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  • Question 1 - Which of the following findings is associated with genu valgus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following findings is associated with genu valgus?

      Your Answer: Metatarsus adductus

      Correct Answer: Out-toeing

      Explanation:

      Gait variations in children are usually physiologically normal and only become a cause of concern when they persist or are associated with pain or other medical symptoms. Genu varus, also known as knock knees causes an outward rotation of the leg, leading the toes pointing outwards. The condition usually resolves by the age of 18 months. In comparison, in- toeing occurs with genu varus. Metatarsus adductus is also associated with an inward pointing of the toes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.
    Given the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.
      Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?

      Your Answer: Growth hormone

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe dehydration. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause severe dehydration and metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Severe persistent vomiting

      Correct Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea is defined as having three or more loose or liquid stools per day, or as having more stools than is normal for that person. Severe diarrhoea, causing fluid loss and loss of bicarbonate, will result in marked dehydration and metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The following is true about the constituents of breast milk: ...

    Correct

    • The following is true about the constituents of breast milk:

      Your Answer: Main protein in breast-milk is whey, which is more digestible than cow’s milk protein casein.

      Explanation:

      Mature human breast milk is nutrient and enzyme rich, optimal for human infants. The average calorie requirement for a one month old infant is about 100kcal/kg/day. Lactose, the most abundant carbohydrate, is beneficial for the baby’s developing gastro intestinal system. The proteins in mature milk are mostly whey (as compared to a high proportion of casein in cows milk), which digests easily. Other proteins found in breast milk include immunoglobulin, lysozyme, lactoferrin and lactalbumin. In terms of micronutrients, while Vitamin K levels are low in breast milk, Vitamin A, C and E are found in higher concentrations than in cow’s milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 6 month old baby presents with a sausage-shaped abdominal mass and a...

    Correct

    • A 6 month old baby presents with a sausage-shaped abdominal mass and a history of green vomit a few hours earlier. The baby was born at 38 weeks of gestation and immigrated recently form the Philippines with his parents. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is the invagination of one segment of the intestine within a more distal segment. It presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, and a palpable abdominal mass.Intussusception usually affects infants between 6-18 months old. Boys are affected twice as often as girls

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 2 year old female was taken to her local emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 2 year old female was taken to her local emergency department with jerking movements in her limbs. This lasted for around 10 seconds, and then she fell unconscious. She soon regained consciousness - she was disorientated but afebrile with no symptoms of meningeal irritation. From the list of options, chose the most appropriate investigation route for this patient.

      Your Answer: 24 hour EEG

      Explanation:

      Many of the symptoms favour an epilepsy diagnosis: uncontrollable jerking of the limbs and a loss of consciousness. A 24-hour EEG is used to diagnose epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given...

    Incorrect

    • In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given the treatment experienced a side effect, compared to 0 out of the 25 patients given the placebo. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: The groups were not large enough to assess the efficacy of the new treatment

      Correct Answer: Fisher’s exact test should be used to compare the significance of the difference

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test would have been a useful test to compare the proportions in the scenario. However, due to the small sample size, Fisher’s exact test can be applied to analyse the significance of the difference. Adequate information is not given to determine what sample sizes were used to test the efficacy of the treatment, and to tell whether the treatment should be discontinued without further analysis on the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp wooden splinter sustaining a cut to his left shin. His immunisation history is up to date. In relation to tetanus prevention, select the most suitable management step.

      Your Answer: I.M 0.5 ml tetanus toxoid should be administered as single dose

      Correct Answer: No action is required

      Explanation:

      According to the US immunisation schedule, the child is immunised. So this boy does not need any extra immunisation for tetanus now.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      55.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 8 year old male child presents with pallor and patches of hyperpigmentation...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old male child presents with pallor and patches of hyperpigmentation found on his hands, feet, and mouth. He also saw fresh blood mixed with his stools. Although it has happened before, he doesn't know exactly when it began. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addison’s disease

      Correct Answer: Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

      Explanation:

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant genetic disease. It presents with hyperpigmentation patches on the oral mucosa, lips, palm and soles, and nasal alae. It also presents with hamartomatous polyps in the gut, hence the fresh blood in this particular case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      91
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 2-month-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency by his parents. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-month-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency by his parents. Which of the following would be a contraindication for the baby's discharge from the hospital?

      Your Answer: Lethargy and decreased consciousness

      Correct Answer: Any one of the above

      Explanation:

      Any 2-month-old child presenting with any of the above signs, should be assessed and have a history taken and physical examination made before discharge. As these may all be signs and symptoms for a condition requiring hospitalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - As the junior doctor on duty you are called to see a 4...

    Correct

    • As the junior doctor on duty you are called to see a 4 year old boy who is has been experiencing intermittent temperature spikes of 38.7C throughout the night. He underwent a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated appendix four days ago, and has opened his bowels with diarrhoea. His chest is clear on examination.Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his condition?

      Your Answer: Intra-abdominal collection

      Explanation:

      Perforated appendices are common in children as it is more difficult to surgically assess an unwell child due to poor localisation of abdominal pain, and their inability to express discomfort. They are therefore prone to a greater risk of post operative complications including would infections, intra abdominal fluid collections, and chest infections. In the above scenario the spiking temperature points to an abscess, which characteristically presents with a swinging temperature. The fever is unlikely due to bacterial resistance as blood tests performed post surgery would have indicated any resistance, and a UTI is also unlikely since the child is already on antibiotics. As his chest is clinically clear, a severe chest infection may be ruled out, leaving intra-abdominal collection as the most likely explanation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest examination reveals reduced breath sounds on one side. Radiological examination shows occlusion of the airway by an aspirated foreign body. The foreign body is most likely lodged in which of the following locations?

      Your Answer: Right superior lobar bronchus

      Correct Answer: Right mainstem bronchus

      Explanation:

      Foreign body aspiration (FBA) commonly occurs in children aged 1–3 years. FBA typically presents with sudden onset of coughing and choking, followed by stridor and dyspnoea. Obstruction of the larynx or trachea is a potentially life-threatening situation that causes severe respiratory distress, cyanosis, and suffocation. Most commonly, the foreign body (FB) becomes lodged in the main and intermediate bronchi| approx. 60% of FB are located in the right main bronchus due to the more vertical orientation compared to the left main bronchus. Reduced breath sounds on the one side only would not be explained by a tracheal obstruction as it would cause reduced breath sounds bilaterally and a more severe clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      125.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A term baby was born following a placental abruption. There was no respiratory...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby was born following a placental abruption. There was no respiratory effort and an undetectable heart rate initially. Baby is now 20 min old and has been intubated with regular ventilation breaths. Heart rate came up to 110/min following two rounds of chest compressions. Baby appears very pale. No drugs have been given. Oxygen saturations are currently 85% measured on the right hand despite FiO2 1.0. A venous cord gas shows pH 6.89, CO2 –8, BE –14, Hb 8. What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Turn down temperature to begin cooling the baby

      Correct Answer: Umbilical venous catheter (UVC) placement

      Explanation:

      Umbilical vein catheterization utilizes the exposed umbilical stump in a neonate as a site for emergency central venous access up to 14 days old. Umbilical vein catheterization can provide a safe and effective route for intravenous delivery of medications and fluids during resuscitation.The indication for umbilical vein catheterization is when there is a need for IV access in a neonate for resuscitation, transfusions, or short-term venous access when otherwise unobtainable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 1-year old girl with a history of febrile convulsions presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-year old girl with a history of febrile convulsions presents to the community clinic with constipation. During the examination, she goes into a seizure. The physician carries her to the treatment room and administers oxygen. After 5 minutes, the fits continue, and there is lack of buccal midazolam. Which of the following would be the best strategy in this case?

      Your Answer: Give 2.5 mg rectal diazepam

      Correct Answer: Give 5 mg rectal diazepam

      Explanation:

      Diazepam given rectally may be helpful in treating prolonged convulsions outside and within hospital when intravenous injection is not possible. A rectal dose of 0.5 mg/kg (maximum 10 mg) of injectable diazepam, undiluted or diluted with a 50% propylene glycol solution, can stop seizures in up to 80% of children. There are few adverse reactions. Seizures in children usually cease spontaneously within 5-10 minutes and are rarely associated with significant sequelae. The chance of a seizure stopping spontaneously decreases significantly after 10-15 minutes. Similarly, the efficacy of anticonvulsant medication decreases after 10-15 minutes of fitting and the risk of adverse effects increases. Convulsive seizures lasting longer than 30 minutes constitute status epilepticus and may be complicated by cardio respiratory depression and brain injury. Diazepam or clonazepam, given intravenously, is generally the drug of choice for the emergency treatment of convulsive status epilepticus. Intravenous diazepam may be difficult to administer to the young convulsing child and, because of the need for intravenous access, is not ideal for rapid treatment in the community by non-medical carers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Celiac disease is classified as a Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by T-cell response. Negatively charged gliadin has been shown to induce interleukin 15 in the enteric epithelial cells, stimulating the proliferation of the natural killer cells and intraepithelial lymphocytes to express NK-G2D, a marker for natural killer T lymphocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. Which of the following treatment strategies should be employed?

      Your Answer: Benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary. Primary and secondary syphilis are easy to treat with a penicillin injection. Penicillin is one of the most widely used antibiotics and is usually effective in treating syphilis. People who are allergic to penicillin will likely be treated with a different antibiotic, such as:doxycyclineazithromycinceftriaxone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is a potentially blinding disease if not managed adequately....

    Correct

    • Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is a potentially blinding disease if not managed adequately. Which of the following is a complication of ROP in an infant?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Retinopathy of prematurity affects infants born early, and is due to the abnormal growth of retinal vasculature as opposed to vascular occlusion often see in adults. Though most babies with ROP can see normally, the most significant complication of ROP Is retinal detachment which can lead to blindness. Other structures in the eye such as the optic nerve or the fovea however, are not affected. Children may develop nystagmus as a result of poor sight in the affected eye(s).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following features is true of Alport syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is true of Alport syndrome?

      Your Answer: Aminoaciduria is a feature

      Correct Answer: It is caused by defects in collagen

      Explanation:

      Alport syndrome is a genetic condition characterized by kidney disease, hearing loss, and eye abnormalities. Alport syndrome can have different inheritance patterns. About 80 percent of cases are caused by mutations in type IV collagen genes (COL4A5) and are inherited in an X-linked autosomal recessive pattern, although other inheritance patterns exist. Alport syndrome has autosomal dominant inheritance in about 5 percent of cases.

      People with Alport syndrome experience progressive loss of kidney function. Almost all affected individuals have blood in their urine (haematuria), which indicates abnormal functioning of the kidneys. Many people with Alport syndrome also develop high levels of protein in their urine (proteinuria). The kidneys become less able to function as this condition progresses, resulting in end-stage renal disease (ESRD).

      People with Alport syndrome frequently develop sensorineural hearing loss, which is caused by abnormalities of the inner ear, during late childhood or early adolescence. Affected individuals may also have misshapen lenses in the eyes (anterior lenticonus) and abnormal coloration of the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye (retina). These eye abnormalities seldom lead to vision loss.

      Significant hearing loss, eye abnormalities, and progressive kidney disease are more common in males with Alport syndrome than in affected females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 7 year old boy who had significant dry spells in the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 7 year old boy who had significant dry spells in the past presented with a recent history of wetting himself. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Behaviour training

      Correct Answer: Desmopressin

      Explanation:

      As this boy has experienced significant dry spells in the past, it is unlikely that a structural abnormality is causing the enuresis. The only therapies that have been shown to be effective in randomized trials are alarm therapy and treatment with desmopressin acetate or imipramine. Bladder training exercises are not recommended. Desmopressin acetate is the preferred medication for treating children with enuresis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia does NOT occur in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia does NOT occur in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Long term total parenteral nutrition (TPN)

      Correct Answer: Spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia is a common clinical condition and can be categorized as conjugated and unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia results from obstructive or hepatocellular causes mainly. The causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia include inborn errors of metabolism like galactosemia and aminoaciduria, obstruction from choledochal cysts, and biliary atresia. Long term TPN also leads to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Spherocytosis is a hereditary condition belonging to the group of haemolytic anaemias, resulting from plasma membrane protein deficiency. This defect of the RBC plasma membrane decreases their life span, making them osmotically fragile and prone to haemolysis. This leads to an increase in the unconjugated bilirubin levels, with a risk of developing kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A child cannot wave goodbye or grasp objects with her fingers and thumb...

    Correct

    • A child cannot wave goodbye or grasp objects with her fingers and thumb but can sit briefly supported by leaning forward on her hands. She can reach and grasp objects with the whole hand and then pass it from one hand to the other and is babbling. What is her expected age?

      Your Answer: 7 months

      Explanation:

      At 7 months, children are expected to sit briefly leaning forward on their hands, reach and grasp objects, transfer objects from hand to hand, and babble. Children are usually expected to wave goodbye or grasp objects with their fingers or thumb at around 10 months and older.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies?

      Your Answer: Because the mite can jump, infection rates are high in households and nurseries

      Correct Answer: Positive mineral oil mount is diagnostic

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of scabies can often be made clinically in patients with a pruritic rash and characteristic linear burrows. Definitive testing relies on the identification of mites or their eggs, eggshell fragments, or scybala. This is best undertaken by placing a drop of mineral oil directly over the burrow on the skin and then superficially scraping longitudinally and laterally across the skin with a scalpel blade. (Avoid causing bleeding.) Scraping 15 or more burrows often produces only 1 or 2 eggs or mites, except in a case of crusted scabies, in which many mites will be present. The sample is placed on a microscope slide and examined under low and high power. Potassium hydroxide should not be used, since it can dissolve mite pellets. Failure to find mites is common and does not rule out the diagnosis of scabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Methicillin

      Explanation:

      Bacterial meningitis (including meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae meningitis, and staphylococcal meningitis) is a neurologic emergency that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Initiation of empiric antibacterial therapy is therefore essential for better outcomes. The patient appears to be suffering from meningitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Methicillin would be the drug of choice . It is bactericidal and unlike streptomycin and chloramphenicol it is not associated with toxicity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In term babies with persistent jaundice, what is the time period over which...

    Correct

    • In term babies with persistent jaundice, what is the time period over which one must consider biliary atresia as the probable cause?

      Your Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      After a period of 14 days, if jaundice persists in a term new-born, having ruled out the other possibilities, biliary atresia should be considered as a possible diagnosis.Biliary atresia is a rare but serious condition. Symptoms include obstructive jaundice (dark urine and pale stool). Management:Surgery within 8 weeks is recommended. Survival is around 90% using current treatment regimes. Without treatment, children will survive to around 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints,...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints, and a rash. Her parents insist that she was otherwise well except for a history of sore throat 2 weeks before.On examination, she appears quite unwell with a temperature reading of 38.5°C. She was found to be tachycardic, hypertensive and with an erythematous rash with raised edges noted on the anterior aspect of her abdomen. Her left ankle and right elbow joints are swollen, and she has multiple painless subcutaneous nodules under her skin. Auscultation revealed an apical mid-diastolic murmur. Blood investigations reveal leucocytosis and raised C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was also above normal limits for her gender and age. An ECG confirms the presence of a tachycardia, a prolonged PR interval, and flat inverted T waves.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this child would be rheumatic fever due to a previous history of rheumatic fever, evidence of streptococcal disease from a throat swab, a raised ASO titre and a positive streptococcal antigen test or a leukocytosis.Acute Rheumatic Fever:ARF occurs because of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal antigenic component. It has a latent period of 1–3 weeks and is more common in the lower socio-economic classes. It peaks at around 5–15 years of age and affects the blood vessels, joints, nervous system and subcutaneous tissues. It is characterised as an autoimmune disease, and there is a risk of rheumatic fever occurring after infection in 3% of the population. The recurrence is greater in younger children and increases with each attack. Duckett-Jones criteria:The diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever.Major: – Pancarditis- Chorea (Sydenham’s) – Polyarthritis (flitting)- Erythema marginatum- Subcutaneous nodulesMinor criteria include the presence of arthralgia, fever, prolonged PR interval, raised ESR, raised CRP.Note that:To make the diagnosis of rheumatic fever: Two major and/or one major with two minor criteria are required. Evidence of a recent streptococcal infection with a raised ASO titre or an antiribonuclease B level is sufficient. Exceptions to this rule are mentioned below:- Chorea alone is diagnostic.- Insidious or late-onset carditis with no other explanation.- Rheumatic recurrence: The presence of one major and one minor criterion with a prior streptococcal disease that is recurring.Consequences of pericarditis include heart block, pericardial effusion, tachycardia, cardiomegaly, pericardial friction rub, congestive cardiac failure, valvular disease and a Carey–Coombes apical mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.New heart murmurs are often audible, including those of mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation. Skin nodules affect the perivascular tissues and are non-specific lesions resulting from fibroid degeneration.Management:Medication includes aspirin for the acute phase, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis, prednisolone for severe carditis, and high-dose penicillin for immediate management with antibiotic prophylaxis in the long term. Antibiotics may include penicillin V, erythromycin or benzylpenicillin. Diazepam and haloperidol may be required to control the chorea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency after being stabbed in the...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency after being stabbed in the upper arm and the median nerve is transected. Impaired function can be demonstrated in which of the following muscle/s?

      Your Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis

      Explanation:

      The median nerve is a peripheral nerve originating in the cervical roots C5–T1 of the brachial plexus. It supplies motor innervation to the anterior forearm flexors, the thenar muscles, and the two lateral lumbricals as well as sensory innervation to the lateral palm and anterior, lateral three and a half fingers. Motor and sensory deficits depend on whether the lesion is proximal (above the elbow) or distal (below the elbow). While proximal lesions present with the “hand of benediction,” distal lesions present with either the “pinch sign” (anterior interosseous nerve syndrome) or, in the case of carpal tunnel syndrome, with mildly impaired thumb and index finger motion. Both proximal lesions and carpal tunnel syndrome result in reduced sensation in the area of the thumb, index and middle finger. Anterior interosseus nerve syndrome does not cause any sensory deficits. Chronic injuries to the nerve result in atrophy of median nerve innervated muscles while acute injuries do not have this feature. Treatment is mostly conservative and focuses on rest and immobilization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 6 month old child was brought in after choking on a foreign...

    Correct

    • A 6 month old child was brought in after choking on a foreign body, which had resulted in the child having difficulty breathing. The best possible site for the incision would be?

      Your Answer: Cricoid cartilage

      Explanation:

      Cricothyroidectomy is done in life threatening condition, where an incision is made in cricothyroid membrane to establish a patent airway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is true in logistic regression analysis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true in logistic regression analysis?

      Your Answer: Yields adjusted odds ratios

      Explanation:

      Logistic regression analysis is an easy to use regression that can serve to estimate how a binary or dichotomous dependent variable, for example whether or not a student passes or fails a medical exam, is related to the number of hours the student studies for the exam. This regression is able to yield an odds ratio, i.e. the probability of passing the exam based on each additional hour of study. As stated, the outcome does not need to be normally distributed but is usually binary. This type of analysis is not complex and does not need to be avoided as it is available most statistical packages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for 6 months. Her physical examination revealed no abnormality. A CT scan of the head revealed a suprasellar mass with calcifications, eroding the surrounding sella turcica. The lesion is likely to represent:

      Your Answer: Null cell adenoma

      Correct Answer: Craniopharyngioma

      Explanation:

      Craniopharyngiomas (also known as Rathke pouch tumours, adamantinomas or hypophyseal duct tumours) affect children mainly between the age of 5 and 10 years. It constitutes 9% of brain tumours affecting the paediatric population. These are slow-growing tumours which can also be cystic, and arise from the pituitary stalk, specifically the nests of epithelium derived from Rathke’s pouch. Histologically, this tumour shows nests of squamous epithelium which is lined on the outside by radially arranged cells. Calcium deposition is often seen with a papillary type of architecture.
      ACTH-secreting pituitary adenomas are rare and mostly microadenomas. Paediatric astrocytoma’s usually occur in the posterior fossa. Although null cell adenomas can cause mass effect and give rise to the described symptoms, they are not suprasellar. Prolactinomas can also show symptoms of headache and disturbances in the visual field, however they are known to be small and slow-growing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      183.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her parents state she suffers from haemophilia and has been treated for a right-sided haemarthrosis previously. What other condition is she most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder. In X-linked recessive inheritance only males are affected. An exception to this seen in examinations are patients with Turner’s syndrome, who are affected due to only having one X chromosome. X-linked recessive disorders are transmitted by heterozygote females (carriers) and male-to-male transmission is not seen. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      23.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Fluid And Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (1/5) 20%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (0/2) 0%
Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (1/3) 33%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Nephro-urology (0/1) 0%
Genitourinary (0/1) 0%
Child Development (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/1) 100%
Passmed