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  • Question 1 - Blood supply to the posterior compartment of the thigh is supplied by which...

    Correct

    • Blood supply to the posterior compartment of the thigh is supplied by which artery?

      Your Answer: Perforating

      Explanation:

      There are usually 3 perforating arteries:

      The first gives branches to the adductor brevis and magnus, biceps femoris and gluteus maximus and anastomoses with the inferior gluteal, medial and lateral femoral circumflex.

      The second artery supplies the posterior femoral muscles and anastomose with the first and third perforating vessels.

      The third supplies the posterior femoral muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following diseases is caused by intra-articular and/or extra-articular deposition of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following diseases is caused by intra-articular and/or extra-articular deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystals, due to unknown causes?

      Your Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout or chondrocalcinosis is a rheumatological disease caused by the accumulation of crystals of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) in the connective tissues. It is frequently associated with other conditions, such as trauma, amyloidosis, gout, hyperparathyroidism and old age, which suggests that it is secondary to degenerative or metabolic changes in the tissues. The knee is the most commonly affected joint. It causes symptoms similar to those of rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 18 year-old with an iron deficient diet was prescribed an iron supplement...

    Correct

    • An 18 year-old with an iron deficient diet was prescribed an iron supplement by her GP. Lack of iron often results in:

      Your Answer: Hypochromic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia is the most common type of anaemia. It can occur due to deficiency of iron from decreased intake, increased loss or inadequate absorption. An MCV less than 80 will indicated iron deficiency anaemia. On the smear the RBCs will be microcytic hypochromic and will also show poikilocytosis. Iron profile tests are important to make a diagnosis. Clinically the patient will be pale and lethargic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein?

      Your Answer: Left suprarenal

      Explanation:

      The left suprarenal vein empties into the left renal vein which crosses the vertebral column to reach the inferior vena cava. The left renal vein also receives the left gonadal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What will the destruction of endoplasmic reticulum stop? ...

    Correct

    • What will the destruction of endoplasmic reticulum stop?

      Your Answer: Synthesis of proteins

      Explanation:

      The rough endoplasmic reticulum is the factory for the manufacturing of proteins. It contains ribosomes attached to it and transports proteins that are destined for membranes and secretions. The rough ER is connected to the nuclear envelope and to the cisternae of the Golgi apparatus by vesicles that shuttle between the two compartments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which organ is responsible for the secretion of enzymes that aid in digestion...

    Correct

    • Which organ is responsible for the secretion of enzymes that aid in digestion of complex starches?

      Your Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      α-amylase is secreted by the pancreas, which is responsible for hydrolysis of starch, glycogen and other carbohydrates into simpler compounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year old gentleman presents with diarrhoea for two weeks. He has no...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old gentleman presents with diarrhoea for two weeks. He has no history of fever and the diarrhoea stops on fasting. Which is the most likely type of diarrhoea that he is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Osmotic

      Explanation:

      The different types of diarrhoea are:

      1. Secretory diarrhoea – Due to increased secretion or decreased absorption. There is minimal to no structural damage in this type. The most common cause is cholera toxin which stimulates secretion of anions (especially chloride), with sodium and water.

      2. Osmotic diarrhoea – Due to increased osmotic load, there is water loss. This occurs in cases of maldigestion syndromes, such as coeliac or pancreatic disease.

      3. Motility-related diarrhoea – Occurs in cases of abnormal gastrointestinal motility. Due to increased motility, there is poor absorption and this leads to diarrhoea. This is seen post-vagotomy or in diabetic neuropathy.

      4. Inflammatory diarrhoea – Due to damage to the mucosa or brush border, there is a loss of protein-rich fluids and poor absorption. Features of all the above three types can be seen in this type. Aetiology includes bacterial, viral, parasitic infections or autoimmune problems including inflammatory bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year old gentleman presented to the doctor with worsening dysphagia for both...

    Correct

    • A 55-year old gentleman presented to the doctor with worsening dysphagia for both solids and liquids over 6 months. This was associated with regurgitation of undigested food and occasional chest pain. Barium swallow revealed distal oesophageal dilatation with lack of peristalsis in the distal two-third oesophagus. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Achalasia is an oesophageal motility disorder where inappropriate contractions in the oesophagus lead to reduced peristalsis and failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax properly in response to swallowing. Classical triad of symptoms include dysphagia to fluids followed by solids, chest pain and regurgitation of undigested food. Other symptoms include belching, hiccups, weight loss and cough. Diagnosis is by:

      – X-ray with a barium swallow or oesophagography : narrowing at the gastroesophageal junction (‘bird/parrot beak’ or ‘rat tail’ appearance) and various degrees of mega-oesophagus (oesophageal dilatation) as the oesophagus is gradually stretched by retained food. Effectiveness of treatment can be measured with a 5-minute timed barium swallow.

      – Manometry – probe measures the pressure waves in different parts of oesophagus and stomach while swallowing.

      – Endoscopy

      – CT scan to exclude other causes like malignancy

      – Pathological examination showing defect in the nerves which control oesophageal motility (myenteric plexus).

      In Chagas disease, there is destruction of ganglion cells by Trypanosoma cruzi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The periphery of a haematoma is infiltrated by fibroblasts, collagen and new vasculature....

    Incorrect

    • The periphery of a haematoma is infiltrated by fibroblasts, collagen and new vasculature. This process is best described as?

      Your Answer: Recanalization

      Correct Answer: Organisation of the haematoma

      Explanation:

      Formation of granulation tissue at the periphery of the hematoma is a normal process leading to resolution. This granulation tissue is composed of new capillaries, fibroblasts and collagen. Lysis of a blood clot can occur, but the actual process of this response is known as organization, wherein the scar tissue will become part of the vessels. This is followed by recanalization and embolization which can lead to eventual complications. Proliferation of a clot will occur due to an imbalance in the clotting and lysing systems. Thrombosis has nothing to do with the process described above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A man came to the hospital complaining of a sensation of pins and...

    Correct

    • A man came to the hospital complaining of a sensation of pins and needles in the dorsum of the thumb and digits 1 and 2. On further examination they found that he had weakness in wrist dorsiflexion and finger extension. Which nerve do you think is injured in this case?

      Your Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve can be injured in multiple sites along its course in the upper limb, and each site has its own presentation. The major complaint is wrist drop which if high above the elbow, can cause numbness of the forearm and hand. It can last for several days or weeks. The most common site of compression for the radial nerve is at the proximal forearm in the area of the supinator muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe dehydration. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause severe dehydration and metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea is defined as having three or more loose or liquid stools per day, or as having more stools than is normal for that person. Severe diarrhoea, causing fluid loss and loss of bicarbonate, will result in marked dehydration and metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 40-year old lady with a flail chest due to trauma was breathing...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old lady with a flail chest due to trauma was breathing with the help of a mechanical ventilator in the ICU, and was heavily sedated on muscle relaxants. Due to sudden power failure, a nurse began to hand-ventilate the patient with a Ambu bag. What change will occur in the following parameters: (Arterial p(CO2), pH) in the intervening period between power failure and hand ventilation?

      Your Answer: Increase, Decrease

      Explanation:

      Respiratory acidosis occurs due to alveolar hypoventilation which leads to increased arterial carbon dioxide concentration (p(CO2)). This in turn decreases the HCO3 –/p(CO2) and decreases pH. Respiratory acidosis can be acute or chronic. In acute respiratory acidosis, the p(CO2) is raised above the upper limit of normal (over 45 mm Hg) with low pH. However, in chronic cases, the raised p(CO2) is accompanied with a normal or near-normal pH due to renal compensation and an increased serum bicarbonate (HCO3 – > 30 mmHg). The given problem represents acute respiratory acidosis and thus, will show a increase in arterial p(CO2) and decrease in pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What percentage of the cardiac output is delivered to the brain? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of the cardiac output is delivered to the brain?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Among all body organs, the brain is most susceptible to ischaemia. Comprising of only 2.5% of total body weight, the brain receives 15% of the cardiac output. Oxygen extraction is also higher with venous oxygen levels approximating 13 vol%, and arteriovenous oxygen difference of 7 vol%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion...

    Correct

    • Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion in the:

      Your Answer: Pons

      Explanation:

      Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep, as the summed activity of the brain’s neurons is quite similar to that during waking hours. Characterised by rapid movements of the eyes, most of the vividly recalled dreams occur during this stage of sleep. The total time of REM sleep for an adult is about 90–120 min per night.

      Certain neurones in the brainstem, known as REM sleep-on cells, which are located in the pontine tegmentum, are particularly active during REM sleep and are probably responsible for its occurrence. The eye movements associated with REM are generated by the pontine nucleus with projections to the superior colliculus and are associated with PGO (pons, geniculate, occipital) waves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - In order to arrest sudden bleeding during pericardiectomy that started after accidental injury...

    Correct

    • In order to arrest sudden bleeding during pericardiectomy that started after accidental injury to a major vasculature in the pericardium; the surgeon inserted his left index finger through the transverse pericardial sinus, pulled forward on the two large vessels lying ventral to his finger, and compressed these vessels with his thumb to control the bleeding. Which vessels were these?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary trunk and aorta

      Explanation:

      Transverse pericardial sinus: located behind two great vessels (aorta and pulmonary trunk) and in front of the superior vena cava and is accessed from above as in this case. The brachiocephalic trunk is located above the pericardium and the right pulmonary artery is above the pericardial reflections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year old patient with altered bowl movement experienced the worsening of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year old patient with altered bowl movement experienced the worsening of shortness of breath and exertional chest pains over the course of 8 weeks. Examination shows pallor and jugular venous distension. Furthermore, a test of the stool for occult blood is positive. Laboratory studies show:

      Haemoglobin 7.4 g/dl

      Mean corpuscular volume 70 fl Leukocyte count 5400/mm3

      Platelet count 580 000/mm3 Erythrocyte sedimentation 33 mm/h

      A blood smear shows hypochromic, microcytic RBCs with moderate poikilocytosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia is the most common type of anaemia. It can occur due to deficiency of iron due to decreased intake or due to faulty absorption. An MCV less than 80 will indicated iron deficiency anaemia. On the smear the RBC will be microcytic hypochromic and will also show piokilocytosis. iron profiles tests are important to make a diagnosis. Clinically the patient will be pale and lethargic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      149.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35 year-old man presents with high grade fever for 7 days after...

    Correct

    • A 35 year-old man presents with high grade fever for 7 days after returning from a trip to India. He tested positive for widal test. What is the most likely organism that caused his fever?

      Your Answer: Salmonella typhi

      Explanation:

      Typhoid fever is caused by virulent bacteria called Salmonella typhi. Salmonella typhi spread through contaminated food or water and occasionally through direct contact with someone who is infected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - How much blood can the pulmonary vessels of a 45-year-old healthy man accommodate...

    Correct

    • How much blood can the pulmonary vessels of a 45-year-old healthy man accommodate when he is at rest?

      Your Answer: 500 ml

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary circulation is the portion of the cardiovascular system which carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart, to the lungs, and returns oxygenated blood back to the heart. The vessels of the pulmonary circulation are very compliant (easily distensible) and so typically accommodate about 500 ml of blood in an adult man. This large lung blood volume can serve as a reservoir for the left ventricle, particularly during periods when left ventricular output momentarily exceeds venous return.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a...

    Correct

    • A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg, with a drop in systolic pressure to 100 mm Hg on inhalation. This is known as:

      Your Answer: Pulsus paradoxus

      Explanation:

      Weakening of pulse with inhalation and strengthening with exhalation is known as pulsus paradoxus. This represents an exaggeration of the normal variation of the pulse in relation to respiration. It indicates conditions such as cardiac tamponade and lung disease. The paradox refers to the auscultation of extra cardiac beats on inspiration, as compared to the pulse. Due to a decrease in blood pressure, the radial pulse becomes impalpable along with an increase in jugular venous pressure height (Kussmaul sign). Normal systolic blood pressure variation (with respiration) is considered to be >10 mmHg. It is >100 mmHg in Pulsus paradoxus. It is also predictive of the severity of cardiac tamponade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A patient in the recovery ward after cardiac surgery is noticed to have...

    Correct

    • A patient in the recovery ward after cardiac surgery is noticed to have a small effusion in the lowest extent of the pleural cavity, into which no lung tissue extends. What is the name of this part of the pleural cavity?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the part of the pleural cavity where the costal pleura is in continuity with the diaphragmatic pleura. It forms the lowest extent of the pleural cavity.

      Costomediastinal recess: a tiny recess that is anteriorly located, where the costal pleura becomes continuous with the mediastinal pleura.

      The cupola is the pleural cavity that extends above the first rib.

      The inferior mediastinum refers to the posterior, middle and anterior mediastinal divisions together.

      The pulmonary ligament on the other hand, is a pleural fold that is situated beneath the root of the lung on the medial aspect of the lung.

      Oblique pericardial sinus is not part of the pleural cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the...

    Correct

    • A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the skin at the pubic region. Which nerve was most likely injured in the operation?

      Your Answer: Iliohypogastric

      Explanation:

      The iliohypogastric nerve comes from L1 and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of the psoas major. It then crosses obliquely in front of the quadratus lumborum to the iliac crest where it perforates the posterior part of transversus abdominis and divides between that muscle and the internal oblique into a lateral and an anterior cutaneous branch. This provides sensory innervation to the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh.

      The genitofemoral nerve also comes from the lumbar plexus that innervates the skin of the anterior scrotum or labia majora and upper medial thigh.

      The subcostal nerve is the ventral primary ramus of T12 providing sensory innervation to the anterolateral abdominal wall in an area superior to the pubic region.

      A spinal nerve owing to their deep location would not have been injured in the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The neurotransmitters adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine are derived from which amino acid? ...

    Incorrect

    • The neurotransmitters adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine are derived from which amino acid?

      Your Answer: Phenylalanine

      Correct Answer: Tyrosine

      Explanation:

      Tyrosine is the precursor to adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine. Tyrosine hydroxylase converts tyrosine to DOPA, which is in turn converted to dopamine, then to noradrenaline and finally adrenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - During an appendicectomy in a 16 year old girl, the registrar initially did...

    Correct

    • During an appendicectomy in a 16 year old girl, the registrar initially did not find the appendix on entering the peritoneal cavity. She, however, remained calm as she knew she could find it by:

      Your Answer: Looking at the confluence of the taenia coli

      Explanation:

      The vermiform appendix arises from the apex of the caecum. Although it has a constant base, it can pass in one of several directions such as upward behind the caecum, to the left behind the ileum and mesentery or downward into the lesser pelvis. It is retained in place by a peritoneal fold, the mesoenteriole derived from the left leaf of the mesentery. Taenia coli meet at the appendix which is the terminal portion of the caecum. The appendix is below the ileocecal valve, not above. It is not near the right colic artery (which supplies the ascending colon). It would not be found by removing a layer of the jejuno-ileum and is not in the pelvic brim.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be...

    Correct

    • Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be unaffected?

      Your Answer: S3

      Explanation:

      The inferior gluteal nerve arises from the dorsal divisions of the fifth lumbar and first and second sacral nerves. According to this fact any lesion at or below the S3 will not affect the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the...

    Correct

    • Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8)?

      Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      Latissimus dorsi is a triangular, flat muscle that covers the lumbar region and the lower half of the thoracic region. It is supplied by the sixth, seventh and eighth cervical nerves through the thoracodorsal (long subscapular) nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of these conditions causes haematuria, hypertension and proteinuria in children, usually after...

    Correct

    • Which of these conditions causes haematuria, hypertension and proteinuria in children, usually after a streptococcal infection?

      Your Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephritic syndrome (or acute nephritic syndrome) is a syndrome comprising of signs of nephritis. Children between 2 and 12 are most commonly affected, but it may occur at any age. Predisposing factors/causes include:

      Infections with group A streptococcal bacteria (acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis).

      Primary renal diseases: immunoglobulin A nephropathy, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, idiopathic rapidly progressive crescentic glomerulonephritis.

      Secondary renal diseases: subacute bacterial endocarditis, infected ventriculo–peritoneal shunt, glomerulonephritis with visceral abscess, glomerulonephritis with bacterial, viral or parasitic infections.

      Multisystem diseases.

      By contrast, nephrotic syndrome is characterized by only proteins moving into the urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What causes a reduction in pulmonary functional residual capacity? ...

    Incorrect

    • What causes a reduction in pulmonary functional residual capacity?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary functional residual capacity (FRC) is = volume of air present in the lungs at the end of passive expiration.

      Obstructive diseases (e.g. emphysema, chronic bronchitis, asthma) = an increase in FRC due to an increase in lung compliance and air trapping.

      Restrictive diseases (e.g. pulmonary fibrosis) result in stiffer, less compliant lungs and a reduction in FRC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The passage of leukocytes through the wall of the blood vessels is best...

    Correct

    • The passage of leukocytes through the wall of the blood vessels is best described by which of the following terms?

      Your Answer: Diapedesis

      Explanation:

      The steps involved in leukocyte arrival and function are:

      1. margination: cells migrate from the centre to the periphery of the vessel

      2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls

      3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes, interaction of these results in adhesion

      4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product

      5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The nasolacrimal duct is a membranous canal. It extends from the lower part...

    Correct

    • The nasolacrimal duct is a membranous canal. It extends from the lower part of the lacrimal sac and drains into which structure?

      Your Answer: Inferior meatus

      Explanation:

      The nasolacrimal duct carries tears from the lacrimal sac of the eye into the nasal cavity. The duct begins in the eye socket between the maxillary and lacrimal bones, from where it passes downwards and backwards. The opening of the nasolacrimal duct into the inferior nasal meatus of the nasal cavity is partially covered by a mucosal fold (valve of Hasner or plica lacrimalis). Excess tears flow through the nasolacrimal duct which drains into the inferior nasal meatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An explorative laparotomy is done on a 23 year old following a gunshot...

    Correct

    • An explorative laparotomy is done on a 23 year old following a gunshot abdominal injury through the right iliac fossa. It is found that the ileocolic artery is severed and the bullet had perforated the caecum. From which branch does the ileocolic artery originate?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Ileocolic artery branches off from the superior mesenteric artery. It then divides to give a superior and inferior branch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A chest x ray of a patient reveals loculated fluid in the right...

    Incorrect

    • A chest x ray of a patient reveals loculated fluid in the right chest, which can be easily aspirated if the needle is inserted through the body wall just above the 9th rib in the midaxillary line. Where is this fluid located?

      Your Answer: Costomediastinal recess

      Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.

      The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.

      Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.

      Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.

      The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of the following is likely to result in hematocolpos in a 12-year...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is likely to result in hematocolpos in a 12-year old girl?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Correct Answer: Imperforate hymen

      Explanation:

      Hematocolpos means accumulation of blood in vagina and hematometra is accumulation of blood in the uterus. These are most likely seen with an imperforate hymen; which is seen I 1 in 2000 females. If spontaneous resolution does not occur, treatment involves making a hole in the hymen to allow discharge of menstrual blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the...

    Incorrect

    • The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following statements regarding the blood– brain barrier is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It allows 5-hydroxytryptophan (5HT) to cross to a very limited degree

      Correct Answer: It breaks down in areas of brain that are infected

      Explanation:

      The blood–brain barrier is a membrane that controls the passage of substances from the blood into the central nervous system. It is a physical barrier between the local blood vessels and most parts of the central nervous system and stops many substances from travelling across it. During meningitis, the blood–brain barrier may be disrupted. This disruption may increase the penetration of various substances (including either toxins or antibiotics) into the brain. A few regions in the brain, including the circumventricular organs, do not have a blood–brain barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect: ...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect:

      Your Answer: Adduction of the humerus

      Correct Answer: Initiation of abduction of the humerus

      Explanation:

      This muscle arises from the medial two-thirds of the supraspinatus fossa and from the supraspinatus fascia. It is inserted into the highest impression on the greater tubercle of the humerus after passing over the upper part of the shoulder joint. It works with the deltoid to raise the arm from the side of the trunk and initiate abduction. It also assists in fixation of the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Mechanical distortion, and not K+ channels are responsible for distortion of which of...

    Correct

    • Mechanical distortion, and not K+ channels are responsible for distortion of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Pacinian corpuscle

      Explanation:

      Pacinian corpuscles are a type of mechanoreceptor, sensitive to deep pressure, touch and high-frequency vibration. The Pacinian corpuscles are ovoid and about 1 mm long. In the centre of the corpuscle is the inner bulb, which is a fluid-filled cavity with a single afferent unmyelinated nerve ending. Any deformation in the corpuscle causes the generation of action potentials by opening of pressure-sensitive sodium ion channels in the axon membrane. This allows influx of sodium ions, creating a receptor potential (independent of potassium channels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Severe abdominal pain radiating to the back, along with increased serum amylase levels,...

    Incorrect

    • Severe abdominal pain radiating to the back, along with increased serum amylase levels, is seen in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The primary test for diagnosis and monitoring of pancreatitis is amylase. Increased plasma levels of amylase can be found in: salivary trauma (including anaesthetic intubation), mumps, pancreatitis and renal failure. However, a rise in the total amylase levels over 10 times the upper limit of normal (ULN) is suggestive of pancreatitis; 5–10 times the ULN may indicate ileus or duodenal disease or renal failure. Lower levels are commonly found in salivary gland disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A swimmer was struggling to finish his training following an injury to his...

    Incorrect

    • A swimmer was struggling to finish his training following an injury to his right arm. On further examination it was found that any movements involving adduction, medial rotation and extension of her arm were particularly weak. Which nerve in this case was damaged?

      Your Answer: Accessory

      Correct Answer: Thoracodorsal

      Explanation:

      Weakness on these particular movements indicate that there is a problem with the latissimus dorsi muscle. This muscle is very important particularly in swimming movements and is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node...

    Incorrect

    • An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node metastasis. The doctor said he will excise the tumour and remove all axillary lymph nodes lateral to the edge of the pectoralis minor muscle. One of the following axillary lymph nodes won't be removed by this procedure. Which is it?

      Your Answer: Lateral

      Correct Answer: Apical

      Explanation:

      The apical lymph node group won’t be removed which include 20 to 30 lymph nodes.

      Axillary lymph nodes are grouped according to location. The lateral group, the anterior to pectoral group, the posterior or subscapular group, the central group, and the medial or apical group. The lateral, pectoral, and subscapular groups are found lateral to the pectoralis minor muscle. The central group is situated directly under that muscle. Thus, if all lymph nodes lateral to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle are removed, all the above four groups will be removed. The apical group won’t be removed which is situated medial to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Arterial blood gas analysis of a man admitted with acute exacerbation of chronic...

    Incorrect

    • Arterial blood gas analysis of a man admitted with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) showed the following: pH = 7.28, p(CO2) = 65.5 mmHg, p(O2)= 60 mmHg and standard bicarbonate = 30.5 mmol/l. This patient had:

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis with high p(CO2) and normal standard bicarbonate indicates respiratory acidosis, commonly seen in acute worsening of COPD patients. Respiratory acidosis occurs due to alveolar hypoventilation which leads to increased arterial carbon dioxide concentration (p(CO2)). This in turn decreases the HCO3 –/p(CO2) and decreases pH. In acute respiratory acidosis, the p(CO2) is raised above the upper limit of normal (over 45 mm Hg) with a low pH. However, in chronic cases, the raised p(CO2) is accompanied with a normal or near-normal pH due to renal compensation and an increased serum bicarbonate (HCO3 – > 30 mmHg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      37.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 5-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome developed generalised oedema. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome developed generalised oedema. What is the mechanism for the development of oedema in patients with nephrotic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Decreased protein intake

      Correct Answer: Decreased colloid osmotic pressure

      Explanation:

      The development of oedema in nephrotic syndrome has traditionally been viewed as an underfill mechanism. According to this view, urinary loss of protein results in hypoalbuminemia and decreased plasma oncotic pressure. As a result, plasma water translocates out of the intravascular space and results in a decrease in intravascular volume. In response to the underfilled circulation, effector mechanisms are then activated that signal the kidney to secondarily retain salt and water. While an underfill mechanism may be responsible for oedema formation in a minority of patients, recent clinical and experimental findings would suggest that oedema formation in most nephrotic patients is the result of primary salt retention. Direct measurements of blood and plasma volume or measurement of neurohumoral markers that indirectly reflect effective circulatory volume are mostly consistent with either euvolemia or a volume expanded state. The ability to maintain plasma volume in the setting of a decreased plasma oncotic pressure is achieved by alterations in transcapillary exchange mechanisms known to occur in the setting of hypoalbuminemia that limit excessive capillary fluid filtration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following will be a seen in a patient with a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following will be a seen in a patient with a plasma thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 14 mU/l (normal < 5 mU/l) and a low T3 resin uptake of 19% (normal 25–35%)?

      Your Answer: Tachycardia

      Correct Answer: Periorbital swelling and lethargy

      Explanation:

      Low T3 resin uptake combined with raised TSH is indicative of hypothyroidism. Signs and symptoms include dull expression, facial puffiness, lethargy, periorbital swelling due to infiltration with mucopolysaccharides, bradycardia and cold intolerance. Anxiety, palpitations, tachycardia, raised body temperature, heat intolerance and weight loss are all seen in hyperthyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      59
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pupil? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pupil?

      Your Answer: Phentolamine causes pupil constriction

      Explanation:

      A balance between the sympathetic tone to the radial fibres of the iris and parasympathetic tone to the pupillary sphincter muscle determines the pupil size. Phentolamine (α-adrenergic receptor blocker) causes pupillary constriction. Dilatation of the pupil occurs with increased sympathetic activity, decreased parasympathetic activity during darkness or block of muscarinic receptors by atropine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which of the following two cerebral veins join up to form the great...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following two cerebral veins join up to form the great cerebral vein, otherwise also known as the great vein of Galen?

      Your Answer: Striate veins

      Correct Answer: Internal cerebral veins

      Explanation:

      The great vein of Galen or great cerebral vein, is formed by the union of the internal cerebral veins and the basal veins of Rosenthal. This vein curves upwards and backwards along the border of the splenium of the corpus callosum and eventually drains into the inferior sagittal sinus and straight sinus at its anterior extremity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - As per the Poiseuille-Hagen formula, doubling the diameter of a vessel will change...

    Incorrect

    • As per the Poiseuille-Hagen formula, doubling the diameter of a vessel will change the resistance of the vessel from 16 peripheral resistance units (PRU) to:

      Your Answer: 2 PRU

      Correct Answer: 1 PRU

      Explanation:

      Poiseuille-Hagen formula for flow in along narrow tube states that F = (PA– PB) × (Π/8) × (1/η) × (r4/l) where F = flow, PA– PB = pressure difference between the two ends of the tube, η = viscosity, r = radius of tube and L = length of tube. Also, flow is given by pressure difference divided by resistance. Hence, R = 8ηL ÷ Πr4. Hence, the resistance of the vessel changes in inverse proportion to the fourth power of the diameter. So, if the diameter of the vessel is increased to twice the original, it will lead to decrease in resistance to one-sixteenth its initial value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 60 year-old patient being treated for hypertension presents to the ED with...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year-old patient being treated for hypertension presents to the ED with swelling of the left upper limb due to poor venous return. On examination, it is found that an aneurysm of the ascending aorta is impinging on a large vein lying immediately anterosuperior to it. Which vein is it likely to be?

      Your Answer: Right brachiocephalic

      Correct Answer: Left brachiocephalic

      Explanation:

      Among the veins listed, only the left brachiocephalic vein is anterosuperior to the ascending aorta. The right brachiocephalic vein being on the right side would not be affected by the aortic aneurysm.

      The azygos vein lies deep in the chest on the right side.

      The internal thoracic vein lies interior to the anterior wall of the chest.

      The left superior intercostal vein is close to the aortic arch, crossing it laterally. This vein drains the 2nd to 4th interspaces on the left side.

      The Right internal jugular vein joins the right brachiocephalic vein which would not be affected by the aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which muscle in the neck divides the neck into two large triangles? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle in the neck divides the neck into two large triangles?

      Your Answer: Trapezius

      Correct Answer: Sternocleidomastoid

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an important landmark in the neck as it divides the neck into two; anterior and posterior triangles. These triangles help in the location of the structures of the neck including the carotid artery, head and neck lymph nodes, accessory nerve and the brachial plexus. It originates from the manubrium and medial portion of the clavicle and inserts on the mastoid process of the temporal bone, superior nuchal line. The sternocleidomastoid receives blood supply from the occipital artery and the superior thyroid artery. It is innervated by the accessory nerve (motor) and cervical plexus (sensory).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A histological examination of a lump showed an abnormal amount and arrangement of...

    Incorrect

    • A histological examination of a lump showed an abnormal amount and arrangement of normal tissue in an otherwise normal area. This condition is known as?

      Your Answer: Carcinosarcoma

      Correct Answer: Hamartoma

      Explanation:

      A hamartoma is a condition best described as tissue normally present in an area arranged haphazardly in an disorganized, abnormal fashion. They are never malignant and do not metastasis.

      All the neoplastic, cancerous lesions comprise of a mixture of different cells that are not normal to that area.

      Metaplasia is a change in the type of the epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - During routine laboratory tests, a 66-year-old man is found to be suffering from...

    Incorrect

    • During routine laboratory tests, a 66-year-old man is found to be suffering from hypercholesterolaemia and is prescribed atorvastatin. What is the mechanism of action of atorvastatin?

      Your Answer: Inhibits VLDL synthesis

      Correct Answer: Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

      Explanation:

      Atorvastatin is a member of the drug class of statins, used for lowering cholesterol. The mode of action of statins is inhibition of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase. This enzyme is needed by the body to make cholesterol. The primary uses of atorvastatin is for the treatment of dyslipidaemia and the prevention of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A new-born was found to have an undeveloped spiral septum in the heart....

    Incorrect

    • A new-born was found to have an undeveloped spiral septum in the heart. This is characteristic of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Persistent truncus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      Persistent truncus arteriosus is a congenital heart disease that occurs when the primitive truncus does not divide into the pulmonary artery and aorta, resulting in a single arterial trunk. The spiral septum is created by fusion of a truncal septum and the aorticopulmonary spiral septum. Incomplete development of these septa results in incomplete separation of the common tube of the truncus arteriosus and the aorticopulmonary trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which nodes are most likely to be enlarged in a patient complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • Which nodes are most likely to be enlarged in a patient complaining of a boil located on the labia majora?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      The perineum, external genitalia, the labia majora and scrotum drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. In a man, the testes do not drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes but rather travel in the spermatic cord and drain into the lumbar nodes. The lumbar nodes drain the internal pelvic organs. The sacral nodes drain the prostrate gland, uterus, vagina, rectum and posterior pelvic wall and the external iliac nodes in turn drain the lower limb. The internal iliac nodes drain the pelvis and gluteal region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (18/18) 100%
Lower Limb (2/2) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Pathology (7/9) 78%
General (3/3) 100%
Physiology (20/22) 91%
Abdomen (3/3) 100%
Gastroenterology (4/4) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (2/3) 67%
Upper Limb (4/4) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (3/3) 100%
Respiratory (3/4) 75%
Cardiovascular (4/4) 100%
Neurology (3/3) 100%
Thorax (5/5) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (3/3) 100%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Passmed