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  • Question 1 - During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the...

    Incorrect

    • During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the posterior vagal trunk is injured. This damage would affect muscular movements as well as some secretory activities of the gastrointestinal tract. Which gastrointestinal segment is LEAST likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Jejunum

      Correct Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic fibres to the abdominal structures that are receive arterial supply from the coeliac trunk or superior mesenteric artery i.e. up to the transverse colon. The end of the transverse colon and the gastrointestinal structures distal to this point receive parasympathetic innervation from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and blood from the inferior mesenteric artery(IMA). The ascending colon, caecum, jejunum and ileum would all, thus, be affected by this damage. Sigmoid colon would not be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      115.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - With respect to far accommodation, which of the following is a TRUE statement?...

    Correct

    • With respect to far accommodation, which of the following is a TRUE statement?

      Your Answer: The ciliary muscles are relaxed

      Explanation:

      Myopia or near-sightedness is a disease due to elongated eyeballs or too strong a lens. For far accommodation (focus of a distant object onto the retina), the lens needs to decrease its refractive power, or in other words, increase its focal length. This is done by relaxation of ciliary muscles which tightens the zonular fibres and flattening of the lens. Relaxation of the zonular fibres, rounding of the lens, shortening of the focal length and constriction of the pupil occurs during near accommodation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which Statement is true of the brachial plexus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which Statement is true of the brachial plexus?

      Your Answer: The medial cord continues as the musculocutaneous nerve

      Correct Answer: The posterior cord continues as the axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      The lateral cord continues as the musculocutaeous nerve.

      The medial cord continues as the ulnar nerve.

      The posterior cord continues as the radial nerve and the axillary nerve.

      The nerve to subclavius muscle is a branch of the C6 root.

      The suprascapular nerve is a branch from the upper trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A young man was thrown from a vehicle in a collision. He landed...

    Correct

    • A young man was thrown from a vehicle in a collision. He landed on his head and shoulder tip, stretching the left side of his neck. A neurological examination revealed that the fifth and sixth cervical nerves had been torn from the spinal cord. What is the most obvious clinical manifestation of this?

      Your Answer: Abduction

      Explanation:

      In the case of injuries to the upper roots of the brachial plexus there is complete loss of abduction. The muscle performing this movement is the supraspinatus. This initiates the movement, followed by the deltoid muscle, which allows for complete abduction. Both these muscles are innervated by nerves originating from C5 and C6. The injury to these roots results in a condition named Erb-Duchenne’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 20-year old college student was diagnosed with meningitis that had developed due...

    Correct

    • A 20-year old college student was diagnosed with meningitis that had developed due to an acute cavernous sinus thrombosis from an ear infection. Which of the following superficial venous routes is the usual path that an infected blood clot takes to reach the cavernous sinus?

      Your Answer: Facial vein

      Explanation:

      The facial vein is the usual communication between the cavernous sinus and the pterygoid sinus. It is through this vein that an infected clot can travel to the cavernous sinus and cause infection. The pterygoid plexus is a venous plexus that is situated between the temporalis muscle and lateral pterygoid muscle, and partly between the two pterygoid muscles. The pterygoid plexus is connected to the facial vein by the deep facial vein. This connection is what makes this area where this sinus and the facial vein are located a danger zone. The danger zone or triangle of the face is the area from the corners of the mouth to the nose bridge. The sinus connection in this area makes it possible for infection to reach the cavernous sinus and at times cause meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      77.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior...

    Correct

    • The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior abdominal wall is arranged around a horizontal plane above which drainage is in a cranial direction and below which drainage is in a caudal direction. Which horizontal plane is being referred to?

      Your Answer: Level of the umbilicus

      Explanation:

      The umbilicus is a key landmark for the lymphatic and venous drainage of the abdominal wall. Above it, lymphatics drain into the axillary lymph nodes and the venous blood drains into the superior epigastric vein, into the internal thoracic vein. Below it, lymphatics drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes while venous blood drains into the inferior epigastric vein and the external iliac vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - When conducting an exploratory laparotomy procedure of a patient diagnosed with a bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • When conducting an exploratory laparotomy procedure of a patient diagnosed with a bleeding ulcer of the lesser curvature of the stomach, which artery in this patient are you most likely to ligate to control the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Short gastric

      Correct Answer: Left gastric

      Explanation:

      The lesser curvature of the stomach is supplied by the left gastric artery along with the right gastric artery. These two arteries are the ones to most likely be ligated if bleeding was to be stopped at the lesser curvature of the stomach. The splenic artery branches from the celiac branch and supplies the spleen. The left gastro-omental, the right and left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      72.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of these structures does NOT pass posterior to the medial malleolus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these structures does NOT pass posterior to the medial malleolus?

      Your Answer: Saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      The saphenous vein passes anterior to the medial malleolus. The structures passing posterior, from nearest to furthest include: tibial, posterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery, posterior tibial vein, posterior tibial nerve and the flexor hallucis longus tendon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      147.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The pudendal nerve is derived from? ...

    Correct

    • The pudendal nerve is derived from?

      Your Answer: S2, S3, S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve derives it’s fibres from the ventral branches of the second, third and fourth sacral nerves (S2,3,4)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The vagus nerve passes through which of the following foramen? ...

    Incorrect

    • The vagus nerve passes through which of the following foramen?

      Your Answer: Foramen magnum

      Correct Answer: Jugular foramen

      Explanation:

      The jugular foramen is a large foramen in the base of the skull. It is located behind the carotid canal and is formed in front by the petrous portion of the temporal bone, and behind by the occipital bone. Cranial nerves IX, X, and XI and the internal jugular vein pass through the jugular foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm?

      Your Answer: Scarpa’s fascia

      Correct Answer: Perineal membrane

      Explanation:

      The urogenital fascia is mostly commonly referred to as the perineal membrane. This term refers to an anatomical fibrous membrane in the perineum. It is triangular in shape, and thus at times referred to as the triangular ligament. It is about 4 cm in depth. Its The perineal membrane’s apex is anterior and is separated from the arcuate pubic ligament by an oval opening for the passage of the deep dorsal vein of the penis. The lateral marginas of this triangular ligament are attached on either side to the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium, above the crus penis. Its base faces the rectum, and connects to the central tendinous point of the perineum. The pelvic fascia and Colle’s fascia is fused to the base of this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      99.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of...

    Correct

    • On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of the axillary artery was found to be transected. Which of the following arteries would have been likely injured?

      Your Answer: Anterior circumflex humeral

      Explanation:

      The axillary artery gives off many branches from the first, second, or third parts along its course. The third part of the axillary artery gives off 3 branches: the subscapular, anterior and posterior circumflex humeral arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing...

    Correct

    • The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing an indirect inguinal hernia in a female patient. Which structure could this be?

      Your Answer: Round ligament of the uterus

      Explanation:

      The main structure traversing the inguinal canal in women is the round ligament. In men, it is the spermatic cord.

      The iliohypogastric nerve innervates the abdominal wall and runs between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles before piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to run between the internal and external obliques.

      The inferior epigastric artery is between the peritoneum and the transversus abdominis creating the lateral umbilical fold.

      The ovarian artery and the ovarian vein are branches from the descending aorta and inferior vena cava that supply the ovary in the pelvic cavity.

      The pectineal ligament is a thick fascial layer over the pectineal line of the pubis. It doesn’t traverse the canal.

      The broad ligament if found on the lateral sides of the uterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      212.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following diseases causes abrupt vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and nystagmus?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following diseases causes abrupt vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and nystagmus?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Explanation:

      Vestibular neuronitis or labyrinthitis causes a self-limited episode of vertigo, presumably due to inflammation of the vestibular division of cranial nerve VIII. Its causes are unknown, It may be due to a virus, but it can be related to a bacterial infection, head injury, stress, allergy, or as a reaction to medication. Symptoms can last up to 7-10 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic with a lump in the inguinal region. He was booked for surgery, during which, the surgeon opened the inguinal region and found a hernial sac with a small segment of intestine projecting through the abdominal wall. It was located just above the inguinal ligament and lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. What type of hernia was this?

      Your Answer: A direct inguinal hernia

      Correct Answer: An indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      An indirect inguinal hernia exits the abdominal cavity lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels and enters the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring. These are the most common types of hernias often caused by heavy weigh lifting. Direct inguinal hernias exit the abdominal cavity medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through weak fascia.

      Congenital inguinal hernias are indirect hernias that occur due to persistence of the processus vaginalis.

      Femoral hernias occur when abdominal viscera push through the femoral ring in the femoral canal.

      Incisional hernia occurs after surgery when the omentum or organ protrudes through a previous site of incision.

      Obturator hernia are a very rare type of hernia where the pelvic or abdominal contents protrude through the obturator foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome?

      Your Answer: Viral pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is characterized by a rapid-onset muscle weakness caused by the immune system damaging the peripheral nervous system. In about two-thirds of patients, the syndrome begins 5 days to 3 weeks after an infectious disease, surgery or vaccination. Infection is the trigger in over 50% of patients; common pathogens include Campylobacter jejuni, enteric viruses, herpesviruses (including cytomegalovirus and those causing infectious mononucleosis) and Mycoplasma species. The underlying mechanism involves an autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves and damages their myelin insulation, although the cause for this is still unknown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to...

    Incorrect

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to indicate the position of the deep inguinal ring. You indicate this as being:

      Your Answer: Medial to the inferior epigastric artery

      Correct Answer: Above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring is near the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, below the anterior superior iliac spine. It is lateral to the inferior epigastric artery. The superficial ring, however, is found above the pubic tubercle. The supravesical fossa is the space between the median and medial umbilical folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      164.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is true about myasthenia gravis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true about myasthenia gravis?

      Your Answer: Response of skeletal muscle to nerve stimulation is weakened

      Explanation:

      An autoimmune disorder, myasthenia gravis leads to progressive muscle weakness. It occurs due to formation of antibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) receptor of the motor endplate, which leads to impaired neuromuscular transmission. Thus, nerve stimulation will lead to a weakened muscle response, but direct electrical stimulation will bring about a normal response. Diagnostic test includes improvement of muscle weakness by small doses of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (physostigmine or edrophonium). However, a large dose of physostigmine worsens the weakness due to desensitisation of the endplate to persistent Ach. One of the investigative tools includes radiolabelled snake venom α-bungarotoxin. It is an in vitro study performed on muscle biopsy specimens and used to quantify the number of ACh receptors at the motor endplate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      192.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle?

      Your Answer: Chorda tympani nerve

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The tensor veli palatini is innervated by the medial pterygoid nerve, a branch of mandibular nerve, the third branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) – the only muscle of the palate not innervated by the pharyngeal plexus, which is formed by the vagal and glossopharyngeal nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An X ray of a 60 year old male brought to the accident...

    Correct

    • An X ray of a 60 year old male brought to the accident and emergency following a fall down stairs shows a fractured olecranon process of the right ulna with the line of fracture passing through the superior surface, disrupting a muscle. Which among the following muscles was most likely injured?

      Your Answer: Triceps brachii

      Explanation:

      The superior surface of the olecranon process forms an attachment for the insertion of the triceps brachii on the posterior aspect. It also has a minor transverse groove for the attachment of part of the posterior ligament of the elbow on the anterior aspect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      75.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial...

    Correct

    • Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, except for:

      Your Answer: Ampulla of the rectum

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal lymph nodes form a chain immediately below the inguinal ligament. They receive lymphatic supply from the skin of the penis, scrotum, perineum, buttock and abdominal wall below the level of the umbilicus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      276.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 24-year old patient diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia was scheduled for...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year old patient diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia was scheduled for surgery to have the hernia repaired. The hernia was discovered to be protruding through the Hesselbach's triangle (inguinal triangle). Which of the following blood vessels that is a branch of the external iliac artery forms the lateral border of this triangle?

      Your Answer: Internal pudendal

      Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric

      Explanation:

      The inguinal triangle is formed by the following structures; inguinal ligament at the base; inferior epigastric vessels laterally and the lateral border of the rectus sheath medially. This triangle (also known as Hesselebach’s triangle) is where direct inguinal hernias protrude. The inferior epigastric artery is this the branch of the external iliac artery being referred to. All the other blood vessels are branches of the internal iliac artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      966.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A patient gives a history of dull discomfort in her abdomen associated with...

    Correct

    • A patient gives a history of dull discomfort in her abdomen associated with pain that she points to be on her right shoulder and right scapula. The following organs are most likely to be source of her pain:

      Your Answer: Liver, duodenum and gallbladder

      Explanation:

      Referred pain is felt at a point away from the source of the pain or the unpleasant sensation. It arises when a nerve is damaged or compressed at a point but the pain is felt at another site that is the territory of that nerve. Common abdominal causes of referred pain to the shoulder and the shoulder blade are the liver, duodenum and gall bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The nasolacrimal duct is a membranous canal. It extends from the lower part...

    Incorrect

    • The nasolacrimal duct is a membranous canal. It extends from the lower part of the lacrimal sac and drains into which structure?

      Your Answer: Middle meatus

      Correct Answer: Inferior meatus

      Explanation:

      The nasolacrimal duct carries tears from the lacrimal sac of the eye into the nasal cavity. The duct begins in the eye socket between the maxillary and lacrimal bones, from where it passes downwards and backwards. The opening of the nasolacrimal duct into the inferior nasal meatus of the nasal cavity is partially covered by a mucosal fold (valve of Hasner or plica lacrimalis). Excess tears flow through the nasolacrimal duct which drains into the inferior nasal meatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The following branch of the aorta is unpaired: ...

    Correct

    • The following branch of the aorta is unpaired:

      Your Answer: Coeliac artery

      Explanation:

      Branches that stem from the abdominal aorta can be divided into three: the visceral branches, parietal branches and terminal branches. Of the visceral branches, the suprarenal, renal, testicular and ovarian arteries are paired while the coeliac artery and superior and inferior mesenteric arteries are unpaired. Of the parietal branches the inferior phrenic and lumbar arteries are paired while the middle sacral artery is unpaired. The terminal branches i.e. the common iliac arteries are paired.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed...

    Correct

    • During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed Meckel's diverticulum. This is:

      Your Answer: Is a site of ectopic pancreatic tissue

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is an outpouching of the small intestine. It usually occurs about 0.6 m (2 feet) before the junction with the caecum. It can be lined with the mucosa of the stomach and may ulcerate. It may also be lined by ectopic pancreatic tissue. It represents the remains of the vitelline duct in early fetal life.

      An abnormal persistence of the urachus is called a urachal fistula.

      Failure of the midgut loop to return to the abdominal cavity is called an omphalocele.

      Polyhydramnios is often caused by anencephaly or oesophageal fistula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      243
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the...

    Correct

    • A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the skin at the pubic region. Which nerve was most likely injured in the operation?

      Your Answer: Iliohypogastric

      Explanation:

      The iliohypogastric nerve comes from L1 and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of the psoas major. It then crosses obliquely in front of the quadratus lumborum to the iliac crest where it perforates the posterior part of transversus abdominis and divides between that muscle and the internal oblique into a lateral and an anterior cutaneous branch. This provides sensory innervation to the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh.

      The genitofemoral nerve also comes from the lumbar plexus that innervates the skin of the anterior scrotum or labia majora and upper medial thigh.

      The subcostal nerve is the ventral primary ramus of T12 providing sensory innervation to the anterolateral abdominal wall in an area superior to the pubic region.

      A spinal nerve owing to their deep location would not have been injured in the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      110.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor...

    Correct

    • If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor in his fingers that worsens on reaching for an object, what part of his brain is likely to be involved?

      Your Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      The cerebellum plays an important role in the integration of sensory perception and motor output. Multiple neural pathways link the cerebellum with the motor cortex and the spinocerebellar tract. The cerebellum uses the constant feedback on body position to fine-tune the movements and integrates these pathways. The patient described here has a characteristic cerebellar tremor that is a slow, broad tremor of the extremities and occurs at the end of a purposeful movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 70-year-old man suffers an ischaemic stroke and develops a left homonymous hemianopia....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man suffers an ischaemic stroke and develops a left homonymous hemianopia. Where is the likely infarct?

      Your Answer: Right occipital lobe

      Explanation:

      The man has a left homonymous hemianopia which means he is unable to view objects in the left visual field. This information is processed by the right primary visual cortex which lies in the right occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which among the following vertebrae marks the lowest extent of the superior mediastinum?...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following vertebrae marks the lowest extent of the superior mediastinum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fourth thoracic

      Explanation:

      The superior mediastinum lies between the manubrium anteriorly and the upper vertebrae of the thorax posteriorly. Below, it is bound by a slightly oblique plane that passes backward from the sternal angle to the lower part of the body of T4 and laterally by the pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Abdomen (6/10) 60%
Anatomy (13/23) 57%
Neurology (6/6) 100%
Physiology (3/3) 100%
Upper Limb (3/4) 75%
Head & Neck (1/4) 25%
Lower Limb (2/2) 100%
Pelvis (1/3) 33%
Pathology (3/3) 100%
Passmed