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Question 1
Incorrect
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Select one true statement about haemoglobin synthesis…
Your Answer: Involves the combination of iron in the ferric (fe3+) state with protoporphyrin to form haem.
Correct Answer: Occurs in the cytosol of developing red cells.
Explanation:Haemoglobin (Hb) is synthesized in a complex series of steps. The haem part is synthesized in a series of steps in the mitochondria and the cytosol of immature red blood cells, while the globin protein parts are synthesized by ribosomes in the cytosol. Production of Hb continues in the cell throughout its early development from the proerythroblast to the reticulocyte in the bone marrow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following are exclusively innervated by parasympathetic nerves?
Your Answer: Sweat glands
Correct Answer: Circular muscle of iris
Explanation:Circular muscle of iris is exclusively supplied by the parasympathetic nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which part of the neuron has the highest concentration of sodium channels per square millimetre of the cell membrane?
Your Answer: Axon terminals 20-75
Correct Answer: Nodes of Ranvier
Explanation:The nodes of Ranvier contain Na+/K+ ATPases, Na+/Ca2+ exchangers and a high density of Na+ channels. The estimated concentration of sodium channels in the node is of ∼1500/μm2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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Immortality can result from over expression of which enzyme?
Your Answer: Telomerase
Explanation:Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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With regards to P53, which statement is NOT true?
Your Answer: P53 plays a role in programmed cell death
Correct Answer: P53 is a RNA binding protein
Explanation:P53 is a tumour suppressor gene. It is not an RNA binding protein. It has been implicated in almost all tumours. It regulates the progression from G1 to the S phase of the cell cycle and is activated in response to damaged DNA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 42 year old obese man complains of a painful swollen ankle. The pain has worsened over the past 2 weeks. He is a diabetic and gives a history of recent alcohol consumption. Joint aspirate shows rhomboid crystals with numerous neutrophils. Radiological examination shows evidence of chondrocalcinosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gouty arthritis
Correct Answer: Pseudogout
Explanation:Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Aetiology includes mostly idiopathic (primary form) and secondary form occurring as a result of joint trauma, familial chondrocalcinosis, hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis, gout, hypophosphatemia. Clinical presentation: Often asymptomatic. Acute (pseudogout attack): monoarthritis (rarely oligoarthritis), mostly affecting the knees and other large joints (e.g., hips, wrists, and ankles). It may become chronic (can affect multiple joints). Osteoarthritis with CPPD (most common form of symptomatic CPPD): progressive joint degeneration with episodes of acute inflammatory arthritis typical of pseudogout attacks. Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases. Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals. Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils. X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis). Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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The direct determinants of cardiac output are
Your Answer: Stroke volume and heart rate
Explanation:Cardiac output is classically defined alongside stroke volume (SV) and the heart rate (HR) as:Cardiac Output [L/min] = Stroke Volume [L/beat] x Heart Rate [beats/min]
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Question 9
Correct
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Lipid- lowering drugs like Lovastatin reduce cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting which enzyme?
Your Answer: HMG-CoA reductase
Explanation:Statins, also known as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, are a class of lipid-lowering medications. Statins have been found to reduce cardiovascular disease (CVD) and mortality in those who are at high risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
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Question 10
Correct
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What is the structure of nucleosomes?
Your Answer: Strands of double strand DNA + histones
Explanation:DNA is packed and condensed by binding to histone proteins. The double stranded DNA forms a complex with histone proteins which is called a nucleosome. There are 8 histone proteins contained in one core of nucleosome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with:
Your Answer: Endothelial cells
Correct Answer: Mesothelial cells
Explanation:The arachnoid mater is one of the three meninges that covers the brain and spinal cord. It is interposed between the two other meninges, the more superficial and much thicker dura mater and the deeper pia mater, from which it is separated by the subarachnoid space. The arachnoid mater consists of a subdural mesothelial layer and a compact central layer
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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With regards to the cell cycle, which phase represents period of cell growth that divides the end of DNA synthesis and the beginning of somatic cell division?
Your Answer: Metaphase
Correct Answer: Gap 2
Explanation:Interphase is divided into three phases: G1 (first gap), S (synthesis), and G2 (second gap). During all three parts of interphase, the cell grows by producing proteins and cytoplasmic organelles. However, chromosomes are replicated only during the S phase. Thus, a cell grows (G1), continues to grow as it duplicates its chromosomes (S), grows more and prepares for mitosis (G2), and finally divides (M) before restarting the cycle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in behaviour. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus
Explanation:The waddling gait and behaviour change are attributes of normal pressure hydrocephalus along with loss of bladder control which commonly happens with elder age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Describe the location of the SA node:
Your Answer: Found in the junction between the IVC and the right atrium
Correct Answer: Junction of the SVC and right atrium
Explanation:Anatomically the SA node is located at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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Regarding taste threshold and intensity discrimination:
Your Answer: 30% change in concentration of substance tasted is necessary before an intensity difference can be detected
Explanation:The ability of humans to differentiate differences in intensity of taste is poor. A 30% change in the concentration of the substance being tasted is required before an intensity difference is perceived.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning?
Your Answer: Causes a peripheral neuropathy due to demyelination
Explanation:Lead can be absorbed through the skin and by inhalation. It is associated with iron deficiency and a microcytic anaemia. The most common gastrointestinal symptoms are abdominal colic and constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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The transporter responsible for most glucose absorption in the lumen of the small intestine is called?
Your Answer: GLUT 2
Correct Answer: SGLT 1
Explanation:GLUT = Glucose transporter. GLUT are a family of proteins of different types. GLUT 1 is mainly expressed in erythrocytes, whereas GLUT 2 is mainly expressed by, liver cells and renal tubular cells. GLUT 5 is a sucrose transporter in enterocytes. SGLT- Sodium-dependent glucose cotransporter or sodium-glucose linked transporter are a family of proteins of different types. SGLT1 transporter is found in the intestinal mucosa of the small intestine and SGLT2 in the proximal tubule of the nephron.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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In the functional unit of the liver (acinus), the oxygenation…
Your Answer: Reduces towards the periphery
Correct Answer: Reduces towards the centre
Explanation:Cells located close to the portal triad or peripheral zone which consist of arterioles from the hepatic artery are the most oxygenated cells. Cells in the central zone are least oxygenated and mainly receive blood supply from the central vein which is a branch of the hepatic vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presents with a 4-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. She has been unable to keep fluids down for 4 days and has been treated with metoclopramide. She develops a dystonic reaction. What is the most appropriate treatment for this woman?
Your Answer: Domperidone
Correct Answer: Benztropine
Explanation:Acute dystonic reactions (extrapyramidal symptoms) such as spasmodic torticollis, trismus, and oculogyric crises can occur following the administration of metoclopramide or stemetil and thus, neither is recommended for the treatment of nausea in young women.
Such reactions respond well to treatment with benztropine or procyclidine.
– Benztropine: It is an anticholinergic medication with significant CNS penetration. A single dose of benztropine 1 to 2 mg IV followed by 1 to 2 mg p.o twice a day for up to 7 days to prevent a recurrence. Subsequently, both the offending agent and those from the same group should be avoided.
– Alternatively, diphenhydramine can be used intravenously (up to a dose of 50mg) or intramuscularly followed by p.o therapy every 6 hours for 1 to 2 to prevent a recurrence.- Second-line therapy with IV benzodiazepines is reserved for those patients who do not respond to anticholinergics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Correct
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Dietary starch is mainly:
Your Answer: Amylopectin
Explanation:Dietary starch consists of two types of molecules: the linear and helical amylose and the branched amylopectin. Starch generally contains 20 to 25% amylose and 75 to 80% amylopectin by weight but depends in the plant. Glycogen, the glucose store of animals, is a more branched version of amylopectin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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A deficiency in Niacin leads to which clinical deficiency syndrome?
Your Answer: Pellagra
Explanation:Pellagra is a disease caused by a lack of the vitamin niacin (vitamin B3). Symptoms include inflamed skin, diarrhoea, dementia, and sores in the mouth. Areas of the skin exposed to either sunlight or friction are typically affected first. Over time affected skin may become darker, stiff, begin to peel, or bleed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
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Question 22
Correct
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The layers of the neocortex from the 1st to the 6th are arranged as follows:
Your Answer: Molecular, external granular, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal, multiform
Explanation:The layers of neocortex from outermost to innermost include: the molecular, external granular layer, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal and multiform layer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 23
Correct
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Although variable, branches of which artery most often supply the SA and AV nodes?
Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:The RCA (right coronary artery) supplies the SA and the AV nodes along with the postero-basal wall of the left ventricle, posterior one third of the inferior vena cava, right ventricle and the posteromedial papillary muscle in the left ventricle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Select the CORRECT statement regarding bile salts…
Your Answer: Contain enzymes required for the digestion of fat.
Correct Answer: Are necessary for any bile acid secretion by hepatocytes.
Explanation:Bile salts stimulate bile secretion by the liver. Bile salts do not have an enzymatic action on digestion of fat but rather emulsify fat for the action of enzymes secreted mainly by the pancreas. Bile salts are polar cholesterol derivatives and are not derived from amino acids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Choose the correct statement about Aminoglycosides and Chloramphenicol
Your Answer: Both antibiotics work on Ribosome 30 S to prevent Protein synthesis
Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol works on Ribosome 50 S peptidyl transferase
Explanation:Aminoglycoside is a category of traditional Gram-negative antibacterial therapeutic agents that inhibit protein synthesis. Aminoglycoside antibiotics display bactericidal activity against gram-negative aerobes and some anaerobic bacilli where resistance has not yet arisen, but generally not against Gram-positive and anaerobic Gram-negative bacteria.Chloramphenicol is a bacteriostatic by inhibiting protein synthesis. It prevents protein chain elongation by inhibiting the peptidyl transferase activity of the bacterial ribosome. It specifically binds to A2451 and A2452 residues in the 23S rRNA of the 50S ribosomal subunit, preventing peptide bond formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 26
Correct
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The Afferent neuron that supplies all sensory elements of the muscle spindle is what type of sensory neuron?
Your Answer: Ia
Explanation:Muscle spindle is supplied by both sensory and motor nerves. Sensory supply is Type Ia fibers whereas motor supply is gamma motor neurone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 27
Correct
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In which organ will you find extremely porous sinusoidal capillaries, with discontinuous endothelium?
Your Answer: Liver
Explanation:The liver is the organ which contains sinusoidal capillaries with discontinuous endothelium. The brain, lungs and the intestine all contain continuous capillaries, however the kidney contains fenestrated capillaries to aid in filtration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The following can cause steatorrhea except
Your Answer: Acidic ph of intestinal contents
Correct Answer: Diseases that destroy the endocrine portion of the pancreas
Explanation:Dietary fats and lipids are usually efficiently digested and over 90% absorbed. Impaired digestion or absorption can result in fatty stools. Possible causes include exocrine (not endocrine) pancreatic insufficiency, with poor digestion from lack of lipases, loss of bile salts, which reduces micelle formation, and small intestinal disease producing malabsorption. Various other causes including certain medicines that block fat absorption, or indigestible or excess oil/fat in diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site for ischaemic damage and myocardial infarction?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: No blood flow occurs during systole
Explanation:The subendocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure due to contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the subendocardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Where in the gastrointestinal tract are Brunner glands?
Your Answer: Stomach
Correct Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:Brunner’s glands (or duodenal glands) are compound tubular submucosal glands found in that portion of the duodenum which is above the hepatopancreatic sphincter (aka sphincter of Oddi). The main function of these glands is to produce a mucus-rich alkaline secretion (containing bicarbonate) in order to:- protect the duodenum from the acidic content of chyme (which is introduced into the duodenum from the stomach);- provide an alkaline condition for the intestinal enzymes to be active, thus enabling absorption to take place; lubricate the intestinal walls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 31
Incorrect
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The small opening in the cochlea through which the upper scala vestibuli and lower scala tympani communicates is called the:
Your Answer: Oval window
Correct Answer: Helicotrema
Explanation:The helicotrema is the part of cochlear labyrinth where the scala tympani and the scala vestibuli meet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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What is the main function of vitamin E?
Your Answer: It helps in the formation of red blood cells
Correct Answer: It is an antioxidant
Explanation:Vitamin E has many biological functions, the antioxidant function being the best known. Other functions include enzymatic activities, gene expression, and neurological function(s).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which of the following enzymes is mainly responsible for the hydrolysis of polysaccharide 1:6a linkages?
Your Answer: Maltase
Correct Answer: Isomaltase
Explanation:Isomaltase is mainly responsible for hydrolysis of 1:6α linkages. Along with maltase and sucrase, it also breaks down maltotriose and maltose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 34
Incorrect
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The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of the number of:
Your Answer: Histones
Correct Answer: Base pairs
Explanation:As DNA is made up of nucleotides, its length is measured by the number of base pairs in the DNA molecules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Café-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except:
Your Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia
Explanation:Café-au-lait spots are hyperpigmented lesions that vary in colour from light brown to dark brown, with borders that may be smooth or irregular.
Causes include:
- Neurofibromatosis type I
- McCune–Albright syndrome
- Legius syndrome
- Tuberous sclerosis
- Fanconi anaemia
- Idiopathic
- Ataxia-telangiectasia
- Basal cell nevus syndrome
- Benign congenital skin lesion
- Bloom syndrome
- Chediak-Higashi syndrome
- Congenital nevus
- Gaucher disease
- Hunter syndrome
- Maffucci syndrome
- Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome
- Noonan syndrome
- Pulmonary Stenosis
- Silver–Russell syndrome
- Watson syndrome
- Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
- Medicine
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Question 36
Correct
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Pancreatic juice is usually?
Your Answer: Alkaline
Explanation:Pancreatic juice is alkaline in nature and has a high amount of bicarbonate ions. About 1500 ml is secreted every day. It also contains a large quantity of enzymes in the inactive form.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Where does the anterior pituitary receive most of its blood supply?
Your Answer: Capsular vessels
Correct Answer: Portal hypophysial vessels
Explanation:The anterior pituitary receives its arterial supply from the superior hypophyseal artery, which is a branch of the internal carotid that forms a capillary around the hypothalamus; thus forming the hypothalamo-hypophysial portal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 38
Correct
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Which of the following statements is most suitable to describe necrosis?
Your Answer: Significant inflammatory response
Explanation:Necrosis is the death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the blood supply. Cellular death due to necrosis does not follow the (regulated) apoptotic signal transduction pathway, but rather various receptors are activated, and result in the loss of cell membrane integrity and an uncontrolled release of products of cell death into the extracellular space. This initiates in the surrounding tissue an inflammatory response which attracts leukocytes and nearby phagocytes which eliminate the dead cells by phagocytosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Where is Vitamin B12 mainly stored in the body?
Your Answer: Muscle
Correct Answer: Liver
Explanation:The total amount of vitamin B12 stored in body is about 2–5 mg in adults. Around 50% of this is stored in the liver. Approximately 0.1% of this is lost per day by secretions into the gut, as not all these secretions are reabsorbed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 40
Incorrect
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The positive inotropic effect of digoxin is due to?
Your Answer: Increased intracellular c amp
Correct Answer: Inhibition of the sodium potassium ATPase in the myocardium
Explanation:Digitalis compounds are potent inhibitors of cellular Na+/K+-ATPase. This ion transport system moves sodium ions out of the cell and brings potassium ions into the cell. By inhibiting the Na+/K+-ATPase, cardiac glycosides cause the intracellular sodium concentration to increase. This then leads to an accumulation of intracellular calcium via the Na+/Ca++ exchange system. In the heart, increased intracellular calcium causes more calcium to be released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum, thereby making more calcium available to bind to troponin-C, which increases contractility (inotropy).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an example of a ketone body?
Your Answer: Acetyl CoA
Correct Answer: Acetoacetate
Explanation:Ketone bodies are three water-soluble molecules (acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate, and their spontaneous breakdown product, acetone) that are produced by the liver from fatty acids during periods of low food intake (fasting), carbohydrate restrictive diets, starvation, prolonged intense exercise, alcoholism or in untreated (or inadequately treated) type 1 diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true with AV nodal delay?
Your Answer: Vagus stimulation makes no contribution
Correct Answer: Shortened by sympathetic stimulation
Explanation:AV nodal delay Is about 0.1s before the action potential spreads to the ventricles. It is shortened by stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and lengthened by stimulation of the parasympathetic system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 43
Incorrect
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Which substance is produced by anterograde neurons?
Your Answer: Acetyl choline
Correct Answer: Nitric oxide
Explanation:Nitric oxide is thought to act as an anterograde neurotransmitter. Classically in the peripheral nervous system, it diffuses from a presynaptic nerve ending to the post synaptic effecter cell which is mainly smooth muscle cells in the gastrointestinal, respiratory and urogenital tracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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The alpha amylases hydrolyse which linkages in the ingested polysaccharides?
Your Answer: 6:1α linkages
Correct Answer: 1:4α linkages
Explanation:Alfa amylase hydrolyses the α (1-4) glyosidic bonds in amylose and amylopectin and leave primarily maltose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding pulsus alternans?
Your Answer: It is associated with right ventricular failure
Correct Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound
Explanation:Pulsus alternans is a physical finding with arterial pulse waveform showing alternating strong and weak beats. It is almost always indicative of left ventricular systolic impairment, and carries a poor prognosis. A pathological third heart sound is usually associated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 46
Incorrect
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What is the primary problem of achalasia
Your Answer: Neuronal death in lower oesophageal sphincter
Correct Answer: Deficiency of myenteric plexus at the lower oesophageal sphincter
Explanation:Oesophageal achalasia is an oesophageal motility disorder involving the smooth muscle layer of the oesophagus is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) relaxation and aperistalsis, caused primarily by the loss of the inhibitory innervation of the oesophageal myenteric plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Which one of the following transporters is involved in facilitated diffusion?
Your Answer: P-glycoprotein
Correct Answer: GLUT2
Explanation:GLUT 2 is a bidirectional transporter, allowing glucose to flow in 2 directions via facilitated diffusion. Is expressed by renal tubular cells, liver cells and pancreatic beta cells. It is also present in the basolateral membrane of the small intestine epithelium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before mitosis begins, how many chromosomes are contained in the nucleus of each somatic cell:
Your Answer: 2n
Correct Answer: 4n
Explanation:In a normal somatic cell there are 2n chromosome but in a replicating cell just before mitosis the chromosomes duplicate but are still joined via the centrosome. Thus there are 4n chromosomes. After completion of mitosis the number goes back to 2n.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 23 year old male patient presents with urethritis for the last 2 weeks that has not responded to antibiotics. Lately he has developed an onset of new range of symptoms that are linked to his HLA B27 positivity. Which of the following signs is not related to Reiter's syndrome?
Your Answer: Conjunctivitis
Correct Answer: A mild fever with a generalised macular rash
Explanation:Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. Dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 50
Incorrect
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What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value?(TP = true positive; FP = false positive; TN = true negative; FN = false negative)
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TP / (TP + FP)
Explanation:Positive predictive value is the probability that subjects with a positive screening test truly have the disease.Positive predictive value = true positive / ( true positive + false positive)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Research Skills
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
