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  • Question 1 - If a hyalinised mass is formed from an involuted corpus leuteum, it is...

    Correct

    • If a hyalinised mass is formed from an involuted corpus leuteum, it is known as:

      Your Answer: Corpus albicans

      Explanation:

      Corpus albicans is the regressed form of the corpus leuteum. It is formed when the corpus leuteum is engulfed by macrophages and a scar or fibrous tissue is formed, called the corpus albicans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following statements is true regarding management of caesarean section? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding management of caesarean section?

      Your Answer: Uterine closure can be in 1 or 2 layers

      Explanation:

      Closure of the uterus should be performed in either single or double layers with continuous or interrupted sutures. The initial suture should be placed just lateral to the incision angle, and the closure continued to a point just lateral to the angle on the opposite side. A running stitch is often employed and this may be locked to improve haemostasis. If a second layer is used, an inverting suture or horizontal suture should overlap the myometrium. Once repaired, the incision is assessed for haemostasis and ‘figure-of-eight’
      sutures can be employed to control bleeding. Peritoneal closure is unnecessary. Abdominal closure is performed in the anatomical planes with high strength, low reactivity materials, such as polyglycolic acid or polyglactin. Diamorphine is advised for intra and post op analgesia and oxytocin is advised to reduce blood loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - At term, what is the rate of uterine blood flow per minute? ...

    Correct

    • At term, what is the rate of uterine blood flow per minute?

      Your Answer: 500 to 750 ml/min

      Explanation:

      The average volume of uterine blood flow at term is 500-750 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are called to assist in an initially midwife led delivery. Upon delivering...

    Correct

    • You are called to assist in an initially midwife led delivery. Upon delivering a female baby you notice the baby has partial fusion of the labioscrotal folds. You suspect congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which of the following genes is most likely to be mutated?

      Your Answer: CYP21A

      Explanation:

      CAH leads to virilization of the female foetus. It occurs to an enzyme deficiency (21-hydroxylase). This results in a reduced levels of corticosteroids from being circulated resulting in hyperplasia of the adrenal glands and increased progesterone production. The CYP21A gene has been implicated in causes this deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Spinnbarkheit is a term which means: ...

    Incorrect

    • Spinnbarkheit is a term which means:

      Your Answer: Mucous secretion of the cervix

      Correct Answer: Threading of the cervical mucous

      Explanation:

      Spinnability (or Spinnbarkeit), which measures the capacity of fluids to be drawn into threads, represents an indirect measurement of the adhesive and elastic properties of mucus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32 year old women who is 25 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old women who is 25 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping lower abdominal pain. On examination the cervix is closed. Fetal cardiac activity is noted on ultrasound. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Septic Miscarriage

      Correct Answer: Antepartum Haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Antepartum haemorrhage is any bleeding that occurs from the female genital tract during the antenatal period after the 24+0 week of pregnancy and prior to the birth of the baby. The most common causes are placenta previa and placental abruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks. She complains of difficulty breathing and a distended belly. U/S scan was done showing polyhydramnios and an absent gastric bubble. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Exomphalos

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal atresia

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia of the foetus interrupts the normal circulation of the amniotic fluid. This causes polyhydramnios and subsequent distension of the uterus impacting proper expansion of the lungs. This would explain the difficulty breathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding the renal tract during pregnancy, the following are true, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the renal tract during pregnancy, the following are true, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: The bladder tone increases

      Explanation:

      Incontinence in women is typically related to dysfunction of the bladder or pelvic floor muscles, with such dysfunction often arising during pregnancy or childbirth, or at the time of menopause.

      A pregnant woman may experience an increase in the size of the kidneys and ureter due to the increased blood volume and vasculature.
      Later in pregnancy, the woman might develop physiological hydronephrosis and hydroureteronephrosis, which are normal.
      There is an increase in glomerular filtration rate associated with an increase in creatinine clearance, protein, albumin excretion, and urinary glucose excretion.
      There is also an increase in sodium retention from the renal tube so oedema and water retention is a common sign in pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Your 64-year-old patient has come to you with a uterine prolapse complaint.

    Which...

    Correct

    • Your 64-year-old patient has come to you with a uterine prolapse complaint.

      Which of the following ligaments plays the most critical role in uterine prolapse pathophysiology?

      Your Answer: Uterosacral ligament

      Explanation:

      The uterus needs support in order to remain centered inside the pelvic cavity. The support it receives comes in two forms: dynamic and passive. The ligaments of the uterus have an important role in both.

      Dynamic support is provided by the pelvic diaphragm through tonic contractions while standing and sitting and active contractions during moments of increased abdominal pressure, such as coughing or sneezing. During these moments, the ligaments of the uterus transmit the force of the diaphragm towards the organ itself, maintaining its position.

      The ligaments are also crucial in providing passive support. By minimizing movement of the body and the cervix, they maintain the uterus in the typical anteverted and anteflexed position directly on top of the bladder. This provides a support for the uterus when the abdominal pressure increases.

      Hence, even though the broad ligament, round ligament and ovarian ligament have some role in the suspension of the uterus, the uterosacral ligament plays the most significant role. It is also the ligament used for surgical suspension of POP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?

      Your Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & increased Prostaglandin E2

      Correct Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Normal closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) is brought about by a number of mechanisms. Upon delivery the new born babies first breath inflates the lungs and this causes a rise in pO2. Oxygen is known to cause constriction of the DA in vivo and in vitro. In addition the decreased vascular resistance means the pressure within the lumen of the DA drops aiding closure. In addition on inflation of the lungs, the lungs produce bradykinin which stimulates smooth muscle constriction of the ductus. The most important factor is thought to be the drop in Prostaglandin E2. Prostaglandin E2 maintains patency of the Ductus in the unborn child but after birth is metabolised in the lungs and its levels fall rapidly within 3 hours of birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks of gestation comes to office for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks of gestation comes to office for a routine prenatal visit and anatomy ultrasound. Patient feels well generally and has no concerns, also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only daily medication is a prenatal vitamin. She is accompanied by her mother as her husband was unable to get off work. 

      Ultrasound shows a cephalic singleton fetus measuring at <10th percentile consistent with severe growth restriction. There are bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect.  Amniotic fluid level is normal with a posterior and fundal placenta. 

      Which of the following statements is the most appropriate initial response by the physician?

      Your Answer: Could I speak to you in private about my concerns with your ultrasound findings?

      Correct Answer: There are some things about your ultrasound that I need to discuss with you; is it okay to do that now?

      Explanation:

      SPIKES protocol for delivering serious news to patients includes:
      – Set the stage includes arranging for a private, comfortable setting space, introduce patient/family & team members, maintain eye contact & sit at the same level and schedule appropriate time interval & minimize space for interruptions.
      – Perception: Use open-ended questions to assess the patient’s/family’s perception of the medical situation.
      – Invitation: should ask patient/family how much information they would like to know and remain cognizant of their cultural, educational & religious issues.
      – Knowledge:
      Warn the patient/family that serious news is coming, Speak in simple & straightforward terms, stop & check whether they are understanding.
      – Empathy: Express understanding & give support when responding to emotions
      – Summary & strategy: Summarize & create follow-through plan, including end-of-life discussions if applicable.

      The ultrasound findings of severe growth restriction, bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect are consistent with trisomy 18, the second most common autosomal trisomy, which results in fetal loss or neonatal death in the majority of cases.  In this case, the physician is to deliver a very serious news to the patient who is presenting for a routine visit, believing her pregnancy was normal.  When serious news is unexpected, it is especially important to prepare the patient and determine how the patient would like to receive the results.
      The physician is supposed to provide a comfortable setting and must ask patient’s permission to share the results. This allows the patient to respond with her preference and avoids making assumptions about whom, if anyone, she would like to be present with.  For example, some patients may prefer to defer discussion of the results until a major support person (eg, husband, mother) is present. In addition to establish patient’s preferred setting, physician should determine how much information the patient would like to receive. Some patients will prefer a detailed medical information about diagnosis and prognosis, whereas others may prefer to have time to process the news emotionally and receive further information later.  The SPIKES protocol (Setting the stage, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Empathy, and Summary/strategy) is a six-step model that can guide physicians in delivering serious news to patients.

      These statements do not allow the patient to choose how she receives the results and assume that she does not want her mother present.

      This statement fails to prepare the patient for serious news and prematurely jumps to sharing results using technical, medical terminology that may be difficult for the patient to comprehend. This approach could also be upsetting to a patient undergoing a routine ultrasound who is not expecting anything abnormal.

      This statement inappropriately determines when and with whom the patient should receive the results. Instead the patient should be asked how she prefers to receive the results.

      While delivering unexpected, serious news, physicians should prepare the patient and determine how the patient prefers to receive the information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You see a 23 year old women in clinic with cervicitis. Which gram...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 23 year old women in clinic with cervicitis. Which gram negative intracellular organism is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Treponema pallidum

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia trachomatis (D-K subtypes) is the most common cause in this age group and fits the descriptors given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most...

    Incorrect

    • The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most common aetiology listed is:

      Your Answer: Subdural hematoma

      Correct Answer: Molding

      Explanation:

      With the help of molding, the fetal head changes its shape as the skull bones overlap. This helps in smooth delivery of the foetus through the birth canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding Human Papillomavirus, what percentage of women develop antibodies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Human Papillomavirus, what percentage of women develop antibodies?

      Your Answer: 99%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Human Papillomavirus has been is implicated in the development of genital warts as well as, head and neck, anogenital and cervical cancers, with the most important high-risk strains being 16 and 18. Over 50% of women worldwide are thought to possess antibodies against various strains of HPV after natural infection. Many infections are asymptomatic and are cleared within 2 years. Several vaccines have been formulated against HPV, one of which is Gardasil, a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV types 6,11, 16,18.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital due to contractions and spontaneous rupture of membranes. Patient underwent a cesarean delivery with her first child due to breech presentation, but this pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has no chronic medical conditions and is taking only a prenatal vitamin. 

      Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 20 kg/m2 and she has gained 15.9 kg (35 lb) during pregnancy.  On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/80 mm Hg. 

      The patient is admitted and epidural anesthesia is administered with an intrauterine pressure catheter in place. She quickly dilates to 10 cm with the fetal vertex at 0 station, occiput transverse.  Four hours later, the pelvic examination is unchanged but there is molding and caput on the fetal head.  Fetal monitoring is category I.  Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and the patient pushes with each contraction.  The contraction strength is an average of 210 MVU every 10 minutes. 

      Which among the following is most likely the etiology for this patient’s clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Fetal malposition

      Explanation:

      Condition where there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours in nulliparous and ≥2 hours if multiparous women is defined as Second stage arrest of labor. Common risk factors for this presentation are maternal obesity, excessive weight gain during pregnancy and diabetes mellitus. Cephalopelvic disproportion, malposition, inadequate contractions and maternal exhaustion are the common etiologies of Second stage arrest of labor. Management includes Operative vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery as indicated in the case.

      The second stage of labor begins with the dilatation of cervix to 10 cm and will end with fetal delivery. Parity and use of neuraxial anesthesia are the two factors which will affect the duration of second stage of labor and fetal station, which measures the descent of the fetal head through the pelvis determines its progression.

      When there is no fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours or ≥2 hours in in nulliparous and multiparous patients respectively the condition is called an arrested second stage of labor. As her first delivery was a cesarean session due to breech presentation, this patient in the case is considered as nulliparous.

      Most common cause of a protracted or arrested second stage is fetal malposition, which is the relation between the fetal presenting part to the maternal pelvis. Occiput anterior is the optimal fetal position as it facilitates the cardinal movements of labor, any deviations from this position like in occiput transverse position, can lead to cephalopelvic disproportion resulting in second stage arrest.
      Inadequate contractions, that is less than 200 MVU averaged over 10 minutes, can lead to labor arrest but contractions are adequate in case of the patient mentioned.
      Second stage arrest can be due to maternal obesity and excessive weight gain during pregnancy but this patient had a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 20 kg/m2 and an appropriate weight gain of 15.9 kg 35 lb. So this also cannot be the reason.

      Maternal expulsive efforts will change the fetal skull shape. This process called as molding helps to facilitate delivery by changing the fetal head into the shape of the pelvis. Whereas prolonged pressure on head can result in scalp edema which is called as caput, presence of both molding and caput suggest cephalopelvic disproportion, but is not suggestive of poor maternal effort.

      Patients with a prior history of uterine myomectomy or cesarean delivery are at higher risk for uterine rupture.  In cases of uterine rupture, the patient will present with fetal heart rate abnormalities, sudden loss of fetal station (eg, going from +1 to −3 station) along with fetal retreat upward and into the abdominal cavity through the uterine scar due to decreased intrauterine pressure. In the given case patient’s fetal heart rate tracing is category 1 and fetal station has remained 0 which are non suggestive of uterine rupture.

      When there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing ≥3 hours in nulliparous patients or ≥2 hours in multiparous patients is considered as second stage arrest of labor. The most common cause of second stage arrest is cephalopelvic disproportion, were the fetus presents in a nonocciput anterior position called as fetal malposition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She is in the 26th week of gestation and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her second child was born macrosomic with shoulder dystocia, which was a very difficult labour.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Recommend a weight loss program

      Correct Answer: Watchful waiting till she goes in labour

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication associated with fetal macrosomia and may result in neurological dysfunction. Fetal macrosomia is generally defined as birth weight – 4,000 g. It occurs in about 10% of pregnancies and one of the most important predictors of fetal macrosomia is previous macrosomic infant(s). The recurrence rate of fetal macrosomia is above 30%. Other risk factors are maternal diabetes, multiparity, prolonged gestation, maternal obesity, excessive weight gain, male foetus, and parental stature- Not all cases of fetal macrosomia lead to shoulder dystocia and the occurrence of this complication is only 0.5%-1% of all pregnancies.

      To make clinical decision regarding management of the patient, it is important to understand that there are other factors that lead to shoulder dystocia, such as the mother’s anatomy. While statistics suggest that there’s a tendency to choose elective Caesarean delivery for suspected macrosomia, it is believed that most of procedures are unnecessary, as evidence has shown the number of complications are not reduce- Also while it is logical to consider induction of labour at the 37th week of pregnancy, it is associated with increased Caesarean deliveries because of failed inductions. The recommended course of action is watchful waiting till the patient goes in labour.

      → Induce labour at the 37th week of gestation is not the best course of action, as it is associated with high failure rate, which often leads to Caesarean delivery.
      → Schedule elective Caesarean delivery is considered unnecessary in patients who do not have diabetes. Statistics have shown no evidence that Caesarean delivery reduces the rate of complications.
      → Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation is incorrect. The strategies used to predict fetal macrosomia are risk factors, Leopold’s manoeuvres, and ultrasonography. Even when they are combined, they are considered inaccurate; much less ultrasonography alone.
      → At this point, blood glucose control in pregnancies associated with diabetes seems to have desired results in preventing macrosomia- A weight loss program is usually not recommended- Instead, expectant management should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for advice since her other two children were diagnosed with whooping cough just 8 weeks ago, she is worried for her newborn about the risk of developing whooping cough.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give to the patient?

      Your Answer: Give Pertussis vaccine booster DPTa after delivery

      Correct Answer: Give Pertussis vaccine booster DPTa now

      Explanation:

      To help protect babies during this time when they are most vulnerable, women should get the tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (Tdap) during each pregnancy.

      Pregnant women should receive Tdap anytime during pregnancy if it is indicated for wound care or during a community pertussis outbreak.
      If Tdap is administered earlier in pregnancy, it should not be repeated between 27 and 36 weeks gestation; only one dose is recommended during each pregnancy.

      Optimal timing is between 27 and 36 weeks gestation (preferably during the earlier part of this period) to maximize the maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the infant.
      Fewer babies will be hospitalized for and die from pertussis when Tdap is given during pregnancy rather than during the postpartum period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following ultrasound findings form part of the Rotterdam criteria for...

    Correct

    • Which of the following ultrasound findings form part of the Rotterdam criteria for diagnosis of PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome) ?

      Your Answer: Increased ovarian volume >10cm3

      Explanation:

      The Rotterdam criteria for the diagnosis of PCOS is based on a score of two out of the three criteria:
      1) Oligo or anovulation
      2) Hyperandrogenism – clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone)
      3) on ultrasound – contain 12 or more follicles measuring 2 to 9 mm in diameter and/or have an increased volume of 10 cm3 or greater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      63.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Evidence from meta-analysis of RCTs is what level of evidence? ...

    Incorrect

    • Evidence from meta-analysis of RCTs is what level of evidence?

      Your Answer: IV

      Correct Answer: Ia

      Explanation:

      The levels of evidence range from I-IV:
      1a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) or metanalysis of randomized controlled trials: highest level of evidence.
      1b: Individual randomized controlled trial (with narrow confidence interval)
      1c: All or none randomized controlled trials
      2a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) of cohort studies
      2b: Individual cohort study or low quality randomized controlled trials (e.g. <80% follow-up)
      2c: Outcomes Research; ecological studies
      3a: Systematic review (with homogeneity) of case-control studies
      3b: Individual case-control study
      4: Case series (and poor quality cohort and case-control studies)
      5: Expert opinion without explicit critical appraisal, or based on physiology, bench research or first principles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 23-year-old female came to see you because of absent menses for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female came to see you because of absent menses for the last 5 months. She reports that in the past, menstrual periods were regular, every 28 days. Her first menstrual periods were at the age of 12. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and they use condoms consistently. She does not use oral contraceptive pills. She eats a healthy diet and does not smoke or drink alcohol.
      Physical examination is non-remarkable. Pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this patient?

      Your Answer: Order a progesterone withdrawal test

      Correct Answer: Order TSH and prolactin level

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with secondary amenorrhea, a condition diagnosed in patients with – 3 months of absence of menstruation when they had regular menstruation previously or absence of menstruation for 9 months in a patient who had oligomenorrhea- This differs from primary amenorrhea, which is defined as absence of menstrual periods in a female by the age 16 when she has other secondary sexual characteristics or absence of menstrual periods by the age of 14 when she does not have any other secondary sexual characteristics.

      In female patients of child-bearing age, the initial test in evaluating secondary amenorrhea is the pregnancy test. This test has been done in this patient and it is negative- The next step in evaluation in this patient should be serum TSH and prolactin level measurements. Thyroid disease and pituitary pathologies are some of the most common causes of secondary amenorrhea- If these tests were to be found normal, the progesterone challenge test would be the following test as this allows evaluation whether amenorrhea is due to progesterone deficiency in a patient with normal oestrogen levels.

      → Order FSH and LH level is incorrect. These studies are done if the progesterone withdrawal test is negative but the oestrogen-progesterone challenge test is positive; however, the patient should first have TSH and prolactin level measured; the progesterone withdrawal test is only done if TSH and prolactin are normal.
      → Order a progesterone withdrawal test is incorrect. As explained above, this test is ordered if TSH and prolactin levels are normal in a patient suspected to have secondary amenorrhea.
      → Order pelvic ultrasound is incorrect. This study is more important in primary amenorrhea evaluation as it can help confirm the presence or absence of a uterus. This patient who has had menstrual periods before does certainly have a uterus.
      → Order brain MRI is incorrect. Given how expensive this study is, it should not be done before prolactin levels are found to be significantly high, raising suspicion of a pituitary pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      57
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the...

    Incorrect

    • Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the foetus is male and the mother has had an affected son previously. Choose the single most likely condition from the following list of options. 7

      Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Duchene muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      The condition should be an X-linked recessive condition, as it affects only male offspring. Duchene muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive condition. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. Spina bifida is a multifactorial condition. Down syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. Spinal muscular atrophies are inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      76.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450?

      Your Answer: Levetiracetam

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      It is important to be aware of which ant-epileptics induce cytochrome P450. Of the above Topiramate and Phenytoin are moderate and strong inducers respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements regarding Management of Beta Thalassaemia in Pregnancy is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding Management of Beta Thalassaemia in Pregnancy is not part of the RCOG guidelines?

      Your Answer: Women should be offered serial fetal biometry scans every 4 weeks from 24 weeks of gestation

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 mg daily should be commenced 12 months prior to conception

      Explanation:

      Women with Beta-Thalassaemia require significant extra input during pregnancy. Folic acid 5 mg daily should be commenced 3 months prior to conception in these patients. NOTE Women with thalassaemia who have undergone splenectomy OR have a platelet count >600 should continue or be commenced on Aspirin (75 mg/day)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A patient present to the clinic with a 1 day history of vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A patient present to the clinic with a 1 day history of vaginal prolapse. Upon examination, the vagina is 1.5 cm below the vaginal plane. What grade is the prolapse according to the POP-Q classification?

      Your Answer: Grade 0

      Correct Answer: Grade 3

      Explanation:

      Pelvic organ prolapse is a common condition amongst ageing women where a weakness in the pelvic support structures of the pelvic floor allows pelvic viscera to descend.
      The Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification system (POP-Q) is useful for describing and staging the severity of the pelvic organ prolapse.
      Grade 1: the most distal portion of the prolapse is more than 1 cm above the level of the hymen
      Grade 2: the most distal portion of the prolapse is 1 cm or less proximal or distal to the hymenal plane
      Grade 3: the most distal portion of the prolapse protrudes more than 1 cm below the hymen but protrudes no farther than 2 cm less than the total vaginal length (for example, not all of the vagina has prolapsed)
      Grade 4: vaginal eversion complete

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Excessive increased level of β-HCG is expected in: ...

    Correct

    • Excessive increased level of β-HCG is expected in:

      Your Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Human chorionic gonadotropin levels dynamically increase during early gestation and the levels are significantly greater in viable pregnancies than in ectopic gestation, biochemical pregnancy, or spontaneous abortions. Similarly, the hCG concentrations are significantly higher in multiple pregnancy as compared with singleton.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      59.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) typically follows which pattern of inheritance ...

    Incorrect

    • Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) typically follows which pattern of inheritance

      Your Answer: Autosomal Recessive

      Correct Answer: Autosomal Dominant

      Explanation:

      PKD can follow either Autosomal dominant or recessive inheritance. Autosomal dominant is however the most common inheritance pattern and is seen in adult PKD. Infantile PKD is recessive

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her cervical screening test. According to the study, she has a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion as well as HPV non-16 and 18 subtypes. She had never previously had a cervical screening.

      What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Repeat HPV test immediately

      Correct Answer: Repeat HPV test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      All other options are not acceptable for the above mentioned reasons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - At the 18th week of her pregnancy, a 32-year-old woman presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • At the 18th week of her pregnancy, a 32-year-old woman presents with a fishy-smelling, thin, white homogeneous, and offensive vaginal discharge. Under light microscopy, a sample of the discharge contains clue cells.

      Which of the following assertions about this condition is correct?

      Your Answer: Her sexual partner need to be treated as well

      Correct Answer: There is a relapse rate of over 50% in 6 months

      Explanation:

      Reported cure rates for an episode of acute BV vary but have been estimated to be between 70% and 80%. Unfortunately, more than 50% of BV cases will recur at least once within the following 12 months. Because the aetiology of BV is still not entirely understood, identifying the cause of recurrent cases is challenging. Reinfection may play a role in explaining recurrent BV, but
      treatment failure is a more likely contributor. There are several theories that try to explain recurrence and persistent symptoms. The existence of a biofilm in the vagina is one such theory and is the subject of ongoing research. Biofilms occur when microorganisms adhere to surfaces. G vaginalis, one of the primary organisms

      BV is not a sexually transmitted infection. The antibiotic of choice to treat BV is Metronidazole. Reassurance is not acceptable as a means of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      57.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 28 year old women presents at 30 weeks complaining of intense itching...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old women presents at 30 weeks complaining of intense itching particularly on the hands and feet that is worse in the evenings. She has taken cetirizine but this hasn't settled her symptoms. Examination is unremarkable with no rash. What is the likely diagnosis

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis

      Correct Answer: Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The history is typical of Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis and prurigo gravidarum. The features are: Intense itching typically of the hands and feet Itch gets worse at night Responds poorly to antihistamines There is no rash. The mechanism is poorly understood but tests may show deranged LFTs. It usually resolves quickly after delivery. The other diagnoses listed are possible though less likely. Scabies normally has a rash

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A young female patient presents at a family clinic seeking advice about her...

    Incorrect

    • A young female patient presents at a family clinic seeking advice about her options for contraception. She is considering taking combined OCPS but is worried about the risk of cancer with long term use.

      Which of the following is increased by OCPs?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cancer

      Correct Answer: Cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      The risks of breast and cervical cancers are increased in women who use oral contraceptives, whereas the risks of endometrial, ovarian, and colorectal cancers are reduced.

      Women who have used oral contraceptives for 5 or more years have a higher risk of cervical cancer than women who have never used oral contraceptives. The longer a woman uses oral contraceptives, the greater the increase in her risk of cervical cancer.

      One study found a 10% increased risk for less than 5 years of use, a 60% increased risk with 5–9 years of use, and a doubling of the risk with 10 or more years of use. However, the risk of cervical cancer has been found to decline over time after women stop using oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the time. It started initially as some leakage of urine with sneezing or coughing, but now she leaks while walking to the bathroom. She voids frequently during the day and several times each night, also sometimes patient feels an intense urge to urinate but passes only a small amount when she tries to void.  She now wears a pad every day and plans her social outings based on bathroom access. Patient had no history of dysuria or hematuria and had 2 vaginal deliveries in her 20s. She drinks alcohol socially, takes 2 or 3 cups of coffee each morning, and “drinks lots of water throughout the day.”  When asked about which urinary symptoms are the most troublesome, the patient is unsure. 

      Among the following which is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Voiding diary

      Explanation:

      This patient experiences a stress based mixed urinary incontinence presented as leakage of urine while sneezing or coughing and urgency which is an intense urge to urinate with small voiding volume as her symptoms. Urinary incontinence is common and may cause significant distress in some, as seen in this patient who wears a pad every day.  Initial evaluation of mixed incontinence includes maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify the predominant type of urinary incontinence and thereby to determine an optimal treatment by tracking the fluid intake, urine output and leaking episodes.

      All patients with mixed incontinence generally require bladder training along with lifestyle changes like weight loss, smoking cessation, decreased alcohol and caffeine intake and practicing pelvic floor muscle exercises like Kegels. Depending on the predominant type, patients who have limited or incomplete symptom relief with bladder training may benefit from pharmacotherapy or surgery.

      In patients with urgency-predominant incontinence, timed voiding practice like urinating on a fixed schedule rather than based on a sense of urgency along with oral antimuscarinics are found to be useful.

      Surgery with a mid-urethral sling is performed in patients with stress-predominant incontinence which is due to a weakened pelvic floor muscles as in cystocele.

      In patients with a suspected urethral diverticulum or vesicovaginal fistula, a cystoscopy is usually indicated but is not used in initial evaluation of urinary incontinence due to its cost and invasiveness.

      Urodynamic testing involves measurement of bladder filling and emptying called as cystometry, urine flow, and pressure (eg, urethral leak point).  This testing is typically reserved for those patients with complicated urinary incontinence, who will not respond to treatment or to those who are considering surgical intervention.

      Initial evaluation of mixed urinary incontinence is done by maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify predominant type of urinary incontinence into stress predominant or urgency predominant and thereby to determine the optimal treatment required like bladder training, surgical intervention, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 24 year old lady is 9 weeks pregnant with her first child....

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old lady is 9 weeks pregnant with her first child. She attends clinic complaining of severe vomiting and is unable to keep fluids down. The most likely diagnosis is hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following is the underlying cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased circulating HCG

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, associated with weight loss of more than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight, dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. HG is usually most severe during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy and is thought to be caused by high circulating levels of HCG.

      There is not yet any evidence that pregnancy itself increases the sensitivity of the area postrema, or that the hormones, oestradiol, or progesterone increase vomiting. Generally, higher concentrations of dopamine stimulates receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone leading to nausea and vomiting. Although this has not been demonstrated as the cause of hyperemesis gravidarum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - All are true about monozygotic pregnancy, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • All are true about monozygotic pregnancy, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The 1st commonly presents as breech

      Explanation:

      The 1st commonly presents as cephalic. Monozygotic (MZ) twins originate when a single egg is fertilized to form one zygote, which then divides into two embryos. Although they share the same genotype they are not phenotypically identical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which one of the following statements best suits Androgen insensitivity syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements best suits Androgen insensitivity syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonadectomy must be performed after puberty because of the increased risk of malignancy

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome patients have 46XY chromosomes. They are males by genotype but appear as female because of insensitivity to male hormones. It is advisable to perform gonadectomy in these patients after puberty because these patients are at increased risk of developing malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long? ...

    Incorrect

    • Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2-3 days

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin can also stimulate after pains that occur 2-3 following delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 55 year old patient with a who has tried unsuccessful conservative measures...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old patient with a who has tried unsuccessful conservative measures for her overactive bladder, would like to consider Oxybutynin. She wants to know how common dry mouth is as a side effect, as her sister suffered from it on while on the same drug.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: approximately 1 in 10 patients

      Explanation:

      Urinary incontinence can be divided into two main aetiologies, stress incontinence, or overactive bladder. Conservative management include lifestyle interventions, controlling fluid intake, or bladder exercises. If conservative management is no longer efficient, then medications may be indicated. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic drug used in the treatment of urinary incontinence. As with other anticholinergic drugs, side effects include dry mouth, dry eyes, blurry vision and constipation. About 1 in 10 patients taking Oxybutynin will experience some of these side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends approximately a quarter of the thickness through the external anal sphincter. How would you classify this tear?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3a

      Explanation:

      1. First-degree trauma corresponds to lacerations of the skin/vaginal epithelium alone.
      2. Second-degree tears involve perineal muscles and therefore include episiotomies.
      3. Third-degree extensions involve any part of the anal sphincter complex (external and internal sphincters):
      i Less than 50 per cent of the external anal
      sphincter is torn.
      ii More than 50 per cent of the external anal
      sphincter is torn.
      iii Tear involves the internal anal sphincter
      (usually there is complete disruption of the
      external sphincter).
      4. Fourth-degree tears involve injury to the anal sphincter complex extending into the rectal mucosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She is 34 weeks gestation and her blood pressure is 147/96. Automated reagent strip testing shows protein 2+. You send for a protein:creatinine ratio and this shows a ratio of 36 mg/mmol. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit for observation

      Explanation:

      It is important to be aware of the difference between management of simple hypertension and pre-eclampsia in pregnancy. A BP of 140/90 to 149/99 mmHg is classed as mild hypertension. Without proteinuria this can be monitored once weekly and the patient can be discharged. If proteinuria is present with any degree of hypertension the patient requires admission and BP should be monitored at least 4 times daily according to NICE guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal head during labour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischial Spine

      Explanation:

      The ischial spines and palpable through the vagina and are used as landmarks to assess the decent of the fetal head from the cervix. It also serves as a landmark for giving the pudendal block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 22-year-old female in her 18th week of pregnancy presented with right iliac...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female in her 18th week of pregnancy presented with right iliac fossa pain while getting up from a chair and has been coughing and sneezing.

      On examination, there is no palpable mass or rebound tenderness.

      What will be the most likely cause for patient's complaint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Round ligament strain

      Explanation:

      Patient’s symptoms and signs are suggestive of round ligament strain, which is a normal finding during pregnancy, especially in the 2nd trimester, and it does not require any medical intervention.

      Round ligament is a rope-like fibromuscular band which extends from the anterolateral aspect of uterus anteriorly between the layers of the broad ligament, and passing through the deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal.
      A sharp, sudden spasm in the right iliac fossa which lasts for a few seconds which is usually triggered by sneezing, coughing, laughing and rolling over in bed are the common presentations of a round ligament pain.

      Ectopic pregnancy and rupture of ectopic pregnancy are two unlikely diagnosis in this patient as she is in the second trimester of her pregnancy, whereas both the mentioned conditions occur during the first trimester.

      Although appendicitis presents with pain in right iliac fossa, the pain is not causes by coughing or sneezing. Also, there will be other symptoms like tenderness and rebound tenderness in right iliac fossa in case of appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following statements is true regarding heart rate in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding heart rate in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heart rate increases by 15 beats per minute

      Explanation:

      During the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, cardiac output increases by about 30-50%. To maintain this increase, systemic vascular resistance decreases by 20-30%, while stroke volume and the heart rate increase by 25-30% and 15 beats per minute respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Oxytocin binds to what receptor type? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oxytocin binds to what receptor type?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G-protein-coupled receptors

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin binds to the G protein coupled receptors that triggers the IP3 mechanism leading to an elevated intracellular calcium ion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - What form is 99% of body calcium found in? ...

    Incorrect

    • What form is 99% of body calcium found in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Calcium phosphate salts are the most abundant form of calcium in the body, making up 99%. The majority of these salts are stored in the skeleton in different forms, mostly, hydroxyapatite, a lattice-like crystal composed of calcium, phosphates and hydroxide. The remaining calcium can be found in the extracellular fluid, tissues and skeletal muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You...

    Incorrect

    • While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You explain that additional testing is necessary because of the woman's increased risk of congenital anomalies in which system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary

      Explanation:

      Bicornuate uterus is associated with an increased chance of urinary tract anomalies. Urinary tract anomalies were present in about 23.6% of cases of bicornuate uterus patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 46-year-old mother of three teenagers has been using the combination oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old mother of three teenagers has been using the combination oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive pill for ten years and has had regular light menstrual cycles during that time. She stopped taking it three months ago. She hasn't had a period since then, except the one she had right after she stopped. She is quite worried and believes she is pregnant, even though she has no additional symptoms that point to this conclusion. A large retroverted uterus is discovered during a vaginal examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate piece of advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A pregnancy test should be performed.

      Explanation:

      Despite the fact that pregnancy at her age is uncommon, the best advise you can give her is to take a pregnancy test.

      If the test results show she is not pregnant, she can next decide whether to restart the oral contraceptive pill (0CP) or simply weep until the post-pill amenorrhoea goes away.

      Although an increased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level may indicate ovarian failure, it does not guarantee that no more periods will occur and does not rule out the possibility of a future pregnancy.

      Obviously, she should be recommended to use a contraceptive method like condoms until the cause of her amenorrhoea is determined.
      Other hormonal tests, such as luteinizing hormone and prolactin testing, may be required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of the following statements regarding BRCA gene mutations is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding BRCA gene mutations is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They account for around 25% of inherited breast cancers

      Explanation:

      Hereditary breast cancers account for 10 % of the cases. BRCA gene mutations account for 25 % of these cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where...

    Incorrect

    • The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where is it located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilium

      Explanation:

      Arcuate means ‘bow shaped’ and there are different arcuate lines in anatomical terms. Regarding the pelvic brim this is composed of the arcuate line of the ilium, pectineal line and prominences of sacrum and pubic symphysis (as demonstrated in the images below). As can be seen the arcuate line is a smooth rounded border on the internal surface of the ilium inferior to the iliac fossa and Iliacus. Image sourced from Wikipedia Note: The pelvic outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of the following is a DNA virus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a DNA virus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B is a DNA virus. All the others are RNA viruses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which of the following studies is most appropriate to assess the efficacy of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following studies is most appropriate to assess the efficacy of a new medication to reduce pain caused by endometriosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Randomised Control Trial

      Explanation:

      Randomized control trials are the gold standard when it comes to assessing the treatment options or interventions in medicine. Since its introduction, RCT has questioned the validity of treatments such as oral hypoglycaemic agents, myocardial infarction hospitalization, varicose veins, toxicity and applicability of many preventive and therapeutic procedures. The basic steps include drawing up the protocol, selecting a study population, randomization, intervention, follow up and assessment of the outcome. Note if assessing prognosis or diagnostic tests Cohort and Cross Sectional Analysis are best.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Bishop scoring is used for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Bishop scoring is used for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The success rate of induction of the labour

      Explanation:

      The Bishop score is a system used by medical professionals to decide how likely it is that you will go into labour soon. They use it to determine whether they should recommend induction, and how likely it is that an induction will result in a vaginal birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds

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Physiology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Management (1/1) 100%
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