invasive procedures are risk factors forKlebsiellainfections.
      Primary pneumonia withKlebsiella pneumoniaeis a rare,severe, community-acquired infection associated with a poor outcome.
      Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis causes a progressive granulomatous infection of the nasal passages and surrounding mucous membranes. This infection is mainly seen in the tropics.
      Klebsiella ozanae is a recognised cause of chronic bronchiectasis.
      Klebsiella organisms are resistant to multiple antibiotics including penicillins. This is thought to be a plasmid-mediated property. Agents with high intrinsic activity againstKlebsiellapneumoniaeshould be selected for severely ill patients. Examples of such agents include third-generation cephalosporins (e.g cefotaxime), carbapenems (e.g. imipenem), aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin), and quinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin). These agents may be used as monotherapy or combination therapy. Aztreonam may be used in patients who are allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics.
      Species with ESBLs (Extended spectrum beta-lactamase) are resistant to penicillins and also cephalosporins such as cefotaxime and ceftriaxone
      .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The hypothalamus produces antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, which is a...

    Incorrect

    • The hypothalamus produces antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, which is a peptide hormone. It is important for maintaining water and electrolyte balance, as well helping control arterial pressure.

      To have an effect on blood arteries, ADH binds to which of the following receptors?

      Your Answer: V 2 receptor

      Correct Answer: V 1 receptor

      Explanation:

      ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, is a hormone that regulates water and electrolyte balance. It is released in response to a variety of events, the most important of which are higher plasma osmolality or lower blood pressure. ADH increases plasma volume and blood pressure via acting on the kidneys and peripheral vasculature.

      It causes vasoconstriction by binding to peripheral V1 Receptors on vascular smooth muscle via the IP3 signal transduction and Rho-kinase pathways. The systemic vascular resistance and arterial pressure rise as a result. High levels of ADH appear to be required for this to have a major impact on arterial pressure, such as in hypovolaemic shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      75.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 36-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto his back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that he has pain on hip extension, but normal hip abduction.

      Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?

      Your Answer: Gluteus maximus

      Explanation:

      The primary hip extensors are the gluteus maximus and the hamstrings such as the long head of the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus. The extensor head of the adductor magnus is also considered a primary hip extensor.

      The hip abductor muscle group is located on the lateral thigh. The primary hip abductor muscles include the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae.
      The secondary hip abductors include the piriformis, sartorius, and superior fibres of the gluteus maximus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The common bile duct drains into the duodenum in which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The common bile duct drains into the duodenum in which of the following regions:

      Your Answer: First part of the duodenum

      Correct Answer: Second part of the duodenum

      Explanation:

      As the common bile duct descends, it passes posterior to the first part of the duodenum before joining with the pancreatic duct from the pancreas, forming the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater) at the major duodenal papilla, located in the second part of the duodenum. Surrounding the ampulla is the sphincter of Oddi, a collection of smooth muscle which can open to allow bile and pancreatic fluid to empty into the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are calculating the anion gap on a patient with an acid-base disturbance...

    Incorrect

    • You are calculating the anion gap on a patient with an acid-base disturbance and you find the anion gap to be low. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the low anion gap:

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis

      Correct Answer: Hypoalbuminaemia

      Explanation:

      A low anion gap is frequently caused by hypoalbuminemia. Albumin is a negatively charged protein and its loss from the serum results in the retention of other negatively charged ions such as chloride and bicarbonate. As bicarbonate and chloride anions are used to calculate the anion gap, there is a subsequent decrease in the gap. The anion gap is sometimes reduced in multiple myeloma, where there is an increase in plasma IgG (paraproteinaemia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Approximately how long is the duration of a lidocaine block (when given with...

    Incorrect

    • Approximately how long is the duration of a lidocaine block (when given with adrenaline):

      Your Answer: 30 minutes

      Correct Answer: 90 minutes

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is a tertiary amine that is primarily used as a local anaesthetic but can also be used intravenously in the treatment of ventricular dysrhythmias.
      Lidocaine works as a local anaesthetic by diffusing in its uncharged base form through neural sheaths and the axonal membrane to the internal surface of the cell membrane sodium channels. Here it alters signal conduction by blocking the fast voltage-gated sodium channels. With sufficient blockage, the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron will not depolarise and will be unable to transmit an action potential, thereby preventing the transmission of pain signals.
      Each 1 ml of plain 1% lidocaine solution contains 10 mg of lidocaine hydrochloride. The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg/kg. When administered with adrenaline 1:200,000, the maximum safe dose is 7 mg/kg. Because of the risk of vasoconstriction and tissue necrosis, lidocaine should not be used in combination with adrenaline in extremities such as fingers, toes, and the nose.
      The half-life of lidocaine is 1.5-2 hours. Its onset of action is rapid within a few minutes, and it has a duration of action of 30-60 minutes when used alone. Its duration of action is prolonged by co-administration with adrenaline (about 90 minutes).
      Lidocaine tends to cause vasodilatation when used locally. This is believed to be due mainly to the inhibition of action potentials via sodium channel blocking in vasoconstrictor sympathetic nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following muscles acts as an extensor of the shoulder joint?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles acts as an extensor of the shoulder joint?

      Your Answer: Teres major

      Explanation:

      The glenohumeral joint possesses the capability of allowing an extreme range of motion in multiple planes.

      Flexion – Defined as bringing the upper limb anterior in the sagittal plane. The usual range of motion is 180 degrees. The main flexors of the shoulder are the anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis, and pectoralis major. Biceps brachii also weakly assists in this action.

      Extension—Defined as bringing the upper limb posterior in a sagittal plane. The normal range of motion is 45 to 60 degrees. The main extensors of the shoulder are the posterior deltoid, latissimus dorsi, and teres major.

      Internal rotation—Defined as rotation toward the midline along a vertical axis. The normal range of motion is 70 to 90 degrees. The internal rotation muscles are the subscapularis, pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, teres major, and the anterior aspect of the deltoid.

      External rotation – Defined as rotation away from the midline along a vertical axis. The normal range of motion is 90 degrees. Primarily infraspinatus and teres minor are responsible for the motion.

      Adduction – Defined as bringing the upper limb towards the midline in the coronal plane. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major are the muscles primarily responsible for shoulder adduction.

      Abduction – Defined as bringing the upper limb away from the midline in the coronal plane. The normal range of motion is 150 degrees. Due to the ability to differentiate several pathologies by the range of motion of the glenohumeral joint in this plane of motion, it is essential to understand how different muscles contribute to this action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Streptococcus pneumoniae is commonly implicated in all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT...

    Correct

    • Streptococcus pneumoniae is commonly implicated in all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Impetigo

      Explanation:

      Impetigo is a highly contagious infection of the superficial epidermis that most commonly affects young children but can occur in any age group. In children it is the most common bacterial skin infection and it is the third most common skin disease overall, behind dermatitis and viral warts.
      The commonest causative organism is Staphylococcus aureus. Streptococcus pyogenesis the second commonest and causes fewer cases, either alone or in combination withS. aureus.The streptococcal form tends to be commoner in warmer, more humid climates. (Hirschmann JV. Impetigo: etiology and therapy. Curr Clin Top Infect Dis. 2002;22:42–51.)
      Impetigo is most commonly spread by direct person-to-person contact, and can spread rapidly through families and school classes. It can also, less commonly, be spread by indirect contact.
      There are two main forms of impetigo:
      Non-bullous impetigo – lesions usually start as tiny pustules or vesicles that evolve rapidly into honey-crusted plaques that tend to be under 2 cm in diameter. These can be itchy but are rarely painful.
      Bullous impetigo – lesions have a thin roof and tend to rupture spontaneously. This type is more likely to be painful and may be associated with systemic upset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates gluteus medius.​
    The gluteus...

    Correct

    • A patient suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates gluteus medius.​
      The gluteus medius muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Superior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      Gluteus minimus is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.
      Gluteus medius is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.
      Gluteus maximus is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following microbes binds strongly to CD4 antigen: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following microbes binds strongly to CD4 antigen:

      Your Answer: HIV

      Explanation:

      HIV mainly infects CD4+ T helper cells. Viral replication results in progressive T-cell depletion and impaired cell-mediated immunity with subsequent secondary opportunistic infections and increased risk of malignancy. B-cell function is also reduced as a result of lack of T-cell stimulation.
      HIV is not a notifiable disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The least likely feature expected to be seen in a lesion of the...

    Incorrect

    • The least likely feature expected to be seen in a lesion of the frontal lobe is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Conjugate eye deviation towards side of lesion

      Correct Answer: Loss of two-point discrimination

      Explanation:

      Lesions in different areas give rise to different symptoms.
      Lesions of the parietal lobe give rise to loss of two-point discrimination.
      Lesions to Broca’s area give rise to expressive dysphasia results from damage
      Lesions to the primary motor cortex give rise to contralateral weakness of the face and arm.
      Lesions to the prefrontal cortex give rise to personality change.
      Lesions to the frontal eye field give rise to conjugate eye deviation towards side of lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old asthmatic patient is seen in the Emergency Department following an acute...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old asthmatic patient is seen in the Emergency Department following an acute exacerbation. His symptoms start to improve when your consultant gives him a high dose of IV aminophylline.

      Which of the following is correct mechanism of action of aminophylline ?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase

      Explanation:

      Aminophylline has the following properties:
      Phosphodiesterase inhibitor that increases intracellular cAMP and relaxes smooth muscle in the bronchial airways and pulmonary blood vessels.
      Mast cell stabilization is achieved by using a non-selective adenosine receptor antagonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      61.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You're examining a 58-year-old male who has cellulitis in his left leg. Because...

    Correct

    • You're examining a 58-year-old male who has cellulitis in his left leg. Because he is allergic to penicillin, you start him on erythromycin.

      Which of the following statements about erythromycin is correct?

      Your Answer: It can be used to treat Legionnaire’s disease

      Explanation:

      Bacteriostatic antibiotics include erythromycin and other macrolide antibiotics. They work by attaching to the bacterial ribosome’s 50S subunit, preventing translocation and thereby protein synthesis. Macrolide antibiotics are actively concentrated inside leukocytes and delivered to the infection site as a result.

      Erythromycin is an orally active antibiotic that can also be given intravenously. It is metabolized in the liver and eliminated in the bile and has a biological half-life of 1.5 hours.

      It has a similar antibacterial spectrum to benzylpenicillin (i.e., a narrow spectrum, primarily against Gram-positive pathogens) and can be used as a penicillin substitute in people who are allergic to penicillin.
      Erythromycin is unsuccessful in the treatment of meningitis because it does not penetrate the central nervous system well enough. It is efficient against a variety of unusual pathogens, unlike penicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch. Upon further physical examination, it was observed that her tongue deviates to the left-hand side. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and results showed that he was suffering a left-sided stroke.

      Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Correct Answer: Anterior spinal artery

      Explanation:

      Medial medullary syndrome is a form of stroke that affects the medial medulla of the brain. It is caused by a lesion in the medial part of the medulla, which is due to an infraction of vertebral arteries and/or paramedian branches of the anterior spinal artery.

      It is characterized by contralateral paralysis of the upper and lower limb of the body, a contralateral decrease in proprioception, vibration, and/or fine touch sensation, paresthesias or less commonly dysesthesias in the contralateral trunk and lower limb, and loss of position and vibration sense with proprioceptive dysfunction. Ipsilateral deviation of the tongue due to ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve damage can also be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      87.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with complaints of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with complaints of a red and painful left eye. Upon physical examination, it was noted that there is the presence of conjunctival erythema. A mucopurulent discharge and crusting of the lid was also evident. A diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis was made.

      According to the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following should NOT be a part of the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Give written patient information and explain red flags for an urgent review

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics should be prescribed routinely

      Explanation:

      The following are the NICE guidelines on the management of bacterial conjunctivitis:
      – Infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting illness that usually settles without treatment within 1-2 weeks. If symptoms persist for longer than two weeks they should return for review.
      – Seek medical attention urgently if marked eye pain or photophobia, loss of visual acuity, or marked redness of the eye develop.
      – Remove contact lenses, if worn, until all symptoms and signs of infection have completely resolved and any treatment has been completed for 24 hours.
      – Lubricant eye drops may reduce eye discomfort; these are available over the counter, as well as on prescription.
      – Clean away infected secretions from eyelids and lashes with cotton wool soaked in water.
      – Wash hands regularly, particularly after touching the eyes.
      – Avoid sharing pillows and towels.
      – It is not necessary to exclude a child from school or childcare if they have infective conjunctivitis, as mild infectious illnesses should not interrupt school attendance. An exception would be if there is an outbreak of infective conjunctivitis, when advice should be sought from the Health Protection Agency by the school.
      – Adults who work in close contact with others, or with vulnerable patients, should avoid such contact until the discharge has settled.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding NSAIDs, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding NSAIDs, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Selective inhibition of COX-1 is associated with less gastrointestinal intolerance.

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac is contraindicated in people with ischaemic heart disease.

      Explanation:

      Due to their increased risk of cardiovascular adverse events, coxibs and diclofenac are contraindicated in people with ischaemic heart disease, cerebrovascular disease, peripheral arterial disease and mild, moderate, or severe heart failure. Other NSAIDs are only contraindicated in people with severe heart failure. Selective inhibition of COX-2 is associated with less gastrointestinal intolerance. In single doses NSAIDs have analgesic activity comparable to that of paracetamol, therefore given their side effect profile, paracetamol is preferred, particularly in the elderly. Pain relief starts soon after taking the first dose and a full analgesic effect should normally be obtained within a week, whereas an anti-inflammatory effect may not be achieved (or may not be clinically assessable) for up to 3 weeks. Mefenamic acid has only very mild anti-inflammatory properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      • Pharmacology
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 53 year old women presents to the emergency room with a chronic...

    Correct

    • A 53 year old women presents to the emergency room with a chronic cough. The pulmonary receptors likely to be involved in causing her cough are:

      Your Answer: Irritant receptors

      Explanation:

      Throughout the airways, there are irritant receptors which are located between epithelial cells which are made of rapidly adapting afferent myelinated fibres in the vagus nerve. A cough is as a result of receptor stimulation located in the trachea, hyperpnoea is as a result of receptor stimulation in the lower airway. Stimulation may also result in reflex bronchial and laryngeal constriction. Many factors can stimulate irritant receptors. These include irritant gases, smoke and dust, airway deformation, pulmonary congestion, rapid inflation/deflation and inflammation. Deep augmented breaths or sighs seen every 5 – 20 minutes at rest are due to stimulation of these irritant receptors. This reverses the slow lung collapse that occurs in quiet breathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding Helicobacter pylori, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Helicobacter pylori, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: It is found as part of normal colonic flora.

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pyloriis a Gram-negative, helix shaped (curved rod), microaerophilic bacterium. It typically has 4-6 lophotrichous flagellae and is therefore highly motile. It has an outer membrane consisting of phospholipids and lipopolysaccharide.
      Helicobacter pyloriIs found in the upper gastrointestinal tract of approximately 50% of the population.
      Colonization withHelicobacter pyloriconfers a 10-20% lifetime risk of developing peptic ulcers and a 1-2% lifetime risk of developing gastric cancer.
      There is a strong association between mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma andHelicobacter pyloricolonization.
      The most reliable method for testing for colonization withHelicobacter pyloriis by biopsy during endoscopy and histological examination.
      Typically eradication requires a 14-day course of triple therapy with amoxicillin, clarithromycin and a proton pump inhibitor. Metronidazole is also often used as an alternative antibiotic in a triple therapy regime.
      Serum antibody levels fall slowly and therefore cannot be used to accurately assess eradication. Either of the 13C-urea breath test or the stool antigen test are viable options for assessing successful eradication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A patient presents with increased breathlessness and worsening of his chronic cough and....

    Correct

    • A patient presents with increased breathlessness and worsening of his chronic cough and. He has a chronic lung disorder and is on long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT). Which of these is an indication for LTOT?

      Your Answer: A non-smoker with COPD and a PaO2 of 7.5 kPa when stable with secondary polycythaemia

      Explanation:

      Long-term administration of oxygen, usually at least 15 hours daily, improves survival in COPD patients who have severe hypoxaemia.

      Long-term oxygen therapy should be considered in:

      A non-smoker with COPD and a PaO2<7.3 kPa when stable

      A non-smoker with COPD and PaO27.3–8 kPa when stable and with secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or evidence of pulmonary hypertension

      Severe chronic asthma with PaO2<7.3 kPa or persistent disabling breathlessness

      A patient with Interstitial lung disease with PaO2<8 kPa and in patients with PaO2>8 kPa with disabling dyspnoea

      A patient with cystic fibrosis when PaO2<7.3 kPa or if PaO27.3–8 kPa in the presence of secondary polycythaemia, nocturnal hypoxaemia, pulmonary hypertension, or peripheral oedema

      Pulmonary hypertension, without parenchymal lung involvement when PaO2<8 kPa

      Neuromuscular or skeletal disorders, after specialist assessment

      Obstructive sleep apnoea despite continuous positive airways pressure therapy, after specialist assessment

      Pulmonary malignancy or other terminal disease with disabling dyspnoea

      Heart failure with daytime PaO2<7.3 kPa when breathing air or with nocturnal hypoxaemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      42.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following pathogens is most likely to cause an infection in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pathogens is most likely to cause an infection in a chemo patient with significant neutropenia?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Correct Answer: Candida

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy that is too aggressive weakens your immune system, putting you at risk for a fungal and many other infection.

      Neutropenia is a condition in which a person’s neutrophil count is abnormally low. Neutrophils are an infection-fighting type of white blood cell. Neutrophils fight infection by killing bacteria and fungi (yeast) that infiltrate the body.

      Fungal organisms are significant pathogens in the setting of neutropenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You contact the intensive care outreach team to inquire about a severely hypotensive...

    Incorrect

    • You contact the intensive care outreach team to inquire about a severely hypotensive resuscitated patient. They make the decision to start a dopamine infusion.

      Dopamine primarily has which of the following effects at high doses (>15 g/kg/min)?

      Your Answer: Beta-adrenergic stimulation

      Correct Answer: Alpha-adrenergic stimulation

      Explanation:

      Dopamine is a catecholamine that occurs naturally and is used to treat low cardiac output, septic shock, and renal failure. It is both adrenaline and noradrenaline’s immediate precursor.

      Dopamine acts on D1 and D2 dopamine receptors in the renal, mesenteric, and coronary beds at low doses (1-5 g/kg/min). Dopamine causes a significant decrease in renal vascular resistance and an increase in renal blood flow at these doses. Within this dose range, it is also involved in central modulation of behaviour and movement.

      Dopamine stimulates beta- and alpha-adrenergic receptors directly and indirectly at higher doses. Beta-stimulation predominates at a rate of 5-10 g/kg/min, resulting in a positive inotropic effect that increases cardiac output and coronary blood flow. Alpha-stimulation predominates at infusion rates greater than 15 g/kg/min, resulting in peripheral vasoconstriction and an increase in venous return and systolic blood pressure.

      Because clearance varies greatly in critically ill patients, plasma concentrations cannot be predicted reliably from infusion rates.
      Dopamine is given as an intravenous infusion, and because extravasation can cause tissue necrosis and sloughing, a central line is usually used (especially at higher doses >240 g/min). In an emergency, however, dopamine can be administered through a large vein (cephalic or basilic) while a central line is being prepared. Alkaline intravenous solutions inactivate it, so sodium bicarbonate should not be infused with it.

      The following are the most common dopamine side effects:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Tachycardia
      Dysrhythmias
      Angina
      Hypertension

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 20-year-old male who is a known patient of sickle cell disease presents...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male who is a known patient of sickle cell disease presents to the Emergency Room with a sustained erection that is extremely painful.

      Out of the following clinical syndromes, which one does this patient most likely have?

      Your Answer: Priapism

      Explanation:

      Sickling of red blood cells can lead to several different clinical syndromes. If the sickling occurs in the corpora cavernosa, it can lead to a sustained, painful erection of the penis, referred to as priapism. One of the complications is long-term impotence. It is important to seek a urological opinion immediately in this case, but in the interim, treat with perineal ice packs and walk up and down the stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An 11-year-old girl presents with a 5-day history of persistent fever despite regular...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old girl presents with a 5-day history of persistent fever despite regular paracetamol, throbbing left ear pain, ear discharge and deafness. Her parents have observed that she is not her usual self, not eating well, and has been lethargic. On examination there is a tender swelling in the post auricular region on the left hand side.

      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Acute mastoiditis is a complication (rare) of acute otitis media (AOM) and the commonest causative organism is Streptococcus pneumoniae.

      Generally, acute mastoiditis presents with:
      Pyrexia
      Recent history of AOM
      Mastoid swelling and erythema
      Otalgia
      Otorrhoea and perforation of tympanic membrane
      Post-auricular pain
      Protrusion of the ears

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      21.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Physiology (2/4) 50%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Pathology (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (3/7) 43%
Abdomen And Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (5/9) 56%
Abdomen (0/2) 0%
Microbiology (3/7) 43%
Pathogens (2/3) 67%
Upper Limb (2/2) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (0/3) 0%
Renal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (2/2) 100%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Anaesthesia (0/1) 0%
Principles (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (0/2) 0%
Respiratory Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Infections (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Immune Responses (0/1) 0%
Passmed