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  • Question 1 - A patient with profuse watery diarrhoea was found to have C. difficile cytotoxin....

    Correct

    • A patient with profuse watery diarrhoea was found to have C. difficile cytotoxin. Which of the following complications is NOT a typical complication of pseudomembranous colitis:

      Your Answer: Volvulus

      Explanation:

      Dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, acute kidney injury secondary to diarrhoea, toxic megacolon, bowel perforation, and sepsis secondary to intestinal infection are all possible complications of pseudomembranous colitis.

      When the intestine twists around itself and the mesentery that supports it, an obstruction is created. This condition is known as a volvulus. Volvulus is caused by malrotation and other anatomical factors, as well as postoperative abdominal adhesions, and not by Clostridium difficile infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      21.3
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old woman presents with exacerbation of her chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD),...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with exacerbation of her chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), increased cough, wheeze and chest tightness. On examination, she is tachypnoeic and oxygen saturation is 86%. You plan to administer supplemental oxygen.

      Which oxygen delivery system is most appropriate to use initially?

      Your Answer: Non-rebreather mask

      Correct Answer: Venturi mask

      Explanation:

      In life-threatening emergencies, oxygen should be started immediately otherwise, it should be prescribed like any other drug. The prescription should include a target saturation range.

      Until blood gases can be measured, initial oxygen should be administered using a controlled concentration of 24% or 28%.
      The ideal mask is a Venturi mask.

      The other mask are not ideal for initial use

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      27.1
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which of the following is a clinical effect of hyperkalaemia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a clinical effect of hyperkalaemia:

      Your Answer: Hyperreflexia

      Correct Answer: Muscle weakness

      Explanation:

      Clinical features of hyperkalaemia may include:
      paraesthesia, muscle weakness or paralysis, cardiac conduction abnormalities and dysrhythmias.

      Clinical features of hypokalaemia may include:
      muscle weakness, muscle cramps, rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria, ascending paralysis resulting in respiratory failure, constipation, gut ileus with distension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, impaired ADH action with polyuria and polydipsia, ECG changes and cardiac arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      21.3
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old known intravenous drug user has a history of persistent high-fever. On...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old known intravenous drug user has a history of persistent high-fever. On examination you hear a harsh systolic murmur and the patient says a murmur has never been heard before in previous hospital visits. A diagnosis of endocarditis is suspect.

      Which of these antibacterial agents would be most appropriate to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin and gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Endocarditis is infective or non infective inflammation (marantic endocarditis) of the inner layer of the heart and it often involves the heart valves.

      Risk factors include:
      Prosthetic heart valves
      Congenital heart defects
      Prior history of endocarditis
      Rheumatic fever
      Illicit intravenous drug use

      In the presentation of endocarditis, the following triad is often quoted:
      Persistent fever
      Embolic phenomena
      New or changing murmur

      Flucloxacillin and gentamicin are current recommended by NICE and the BNF for the initial ‘blind’ therapy in endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      39.5
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - How is filtered K+mainly reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb of the loop...

    Incorrect

    • How is filtered K+mainly reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle:

      Your Answer: Passive paracellular transport

      Correct Answer: Secondary active transport via Na + /K + /2Cl - cotransporter

      Explanation:

      Around 30% of filtered K+is reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, primarily via the luminal Na+/K+/2Cl-cotransporter, but there is also significant paracellular reabsorption, encouraged by the positive potential in the tubular lumen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      20.9
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Regarding the hard palate, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the hard palate, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Lymphatic vessels from the palate usually drain into deep cervical lymph nodes.

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the pharynx and palate drain into the deep cervical lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      31.9
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Stimulation of J receptors located on alveolar and bronchial walls results in all...

    Incorrect

    • Stimulation of J receptors located on alveolar and bronchial walls results in all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Laryngeal constriction

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Juxtapulmonary or ‘J’ receptors are located on alveolar and bronchial walls close to the capillaries. Their afferents are small unmyelinated C-fibres or myelinated nerves in the vagus nerve. Activation causes depression of somatic and visceral activity by producing apnoea or rapid shallow breathing, a fall in heart rate and blood pressure, laryngeal constriction and relaxation of skeletal muscles via spinal neurones. J receptors are stimulated by increased alveolar wall fluid, pulmonary congestion and oedema, microembolism and inflammatory mediators. J receptors are thought to be involved in the sensation of dyspnoea in lung disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      21
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old male has an anaphylactic reaction following a wasp sting.

    What type of...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male has an anaphylactic reaction following a wasp sting.

      What type of hypersensitivity reaction is this?

      Your Answer: Type I

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction.

      It is IgE mediated.

      It requires a prior exposure to the antigen. The initial exposure sensitizes the body to the antigen and a second exposure to that antigen leads to an anaphylactic reaction.

      Massive calcium influx into the cells leads to mast cell degranulation.

      The Immunoglobulin antigen complex binds to Fc receptors on the surface of mast cells. The result is mast cell degranulation and release of histamine, proteoglycans and serum proteases from cytoplasmic granules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      10.9
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A patient is complaining of painless jaundice. His bilirubin levels are abnormally high.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is complaining of painless jaundice. His bilirubin levels are abnormally high.

      Which of the following statements about bile is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bile acids are amphipathic

      Explanation:

      The liver produces bile on a constant basis, which is then stored and concentrated in the gallbladder. In a 24-hour period, around 400 to 800 mL of bile is generated.

      Bile is involved in the following processes:
      Fats are broken down into fatty acids.
      Waste products are eliminated.
      Cholesterol homeostasis is the balance of cholesterol in the body.

      The enteric hormones cholecystokinin and secretin are primarily responsible for bile secretion. When chyme from an unprocessed meal enters the small intestine, they are released, and they play the following function in bile secretion and flow:

      Cholecystokinin promotes gallbladder and common bile duct contractions, allowing bile to reach the intestine.
      Secretin enhances the secretion of bicarbonate and water by biliary duct cells, increasing the amount of bile and its flow into the gut.

      Bile acids have a hydrophobic and hydrophilic area, making them amphipathic. Bile acids’ amphipathic nature allows them to perform the following crucial functions:

      Emulsification of lipid aggregates increases the surface area of fat and makes it easier for lipases to digest it.
      Lipid solubilization and transport: solubilizes lipids by creating micelles, which are lipid clumps that float in water.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Angiotensin II is part of the RAAS system. One of its effects is...

    Incorrect

    • Angiotensin II is part of the RAAS system. One of its effects is the constriction of efferent arterioles. Which of the following best describes the effect of angiotensin II- mediated constriction of efferent arterioles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased renal plasma flow, increased filtration fraction, increased GFR

      Explanation:

      The Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS) is a hormone system composed of renin, angiotensin, and aldosterone. Those hormones are essential for the regulation of blood pressure and fluid balance.

      Cases of hypotension, sympathetic stimulation, or hyponatremia can activate the Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). The following process will then increase the blood volume and blood pressure as a response.

      When renin is released it will convert the circulating angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. The ACE or angiotensin-converting enzyme will then catalyst its conversion to angiotensin II, which is a potent vasoconstrictor. Angiotensin II can constrict the vascular smooth muscles and the efferent arteriole of the glomerulus.

      The efferent arteriole is a blood vessel that delivers blood away from the capillaries of the kidney. The angiotensin II-mediated constriction of efferent arterioles increases GFR, reduces renal blood flow and peritubular capillary hydrostatic pressure, and increases peritubular colloid osmotic pressure, as a response to its action of increasing the filtration fraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Innate, or non-specific, immunity is the immune system we are born with.
    Which of...

    Incorrect

    • Innate, or non-specific, immunity is the immune system we are born with.
      Which of the following is NOT an example of innate immunity? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T-lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Innate, or non-specific, immunity is the immune system we are born with.
      There are three aspects of innate immunity:
      1. Anatomical barriers, such as:
      The cough reflex
      Enzymes in tears and skin oils
      Mucus – which traps bacteria and small particles
      Skin
      Stomach acid
      2. Humoral barriers, such as:
      The complement system
      Interleukin-1
      3. Cellular barriers, such as:
      Neutrophils
      Macrophages
      Dendritic cells
      Natural killer cells
      Antibody production is part of the specific, or inducible immune response. T-lymphocytesare responsible for the cell mediated immune response which is part of specific, or inducible immunity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A patient has a diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis. They have no joint prosthesis...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has a diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis. They have no joint prosthesis on indwelling metal work and no known drug allergies. He has had a recent skin swab that has cultured MRSA and MRSA infection is suspected.
      Which of the following antibacterial agents would be most appropriate to prescribe in this case? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vancomycin

      Explanation:

      In the majority of patients the commonest causative organism for osteomyelitis isStaphylococcus aureus.Salmonella spp. are the commonest cause in patients with sickle cell disease.
      Other bacteria that can cause osteomyelitis include:
      Enterobacter spp.
      Group A and B streptococcus
      Haemophilus influenzae
      The current recommendations by NICE and the BNF on the treatment of osteomyelitis are:
      Flucloxacillin first-line
      Consider adding fusidic acid or rifampicin for initial 2 weeks
      If penicillin allergic use clindamycin
      If MRSA is suspected use vancomycin
      Suggested duration of treatment is 6 weeks for acute infection

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A 32-year old male patient has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis and was...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year old male patient has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis and was given appropriate treatments. Because he is a family man, he fears that he might transmit the infection to the rest of his family members.

      The causative agent of meningococcal meningitis is spread via what mode of transmission?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory droplet route

      Explanation:

      N. meningitidis, the causative agent of meningococcal meningitis, is considered both a commensal and a pathogen. It can be found in the surfaces of mucous membranes such as the nasopharynx and oropharynx. With this, it can be transmitted from a carrier to a new host via respiratory droplet secretions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Aplastic crises in sickle cell anaemia is classically precipitated by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Aplastic crises in sickle cell anaemia is classically precipitated by which of the following infections:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      A serious complication in sickle cell disease (SCD) is the aplastic crisis. This may be caused by infection with Parvovirus B-19 (B19V). This virus causes fifth disease, a normally benign childhood disorder associated with fever, malaise, and a mild rash. This virus infects RBC progenitors in bone marrow, resulting in impaired cell division for a few days.
      Healthy people experience, at most, a slight drop in hematocrit, since the half-life of normal erythrocytes in the circulation is 40-60 days. In people with SCD, however, the RBC lifespan is greatly shortened (usually 10-20 days), and a very rapid drop in Hb occurs. The condition is self-limited, with bone marrow recovery occurring in 7-10 days, followed by brisk reticulocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A patient presents to ED with heartburn for which they already take regular...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents to ED with heartburn for which they already take regular antacids. Which of the following drugs can be affected if taken with antacids:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Antacids should preferably not be taken at the same time as other drugs since they may affect absorption. When antacids are taken with acidic drugs (e.g. digoxin, phenytoin, chlorpromazine, isoniazid) they cause the absorption of the acidic drugs to be decreased, which causes low blood concentrations of the drugs, which ultimately results in reduced effects of the drugs. Antacids taken with drugs such as pseudoephedrine and levodopa increase absorption of the drugs and can cause toxicity/adverse events due to increased blood levels of the drugs. Antacids that contain magnesium trisilicate and magnesium hydroxide when taken with some other medications (such as tetracycline) will bind to the drugs, and reduce their absorption and effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of osteomalacia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of osteomalacia:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Features of osteomalacia include:
      Bone pain (particularly bone, pelvis, ribs)
      Neuromuscular dysfunction (particularly in the gluteal muscles, leading to waddling gait
      Pseudofractures on x-ray (looser zones)
      Elevated alkaline phosphatase, hypocalcaemia and low phosphate due to secondary hyperparathyroidism

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Which of the following statements concerning the facial nerve is INCORRECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements concerning the facial nerve is INCORRECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Forehead sparing in facial nerve palsy is indicative of a lower motor neuron lesion.

      Explanation:

      In facial nerve palsy, LMN damage will involve the forehead and there will be an inability to close the eyes due to paralysis of the orbicularis oculi or raise the eyebrows due to paralysis of the occipitofrontalis muscle.
      UMN damage causes sparing of the forehead as the occipitofrontalis and orbicularis oculi muscles have bilateral cortical representation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - You are reviewing a patient in the Emergency Department brought in by the...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient in the Emergency Department brought in by the ambulance team from a burning building. After examination, you decide to intubate the patient due to laryngeal oedema. The induction agent you are planning to use is propofol.

      Which one of the following statements about this medicine is TRUE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It decreases cardiac output by approximately 20%

      Explanation:

      Propofol is a short-acting anaesthetic that is thought to work by potentiating GABA and glycine. It induces anterograde amnesia and anaesthetic effects and is used to induce anaesthesia, outpatient surgeries and preoperative sedation. The dose for induction of anaesthesia is 1.5-2.5mg/kg. The dose for maintenance of anaesthesia is 4-12 mg/kg/hour. Following intravenous injection, propofol acts within 30 seconds and its duration of action is 5-10 minutes.

      Propofol produces a 15-25% decrease in blood pressure and systemic vascular resistance without a compensatory increase in heart rate. It is negatively inotropic and decreases cardiac output by approximately 20%.

      The main side effects of propofol are:
      Pain on injection (in up to 30%)
      Hypotension
      Transient apnoea
      Hyperventilation
      Coughing and hiccough
      Headache
      Thrombosis and phlebitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - The 'bucket handle' movement of the thoracic wall describes which of the following movements:...

    Incorrect

    • The 'bucket handle' movement of the thoracic wall describes which of the following movements:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The middles of the shafts of the ribs moving upwards and laterally

      Explanation:

      Because the middles of the shafts of the ribs are lower than either the anterior or posterior end, elevation of the ribs also moves the middles of the shafts laterally. This ‘bucket handle’ upwards and lateral movement increases the lateral dimensions of the thorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A 64-year-old lady attends the emergency department with a known brain tumour. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old lady attends the emergency department with a known brain tumour. Her left eye is directed outwards and downwards, she can't open it, and her pupil is fixed and dilated. The tumour is most likely compressing which of the following structures:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      The oculomotor nerve is the third cranial nerve. It is the main source of innervation to the extraocular muscles and also contains parasympathetic fibres which relay in the ciliary ganglion. Damage to the third cranial nerve may cause diplopia, pupil mydriasis, and/or upper eyelid ptosis. The clinical manifestations of third cranial nerve dysfunction reflect its constituent parts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which of the following best describes the process of opsonisation: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the process of opsonisation:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The coating of foreign particles with molecules which allow easier recognition of that cell by phagocytes

      Explanation:

      An opsonin is any molecule that enhances phagocytosis by marking an antigen for an immune response, for example, immunoglobulin or complement. Opsonisation is the molecular mechanism whereby molecules, microbes, or apoptotic cells are chemically modified to have a stronger attraction to the cell surface receptors on phagocytes and natural killer cells. With the antigen coated in opsonins, binding to immune cells is greatly enhanced. Opsonisation also mediates phagocytosis via signal cascades from cell surface receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) also referred to as anti-nuclear factors (ANFs) are autoantibodies that...

    Incorrect

    • Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) also referred to as anti-nuclear factors (ANFs) are autoantibodies that bind to contents of the cell nucleus.

      Which ONE of these statements about ANAs is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They can be of any immunoglobulin class

      Explanation:

      Anti-nuclear antibodies(ANAs) also referred to as anti-nuclear factors (ANFs) are autoantibodies that bind to contents of the cell nucleus. They can be of any immunoglobulin class.

      CREST syndrome is usually associated with anti-centromere antibodies.

      ELISA testing is cheaper but not the most accurate means of testing for ANAs. Indirect immunofluorescence testing is the most reliable.

      Nucleolar staining is suggestive of scleroderma, while homogenous staining is suggestive of lupus.

      Anti-dsDNA antibodies are found in 80 – 90% of patients with SLE

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Clostridium tetani causes which of the following infectious diseases: ...

    Incorrect

    • Clostridium tetani causes which of the following infectious diseases:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetanus

      Explanation:

      Clostridium tetani causes tetanus.
      Scarlet fever is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.
      Toxic shock syndrome is caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.
      Gas gangrene is primarily caused by Clostridium perfringens.
      Pseudomembranous colitis is commonly caused by Clostridium difficile.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - The following are all examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are all examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contact dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Examples of type I reactions include:
      Allergic rhinitis
      Allergic conjunctivitis
      Allergic asthma
      Systemic anaphylaxis
      Angioedema
      Urticaria
      Penicillin allergy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - How does dipyridamole mediate its antiplatelet effect: ...

    Incorrect

    • How does dipyridamole mediate its antiplatelet effect:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor.

      Explanation:

      Dipyridamole inhibits both the reuptake of adenosine and phosphodiesterase, preventing the degradation of cAMP and thus blocking the platelet aggregation response to ADP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - The normal range of arterial HCO3- is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The normal range of arterial HCO3- is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 - 30 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Normal ranges:
      pH = 7.35 – 7.45
      pO2(on air) = 11 -14 kPa
      pCO2= 4.5 – 6.0 kPa
      HCO3-= 24 – 30 mmol/L
      BE = +/- 2 mmol/L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - A patient with a central line in situ for the past 10...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a central line in situ for the past 10 days now has erythema surrounding the catheter insertion site and shows signs of sepsis. You suspect line sepsis.

      Which of these antibacterial agents would be most appropriate to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vancomycin

      Explanation:

      The current recommendation by NICE and the BNF is to use vancomycin as first-line in treatment of septicaemia related to vascular catheter. A broad-spectrum antipseudomonal beta-lactam antibiotic should be added to vancomycin if a Gram-negative sepsis is suspected especially in an immunocompromised patient.

      In any patient that has had a central venous catheter in situ for a period longer than a week, it should be suspected as the source of sepsis.

      The features suggesting the vascular catheter as the source of infection include:
      Presence of the catheter before onset of fever.
      The absence of another identifiable source of infection.
      Presence of inflammation or purulent material at the insertion site or along the tunnel.
      An immunocompetent patient without any underlying disease developing bacteraemia (or fungaemia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Typically, granulomatous inflammation is associated with one of the following infections: ...

    Incorrect

    • Typically, granulomatous inflammation is associated with one of the following infections:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Granulomatous inflammation is typically seen when an infective agent with a digestion-resistance capsule (e.g. Mycobacterium tuberculosis) or a piece of inert foreign material (such as suture or glass) is introduced into the tissue. A transient acute inflammatory response occurs and when this is ineffective in eradicating the stimulus, chronic inflammation occurs.

      Tuberculosis is the prototype of the granulomatous diseases, but sarcoidosis, cat-scratch disease, lymphogranuloma inguinale, leprosy, brucellosis, syphilis, some mycotic infections, berylliosis, reactions of irritant lipids, and some autoimmune diseases are also included

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - An analytical cohort study aimed to determine a relationship between intake of dietary...

    Incorrect

    • An analytical cohort study aimed to determine a relationship between intake of dietary calcium and incidence of hip fractures among post-menopausal women. The following are the data obtained from the study:

      No. of post-menopausal women who took Calcium: 500
      No. of post-menopausal women who took Calcium and suffered a hip fracture: 10

      No. of post-menopausal women who took placebo: 500
      No. of post-menopausal women who took placebo and suffered a hip fracture: 25

      Compute for the absolute risk reduction of a hip fracture.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.03

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) is computed as the difference between the absolute risk in the control group (ARC) and the absolute risk in the treatment group (ART).

      ARR = ARC-ART
      ARR = (25/500) – (10/500)
      ARR = 0.03

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - At rest, saliva is produced predominantly by which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • At rest, saliva is produced predominantly by which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Submandibular gland

      Explanation:

      At rest, most saliva is produced by the submandibular gland (65%). When stimulated by the autonomic nervous system, about 50% of saliva is produced by the parotid gland with only 30% produced by the submandibular gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/3) 0%
Renal (0/2) 0%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
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