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  • Question 1 - An 12 year old boy presents with a 2 day history of a...

    Correct

    • An 12 year old boy presents with a 2 day history of a tree climbing accident in which a small branch gave way, leaving him suspended by one arm. He can move his arm into any position but is unable to use his hand effectively.Which of the following structures has he most likely damaged in the accident?

      Your Answer: The T1 nerve root

      Explanation:

      The boy is most likely to have sustained an injury to his brachial plexus as a result of upward traction of his arm for an extended period of time. We can rule out the topmost nerve roots of the brachial plexus, C6 and C7 as these supply the larger muscles of the arm responsible for moving the shoulder, the elbow and the wrist. The anatomical structure affected is therefore the T1 nerve root which is responsible for movement of the muscles in the hand. This type of injury is called a Klumpke’s Palsy, which is the result of a hyper-abducted trauma to the arm, damaging the C8 and T1 nerve roots. While the radial and ulnar nerve also innervate the hand, the history given points to Klumpke’s palsy as the best explanation for this mechanism of injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      2983.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of eating disorders? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of eating disorders?

      Your Answer: Evidence-based self-help programme is first line in patients with bulimia

      Explanation:

      Most individuals with eating disorders do not receive treatment. The treatment gap may involve individuals’ attitudes about accessing various types of treatment, as well as perceived barriers to seeking treatment. Therapies to be considered for the psychological treatment of anorexia nervosa include cognitive analytic therapy (CAT), cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT), interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), focal psychodynamic therapy and family interventions focused explicitly on eating disorders.The first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. Antidepressants may be helpful for patients with substantial concurrent symptoms of depression, anxiety, obsessions, or certain impulse disorder symptoms. They may be particularly good for patients who have not benefited from or had suboptimal response to suitable psychosocial therapy or who have a chronic, difficult course in combination with other treatments.Acute pharmacologic treatment of anorexia nervosa is rarely required. However, vitamin supplementation with calcium should be started in patients, and although oestrogen has no established effect on bone density in patients with anorexia nervosa, oestrogen replacement (i.e., oral contraceptives) has been recommended for the treatment of osteopenia. Note: Oestrogen should not be used in children (due to premature fusion of the bones).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking...

    Correct

    • A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking and prostate cancer. What is the usual outcome measure in a cohort study?

      Your Answer: Relative risk

      Explanation:

      A cohort study is a particular form of longitudinal study that samples a cohort (a group of people who share a defining characteristic, typically those who experienced a common event in a selected period, such as birth or graduation), performing a cross-section at intervals through time.
      The relative risk (RR) or risk ratio is the ratio of the probability of an outcome in an exposed group to the probability of an outcome in an unexposed group. Relative risk is used in the statistical analysis of the data of experimental, cohort and cross-sectional studies, to estimate the strength of the association between treatments or risk factors, and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An asymptomatic 5-month old boy was referred to the paediatric cardiology department after...

    Correct

    • An asymptomatic 5-month old boy was referred to the paediatric cardiology department after his GP noted an ejection systolic murmur and thrill at the upper left sternal edge. SpO2 saturation is at 98%, and an ECG reveals an R/S ratio >1 in the V1 lead.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary Stenosis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be pulmonary stenosis. Pulmonary Stenosis:Pulmonary valve murmurs are heard in the upper left sternal edge, associated with a thrill but no desaturation in the absence of an additional shunt. The ECG changes suggest right ventricular hypertrophy. Pulmonary stenosis is often well tolerated in childhood unless severe. These should be monitored with serial echocardiography, and balloon pulmonary valvoplasty should be considered once the pressure gradient reaches 64 mmHg.Other options:- Atrial septal defect: While atrial septal defects are associated with right ventricular outflow tract murmurs, they would not cause a thrill.- Patent ductus arteriosus: PDA murmurs can be audible in the left upper sternal edge, but would normally be audible in the left infraclavicular area and be continuous rather than ejection systolic. This left to right shunt would not cause desaturation but does cause left-sided volume loading and hence left-sided ECG changes.- Tetralogy of Fallot: Ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, subpulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy. This would often cause a ULSE murmur with a thrill and RVH on ECG. However, this degree of obstruction would cause shunting from right to left, and this child would be desaturated.- Ventricular septal defect: Isolated ventricular septal defects cause pansystolic murmurs at the left lower sternal edge. They would have left-sided ECG changes and normal saturations (in the absence of pulmonary hypertension).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following does not cause upper gastrointestinal bleeding? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not cause upper gastrointestinal bleeding?

      Your Answer: Meckel's diverticulum

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a true diverticulum and is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract, occurring in about 2% of people. It is caused by incomplete obliteration of the vitelline duct and consists of a congenital sacculation of the antimesenteric border of the ileum. Symptoms are uncommon but include lower GI bleeding, bowel obstruction, and inflammation (diverticulitis). Causes of upper GI bleeding in neonates:Swallowed maternal bloodCoagulopathies including haemorrhagic disease of the new-bornStress gastritis & stress ulcersDrugs (NSAIDs, heparin, indomethacin used for patent duct closure, dexamethasone)Causes of upper GI bleeding in children 1 month to 1 year:GORDGastritis (with or without Helicobacter pylori infection)Crohn diseaseDrugs (NSAIDs)Zollinger-Ellison syndromeCauses of upper GI bleeding in children 1 -2 years:Peptic ulcer diseaseZollinger-Ellison syndromeBurns (Curling ulcer)Head trauma (Cushing ulcer)SepsisCauses of upper GI bleeding in older than 2 years:Oesophageal varices secondary to portal hypertension (most commonly portal vein thrombosis and biliary atresia)Duodenal ulcersOesophagitisGastritisMallory-Weiss tears

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Choose the karyotype associated with short stature: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the karyotype associated with short stature:

      Your Answer: 45,XO

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome (TS) is one of the most common genetic disorders| occurs with an incidence of I: 2,500 female live births. It results from complete or partial chromosome X monosomy. TS is associated with abnormalities of the X chromosome and characteristic clinical features of short stature, gonadal dysgenesis, sexual developmental deficiencies, cardiac and/or renal defects, webbed neck, low-set ears, skeletal deformities including cubitus valgus, a propensity to ear infections and hearing deficits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 8 year old male presents with a history of progressive weakness. He...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old male presents with a history of progressive weakness. He finds it harder to climb stairs or stand from a sitting position. Medical history reveals he received all his vaccinations and had chickenpox 5 years ago. Family history reveals that the father of his mother had a similar condition but died from an accident at 32 years of age. Clinical examination reveals normal cranial nerve function as well as cognitive and mental functions. He also has a normal height. However, although he has normal tone and reflexes in all his limbs, he experiences proximal weakness in his legs and arms. No muscle wasting is identified. Sensory functions are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Becker’s muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Becker’s muscular dystrophy is a disease characterised by progressive weakness and wasting of the skeletal and cardiac muscles. It is inherited and primarily affects males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following features suggest lichen sclerosus is more likely than lichen...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features suggest lichen sclerosus is more likely than lichen planus?

      Your Answer: Presence of epidermal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Lichen sclerosus is a common chronic skin disorder that most often affects genital and perianal areas. LS typically presents with vulval itching and clinical findings of pallor, epidermal atrophy (cigarette paper wrinkling), purpura, and/or erosions.Lichen sclerosus (LS) and lichen planus (LP) are both immunologically mediated diseases with a preference for the genitalia. The main difference between the two conditions is that LP has a propensity to involve the mucous membranes including the mouth and vagina which are rarely affected in LS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      51.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure to thrive and a sputum culture positive for H.influenzea and S.pneumoniae. There is no history of congenital anomalies. He is most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: DiGeorge syndrome

      Correct Answer: X-linked agammaglobulinemia

      Explanation:

      Recurrent bacterial infections may be due to lack of B-cell function, consequently resulting in a lack of gamma globulins production. Once the maternal antibodies have depleted, the disease manifests with greater severity and is called x-linked agammaglobulinemia also known as ‘X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia’, ‘XLA’ or ‘Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia. it is a rare x linked genetic disorder that compromises the bodies ability to fight infections.
      Acute leukaemia causes immunodeficiency but not so specific.
      DiGeorge syndrome is due to lack of T cell function.
      Aplastic anaemia and EBV infection does not cause immunodeficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the most common position of the appendix? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common position of the appendix?

      Your Answer: Retrocecal

      Explanation:

      The most common position of the appendix is the retrocecal position.Note: If a retrocecal appendix is difficult to remove, then mobilisation of the right colon significantly improves access.Other options:The various positions of the appendix are:- Retrocecal (74%)- Pelvic (21%)- Postileal- Subcaecal- Paracaecal- Preileal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two...

    Correct

    • A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. Which is the most appropriate strategy for this child?

      Your Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age

      Explanation:

      Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a...

    Correct

    • Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a disorder, compared to only 1 child out of 10 developing the same disorder who were not exposed.The following can be deduced from this information:

      Your Answer: The relative risk of exposure to the chemical is 5

      Explanation:

      Relative risk is the probability of an outcome occurring in an exposed group as compared to the probability of that outcome in an unexposed group. In the scenario given, 50% of the children exposed developed the disease while only 10% of the children who were unexposed developed the disease. The relative risk was therefore 50/10=5. There is no further information about whether the study was controlled, the confidence interval, or the type of study. It therefore cannot be confirmed whether the chemical is causative and if it should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori?

      Your Answer: H. pylori infection may cause nodular gastropathy

      Correct Answer: Splitting urea to release nitrogen decreases the pH in the stomach

      Explanation:

      H. pylori release the enzyme urease that has the ability to split urea releasing nitrogen. This process increases the pH in the gastric antrum making the gastric pH less acidic.Helicobacter pylori:It is a spiral, microaerophilic, gram-negative bacterium. It is one of the most common causes of antral gastritis in children. Ulcers are less common in children compared with adults| however, when they occur, they are more common in the duodenum.The presence of H.pylori can be confirmed by:- Stool antigen test (preferred)- Serology- Endoscopy with biopsy and culture- Rapid urease testsH.pylori gastritis may be associated with:- Iron deficiency anaemia- Gastric malignancy Management:The treatment is with triple therapy- two antibiotics, and an antacid.Treatment failure is often attributed to a possible worldwide increase in macrolide resistance. Interestingly, children have higher antibiotic resistance compared with adults.Note:Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) causes gastrin-secreting tumours and can present as a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)- an autosomal dominant disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following does not suggest a diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not suggest a diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF-1)?

      Your Answer: Osseous bone lesions

      Explanation:

      Clinical diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 requires the presence of at least 2 of 7 criteria to confirm the presence of neurofibromatosis, type 1. Many of these signs do not appear until later childhood or adolescence, and thus confirming the diagnosis often is delayed despite a suspicion of NF1. The 7 clinical criteria used to diagnose NF1 are as follows:- Six or more café-au-lait spots or hyperpigmented macules greater than 5 mm in diameter in prepubertal children and greater than 15 mm postpubertal- Axillary or inguinal freckles (>2) – Two or more typical neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma- Optic nerve glioma- Two or more iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules), often identified only through slit-lamp examination by an ophthalmologist- Sphenoid dysplasia or typical long-bone abnormalities such as pseudarthrosis- A first-degree relative (e.g., mother, father, sister, brother) with NF1

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 14-year-old girl, in diabetic ketoacidosis, is brought to the emergency room with...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl, in diabetic ketoacidosis, is brought to the emergency room with abdominal pain and vomiting. Arterial blood gases show:pH 7.01, pC02: 2.6, HC03:6, BE-19. The ketones are found to be 4.8. Which of the following most likely explains her blood gas analysis?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

      Explanation:

      Diabetes ketoacidosis is one of the most serious and acute complications of diabetes. At the time of presentation and during treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), several metabolic and electrolyte derangements can ultimately result in respiratory compromise. Most commonly, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia and hypophosphatemia can eventually lead to respiratory muscles failure. Furthermore, tachypnoea, hyperpnea and more severely, Kussmaul breathing pattern can develop. Also, hydrostatic and non-hydrostatic pulmonary oedema can occur secondary to volume shifts into the extracellular space and secondary to increased permeability of the pulmonary capillaries. The presence of respiratory failure in patients with DKA is associated with higher morbidity and mortality. Being familiar with the causes of respiratory compromise in DKA, and how to treat them, may represent better outcomes for patients with DKA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 8-year-old boy is presented with arthritis, cough and non-blanching purpura. His coagulation...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old boy is presented with arthritis, cough and non-blanching purpura. His coagulation profile is normal. His CBC: Hb 11.8 TLC 7.2*10^9 Plt 286*10^9. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      The best answer is Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP). This patient has a characteristic rash and the labs are consistent with this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A two-sample t-test comparing weight loss after two different diet regimes yield a...

    Correct

    • A two-sample t-test comparing weight loss after two different diet regimes yield a P-value of 0.001.Which one of the following statements can be deducted from this finding?

      Your Answer: The difference would have occurred by chance for a study of this size only once in 1000 times if the two regimes did not differ in their effect

      Explanation:

      The P value is defined as the probability under the assumption of no effect or no difference (null hypothesis), of obtaining a result equal to or more extreme than what was actually observed. The P stands for probability and measures how likely it is that any observed difference between groups is due to chance. Being a probability, P can take any value between 0 and 1. Values close to 0 indicate that the observed difference is unlikely to be due to chance, whereas a P value close to 1 suggests no difference between the groups other than due to chance. Thus, it is common in medical journals to see adjectives such as “highly significant” or “very significant” after quoting the P value depending on how close to zero the value is.A lower p-value is sometimes interpreted as meaning there is a stronger relationship between two variables. However, statistical significance means that it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true (less than 5%).To understand the strength of the difference between two groups (control vs. experimental) a researcher needs to calculate the effect size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      99.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints,...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints, and a rash. Her parents insist that she was otherwise well except for a history of sore throat 2 weeks before.On examination, she appears quite unwell with a temperature reading of 38.5°C. She was found to be tachycardic, hypertensive and with an erythematous rash with raised edges noted on the anterior aspect of her abdomen. Her left ankle and right elbow joints are swollen, and she has multiple painless subcutaneous nodules under her skin. Auscultation revealed an apical mid-diastolic murmur. Blood investigations reveal leucocytosis and raised C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was also above normal limits for her gender and age. An ECG confirms the presence of a tachycardia, a prolonged PR interval, and flat inverted T waves.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this child would be rheumatic fever due to a previous history of rheumatic fever, evidence of streptococcal disease from a throat swab, a raised ASO titre and a positive streptococcal antigen test or a leukocytosis.Acute Rheumatic Fever:ARF occurs because of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal antigenic component. It has a latent period of 1–3 weeks and is more common in the lower socio-economic classes. It peaks at around 5–15 years of age and affects the blood vessels, joints, nervous system and subcutaneous tissues. It is characterised as an autoimmune disease, and there is a risk of rheumatic fever occurring after infection in 3% of the population. The recurrence is greater in younger children and increases with each attack. Duckett-Jones criteria:The diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever.Major: – Pancarditis- Chorea (Sydenham’s) – Polyarthritis (flitting)- Erythema marginatum- Subcutaneous nodulesMinor criteria include the presence of arthralgia, fever, prolonged PR interval, raised ESR, raised CRP.Note that:To make the diagnosis of rheumatic fever: Two major and/or one major with two minor criteria are required. Evidence of a recent streptococcal infection with a raised ASO titre or an antiribonuclease B level is sufficient. Exceptions to this rule are mentioned below:- Chorea alone is diagnostic.- Insidious or late-onset carditis with no other explanation.- Rheumatic recurrence: The presence of one major and one minor criterion with a prior streptococcal disease that is recurring.Consequences of pericarditis include heart block, pericardial effusion, tachycardia, cardiomegaly, pericardial friction rub, congestive cardiac failure, valvular disease and a Carey–Coombes apical mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.New heart murmurs are often audible, including those of mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation. Skin nodules affect the perivascular tissues and are non-specific lesions resulting from fibroid degeneration.Management:Medication includes aspirin for the acute phase, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis, prednisolone for severe carditis, and high-dose penicillin for immediate management with antibiotic prophylaxis in the long term. Antibiotics may include penicillin V, erythromycin or benzylpenicillin. Diazepam and haloperidol may be required to control the chorea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 15-year-old girl presents with mild abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with mild abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant for the last four months. An ultrasound scan demonstrates a 7cm simple ovarian cyst. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Functional ovarian cyst. Ovary sparing cystectomy

      Explanation:

      The most prudent course of action in the given clinical scenario is an ovary-sparing cystectomy. The history is 3-months and is already chronic. Furthermore, the cyst is greater than 5cm in size and at risk of torsion. This will relieve the cause of pain, reduce the risk of torsion and save ovarian function.Other options:- This is a simple cyst and not a malignancy, so imaging and referral are not indicated.- Open oophorectomy was done in the past. However, this is very aggressive, and the modern approach is ovary-sparing.- As the cyst is 7cm and at risk of torsion, conservative management is not appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 30-day-old female was diagnosed with a case of breast milk jaundice. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-day-old female was diagnosed with a case of breast milk jaundice. She has no other symptoms. Which is the most suitable next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Breast feeding should be continued for babies with breast milk jaundice as this is a benign condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
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  • Question 21 - Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge’s syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus

      Explanation:

      The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A randomised controlled trial of a new treatment for hypertension yields a P-value...

    Incorrect

    • A randomised controlled trial of a new treatment for hypertension yields a P-value of 0.00036.Which one of the following gives the best interpretation of this information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To understand the clinical importance of the treatment we should also consider the confidence interval for the difference

      Explanation:

      The level of statistical significance is often expressed as a p-value between 0 and 1. The smaller the p-value, the stronger the evidence that you should reject the null hypothesis.A p-value less than 0.05 (typically ≤ 0.05) is statistically significant. It indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis, as there is less than a 5% probability the null is correct (and the results are random). Therefore, we reject the null hypothesis, and accept the alternative hypothesis.However, this does not mean that there is a 95% probability that the research hypothesis is true. The p-value is conditional upon the null hypothesis being true is unrelated to the truth or falsity of the research hypothesis.A lower p-value is sometimes interpreted as meaning there is a stronger relationship between two variables. However, statistical significance means that it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true (less than 5%).To understand the strength of the difference between two groups (control vs. experimental) a researcher needs to calculate the effect size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the first sign of puberty in girls? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the first sign of puberty in girls?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast development

      Explanation:

      The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11.The first sign of puberty in girls is usually that their breasts begin to develop.It’s normal for breast buds to sometimes be very tender or for one breast to start to develop several months before the other one.Pubic hair also starts to grow, and some girls may notice more hair on their legs and arms.After a year or so of puberty beginning, and for the next couple of years:girls’ breasts continue to grow and become fuller.Around 2 years after beginning puberty, girls usually have their first period,pubic hair becomes coarser and curlierunderarm hair begins to grow. From the time their periods start, girls grow 5 to 7.5cm (2 to 3 inches) annually over the next year or two, then reach their adult height.After about 4 years of puberty in girls:breasts become adult-likepubic hair has spread to the inner thighgenitals should now be fully developedgirls stop growing taller.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Erythema multiforme is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Erythema multiforme is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inflammation of fat cells under the skin

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme is a skin rash characterized by the eruption of macules, papules, and target-like lesions. The target or iris lesions appear rounded with a red centre surrounded by a pale ring, which in turn is surrounded by a dark red outer ring. These are acute and self-limiting, mostly appearing on the distal extremities along with palmoplantar involvement. The disease affects the mucous membrane and orbits as well. The most common infectious cause is herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 to a lesser extent. Inflammation of the adipocytes underlying the skin is referred to as erythema nodosum, and it is not a feature of EM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of developmental...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breech presentation

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia (DDH) of the hip refers to patients who are born with a dislocated or unstable hip due to abnormal development of the hip. Female infants and first born infants are most likely to present with DDH. Other risk factors for DDH include, breech positioning, oligohydramnios, high birth weight or post date babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Venous blood haematocrit > 65%

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is described as an abnormal increase in the red cell mass. As this influences hyper-viscosity, a peripheral venous sample of blood haematocrit can be used to determine the packed cell volume. Polycythaemia is present if the venous haematocrit is >65% or <22g/dl if converted into a haemoglobin value. Though it is the method of choice for screening, capillary blood samples obtained though heel pricks in new-born may be as much as 15% higher than venous samples and thus high values must be confirmed with a venous sample.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 5 month old boy presents with pallor but otherwise appears well and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old boy presents with pallor but otherwise appears well and healthy. The clinical examination was normal and his mother reported a good appetite. His blood results showed: Hb: 9.0 g/dl (11 – 16 g/dl)MCV: 66fl (76 – 96 fl)WBC : 5x109/L (4 – 11x109/L)Ferritin : 9ug/L (12 – 200ug/L)Serum iron : 7umol/l (14 – 31umol/l)What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia has the following laboratory characteristics: low haemoglobin, a low serum iron, a low serum ferritin, a low transferrin saturation, and a high total iron-binding capacity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      0
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Puts everything to his/her mouth

      Explanation:

      6 month old milestones:Social and Emotional:Knows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/Communication:Responds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (“ah,” “eh,” “oh”) and likes taking turns with parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with “m,” “b”) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical Development:Rolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 29 - Consider the following study:Healthy individuals are assessed according to their current body mass...

    Incorrect

    • Consider the following study:Healthy individuals are assessed according to their current body mass index (BMI). Two years later, their health status is reassessed, and the relationships with their earlier BMI were determined.What is the type of epidemiological study described above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cohort

      Explanation:

      The study described in the question is a ‘cohort’ study.Other options:A prospective observational study – When groups are classified according to one or more factors at a given time and followed forward to determine outcomes (usually some health status)- Although there is in one sense a control group (those who do not develop the health problem), this is not generally called a ‘controlled’ trial. – An ecological study would look at outcomes in different groups (countries or regions usually) who follow different practices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 30 - A 14-year-old female was found to have a 1/6 systolic ejection murmur on...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female was found to have a 1/6 systolic ejection murmur on regular check-up and was subsequently referred to a cardiologist. A thorough physical examination reveals long upper extremities with thin slender fingers, with a high arched palate and excessive ligamentous laxity. Her thumb can be bent back easily to touch her radius. ECG reveals sinus bradycardia that is consistent with aerobic conditioning. She also had an echo done. In reference to her most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most serious cardiac complication associated to this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue found throughout the body, Marfan syndrome can affect many systems, often causing abnormalities in the heart, blood vessels, eyes, bones, and joints. The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and aortic root disease, leading to aneurysmal dilatation, aortic regurgitation and dissection is the main cause of morbidity and mortality in Marfan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (3/3) 100%
Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/1) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Passmed