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Question 1
Correct
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is procoagulant?
Your Answer: Afibrinogenemia
Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden
Explanation:Factor V Leiden is a variant (mutated form) of human factor V (one of several substances that helps blood clot) that causes an increase in blood clotting (hypercoagulability). With this mutation, the anticoagulant protein secreted (that stops factor V from causing inappropriate clotting) is inhibited, leading to an increased tendency to form dangerous, abnormal blood clots. Christmas disease is otherwise known as Haemophilia B. Hypothrombinaemia and afibrinogenemia both result in inadequate blood clotting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following initiates migrating motor complex
Your Answer: Acetylcholine
Correct Answer: Motilin
Explanation:Migrating motor complexes (MMC) are thought to be partially regulated by motilin, which is initiated in the stomach as a response to vagal stimulation, and does not directly depend on extrinsic nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What causes increased insulin sensitivity?
Your Answer: Adrenal glucocorticoids
Correct Answer: Exercise
Explanation:Physical activity, through its effect on insulin sensitivity, is one of the main modifiable risk factors for type 2 diabetes. It is estimated that by each weekly 500 kcal increment in exercise related energy consumption, the lifetime risk of suffering from type 2 diabetes is reduced by 9%. Up to two hours after exercise, glucose uptake is elevated due to insulin independent mechanisms; however, insulin sensitivity remains increased for at least 16 hours after exercising.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 5
Correct
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Selectins
Your Answer: Interact with carbohydrate ligands or mucin complexes on leucocytes and endothelial cells
Explanation:Selectins are involved in constitutive lymphocyte homing, and in chronic and acute inflammation processes, including post-ischemic inflammation. Each selectin has a carbohydrate recognition domain that mediates binding to specific glycans on apposing cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 6
Correct
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The cerebellum consists of which three cell layers?
Your Answer: Granular, purkinje, molecular
Explanation:The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers; the molecular layer, the granular cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer in the middle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 7
Correct
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The axons of which neurons serve as the only output from the cerebellar cortex?
Your Answer: Purkinje
Explanation:The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers. The molecular layer, the granule cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer in the middle. The Purkinje cells project into the deep cerebellar nuclei. They are the only output cells of the cerebellar cortex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Regarding carbohydrates absorption;
Your Answer: Intestinal glucose absorption requires phosphorylation
Correct Answer: Intestinal absorption of sugars is inhibited by the drug phlorizin
Explanation:The main role of insulin is in the uptake of glucose from blood to tissues where it is metabolised. Glycose transporters in the intestines do not depend on the action of insulin. Phlorizin is a competitive inhibitor of SGLT1 and SGLT2 because it competes with glucose for the binding site, reducing intestinal and renal glucose transport.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which factors increase the end-diastolic volume?
Your Answer: Raised intra-pericardial pressure
Correct Answer: Constriction of veins
Explanation:End diastolic volume is also known as preload. It is the amount of blood the heart contracts against. Constriction of veins will decrease venous pooling and increase venous return, hence increasing the end diastolic volume. Standing will increase venous pooling hence decreasing venous return and end diastolic volume. Raised intrapericardial pressure will also decrease venous return and hence end diastolic volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 10
Correct
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The process where by DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is called:
Your Answer: Gel electrophoresis
Explanation:Fragments of DNA of varying length can be separated on the basis of their charge and their size by a process called gel electrophoresis. Because DNA contains negatively charged phosphate groups, it will migrate in an electric field toward the positive electrode. Shorter chains migrate more rapidly through the pores of the gel, and thus separation depends on length. DNA bands in the gel can be visualized by various techniques including staining with dyes and autoradiography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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Tunica intima is made up of?
Your Answer: Endothelial cells
Explanation:Tunica intima is a single cell thick lining of endothelial cells that lines the inside of the blood vessels. It is the inner most layer of the blood vessel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The cells that secrete HCL are found in which part of the stomach?
Your Answer: Fundus
Correct Answer: Body
Explanation:The stomach can be divided in to different regions. Cardia, fundus, body, antrum and pylorus from proximal end to distal end respectively. Different cell types are distributed accordingly among the regions of the stomach. Cells that secret HCl in the gastric mucosa are known as parietal cells and are abundant in the gastric body region. They have receptors for acetylcholine stimulated via the vagus nerve, histamine receptors and gastrin receptors which stimulate gastric acid secretion. G cells that secret gastrin are abundant in the antrum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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On review of a patient's serum and urine osmolality test result, you note that both osmolarities are decreased. There urine osmolality does not increase with fluid ingestion. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis
Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:As part of the investigation of hyponatraemia, serum osmolality is commonly requested in combination with urine osmolality to aid diagnosis. When: Serum osmolality is decreased and urine osmolality is decreased with no intake of fluid, the causes are Hyponatraemia Overhydration Adrenocortical insufficiency Sodium loss (diuretic or a low-salt diet) Serum osmolality is normal or increased and urine osmolality is increased the causes include: Dehydration Hyperkalaemia Hyperglycaemia Hyponatremia Mannitol therapy Diabetes mellitus Alcohol ingestion Congestive heart failure Renal disease and uraemia Serum osmolality is normal or increased and urine osmolality is decreased the usual cause is diabetes insipidus Serum osmolality is decreased and urine osmolality is increased the usual cause is syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis (SIAD)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 14
Correct
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G cells release which of the following substances
Your Answer: Gastrin
Explanation:The G cell is a type of cell in the stomach and duodenum that secretes gastrin. It works in conjunction with gastric chief cells and parietal cells. G cells are found deep within the pyloric glands of the stomach antrum, and occasionally in the pancreas and duodenum. Gastrin-releasing peptide, as well as the presence of amino acids in the stomach, stimulates the release of gastrin from the G cells. Gastrin stimulates enterochromaffin-like cells to secrete histamine. Gastrin also targets parietal cells by increasing the amount of histamine and the direct stimulation by gastrin, causing the parietal cells to increase HCl secretion in the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Stimulation of the carotid sinus results in:
Your Answer: Tachycardia
Correct Answer: Drop in blood pressure
Explanation:Stimulation of the carotid sinus will result in an increase in the baroreceptor discharge. This will travel via the afferent nerves to the medulla. Signals will pass through the vagus nerve to decrease the sympathetic outflow to the heart and the blood vessels. This inhibition will result in vasodilation of the blood vessels, venodilation and bradycardia hence decreasing the total peripheral resistance and lowering the blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which three parietal cell agonists bind at the basolateral membrane at specific receptors respectively: M3 , H2 , CCK-B, to stimulate acid secretion?
Your Answer: Acetylcholine , gastrin , somatostatin
Correct Answer: Acetylcholine, histamine , gastrin
Explanation:The three agonists of parietal cell secretion are gastrin, acetylcholine and histamine. Parietal cells are responsible for the secretion of HCl and intrinsic factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following is an example of a ketone body?
Your Answer: Acetoacetate
Explanation:Ketone bodies are three water-soluble molecules (acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate, and their spontaneous breakdown product, acetone) that are produced by the liver from fatty acids during periods of low food intake (fasting), carbohydrate restrictive diets, starvation, prolonged intense exercise, alcoholism or in untreated (or inadequately treated) type 1 diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolism
- Physiology
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Question 18
Correct
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With regards to the function of the p53 protein produced by the p53 gene, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Your Answer: It permits repair of mutations and other defects in RNA
Explanation:P53 has many mechanisms of anticancer function and plays a role in apoptosis, genomic stability, and inhibition of angiogenesis. In its anti-cancer role, p53 works through several mechanisms:It can activate DNA repair proteins when DNA has sustained damage. Thus, it may be an important factor in aging.It can arrest growth by holding the cell cycle at the G1/S regulation point on DNA damage recognitionIt can initiate apoptosis (i.e., programmed cell death) if DNA damage proves to be irreparable.It is essential for the senescence response to short telomeres.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 19
Correct
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In ventricular fibrillation (VF), the first defibrillation attempt (with a biphasic defibrillator) should be made at:
Your Answer: 200 J
Explanation:Defibrillation is a common treatment for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias and ventricular fibrillation. If the patient is in Ventricular tachycardia (VT) or ventricular fibrillation (VF) on the monitor, immediately apply the pads and shock the patient with 120-200 Joules on a biphasic defibrillator or 360 Joules on a monophasic defibrillator.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following skin coloration abnormalities occurs due to adrenal insufficiency due to primary adrenal disease?
Your Answer: Hyperpigmentation
Explanation:Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency, or hypocortisolism is an endocrine disorder. Hyperpigmentation is one of its most common signs; it occurs as a result of an increase in pro-opiomelanocortin to produce more ACTH in response to the decreased levels of cortisol. Pro-opiomelanocortin is a precursor of melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH), which stimulates melanocytes, causing darkening of the skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 21
Correct
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Which of these structures is the smallest and deepest component of muscle connective tissue?
Your Answer: Endomysium
Explanation:There are three types of muscle: Skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle Smooth muscle Individual muscle is enveloped in a layer of dense irregular connective tissue called the epimysium. The epimysium protects the muscles from friction against bones and other muscles. Skeletal muscle is composed of muscle fibres, referred to as myofibers which is ensheathed by a wispy layer of areolar connective tissue called the endomysium. The endomysium is the smallest and deepest component of muscle connective tissue. Myofibers grouped together in bundles form fascicles, or fasciculi. These are surrounded by a type of connective tissue called the perimysium. Beneath the endomysium lies the sarcolemma, an elastic sheath with infoldings that invaginate the interior of the myofibers, particularly at the motor endplate of the neuromuscular junction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 22
Correct
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Which cells secrete insulin?
Your Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets
Explanation:Insulin is synthesised and stored by the B cells of the pancreatic islets (70% of islet cells), glucagon is synthesised and stored in the A cells (20%) and somatostatin is synthesised and stored in the D cells (10%).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?
Your Answer: Increase in Ca, decrease in phosphate
Correct Answer: Increase in Ca, increase in phosphate
Explanation:Bone and its metabolism are regulated by several hormones, amongst which is vitamin D. It is heavily involved in the metabolism and homeostasis of calcium and phosphate through several processes. Vitamin D works in the intestine, kidney, bone and parathyroid glands to maintain levels of calcium and phosphate, promoting its absorption, bone resorption, and proper functioning of the parathyroid to maintain adequate serum calcium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The energy needed for glycogen synthesis comes from which compound?
Your Answer: NADPH
Correct Answer: UTP
Explanation:Glycogen synthesis is, unlike its breakdown, endergonic—it requires the input of energy. Energy for glycogen synthesis comes from uridine triphosphate (UTP)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolism
- Physiology
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Question 25
Correct
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Question 26
Correct
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Pre-oxygenation is done prior to intubation to extend the ‘safe apnoea time’. Which lung volume or capacity is the most important store of oxygen in the body?
Your Answer: Functional residual capacity
Explanation:The administration of oxygen to a patient before intubation is called pre-oxygenation and it helps extend the ‘safe apnoea time’. The Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume of gas that remains in the lungs after normal tidal expiration. It is the most important store of oxygen in the body. The aim of pre-oxygenation is to replace the nitrogen in the FRC with oxygen. Apnoea can be tolerated for longer periods before critical hypoxia develops if the FRC is large. Patients with reduced FRC reach critical hypoxia more rapidly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The rate of depolarisation of the sinus node membrane potential is modulated by all the following except:
Your Answer: Hormonal influences
Correct Answer: Cardiac output
Explanation:Cardiac output has no effect on the depolarization of the pacemaker potential of the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 28
Correct
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Which factor produced by the endothelium is responsible for the regulation of vascular cell growth?
Your Answer: Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
Explanation:VEGF is produced by the endothelial cells and is the major growth factor responsible for causing vasculogenesis. Some isoforms of this growth factor also have a prominent role in formation of lymphatic vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is found in the posterior cavity of the eye?
Your Answer: Aqueous humor
Correct Answer: Vitreous humor
Explanation:The eye ball contains an anterior cavity and a posterior cavity. The anterior cavity once again is divided into the anterior chamber and posterior chamber. The anterior cavity is filled with aqueous humor whereas the posterior cavity contains vitreous humor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone?
Your Answer: 21β-hydroxylase
Correct Answer: 5α-reductase
Explanation:The enzyme 5α-reductase synthesizes DHT from testosterone in the prostate, testes, hair follicles, and adrenal glands. This enzyme reduces the 4,5 double-bond of the testosterone. Relative to testosterone, DHT is much more potent as an agonist of the androgen receptor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 31
Correct
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Which afferent information is carried by the dorsal column?
Your Answer: Proprioception/ discriminative touch
Explanation:The posterior grey column (dorsal column) is responsible for carrying the sensation of proprioception, two-point discrimination, and vibration to the nucleus proprius, situated anterior to the substantia gelatinosa throughout the spinal cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT) ?
Your Answer: Poor factor VII synthesis
Correct Answer: Heparin therapy
Explanation:The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is an indicator for measuring the efficacy of both the intrinsic and common coagulation pathway. Prolonged aPTT may indicate: use of heparin, antiphospholipid antibody and coagulation factor deficiency (e.g., haemophilia). Deficiencies of factors VIII, IX, XI and XII and rarely von Willebrand factor (if causing a low factor VIII level) may lead to a prolonged aPTT correcting on mixing studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 33
Correct
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In cardiac muscle, which of the following is directly responsible for the release of Ca2+ stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (calcium-induced calcium release)?
Your Answer: Ryanodine receptor (RyR)
Explanation:Ryanodine receptor (RyR) is a ligand-gated Ca2+ channel with Ca2+ as its natural ligand. In skeletal muscle, Ca2+ entry from ECF by this route is not required for Ca2+ release. Instead, the DHPR that serves as the voltage sensor unlocks release of Ca2+ from the nearby SR via physical interaction with the RyR. The release is amplified through ca-induced ca release. However, in cardiac muscle, it is the influx of extracellular Ca2+ through the voltage-sensitive DHPR in the T system that triggers ca-induced ca release trough the RyR at the SR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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In a 60kg adult male with normal mean arterial pressure and oxygen consumption, what proportion of the cardiac output at rest goes to the brain?
Your Answer: 20-25%
Correct Answer: 10-15%
Explanation:The rate of cerebral blood flow in the adult is typically 750 millilitres per minute, which is 10-15% of the cardiac output. On average around 13.9% of cardiac output is distributed to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 35
Correct
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What is the average life span of neutrophils?
Your Answer: 24 hours
Explanation:The average lifespan of inactivated human neutrophils in the circulation has been reported by different approaches to be between 5 and 90 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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The largest energy reserves among both lean and obese subjects are from
Your Answer: Carbohydrates
Correct Answer: Fatty acids
Explanation:The energy required for sustained exercise is provided by the oxidation of two fuels, glucose stored as glycogen in the liver and muscle, and long-chain fatty acids, stored as adipose tissue triglycerides. The latter provides the largest energy reserve in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolism
- Physiology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Which statement about antithrombin III is true?
Your Answer: Its activity is inhibited by heparin.
Correct Answer: It inhibits particularly factor II and X
Explanation:Antithrombin inactivates its physiological target enzymes, Thrombin (Factor II), Factor Xa and Factor IXa. ATIII binds to thrombin and then forms the thrombin-anti thrombin complex or TAT complex. This is a major natural pathway of anticoagulation. This binding of thrombin to AT is greatly enhanced in the presence of heparin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Cholesterol is synthesized in all of these organs EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Skin
Correct Answer: Stomach
Explanation:The liver primarily synthesizes about 20-25% of the total daily cholesterol. Cholesterol is also synthesized to smaller extents in the adrenal glands, reproductive organs (as cholesterol is the precursor of sex hormones), skin and is also produced in the intestines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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The midbrain, medulla and pons, contain the following cranial nerve nuclei?
Your Answer: CN 1 - 12
Correct Answer: CN 3 - 12
Explanation:The cranial nerves (with the exception of I and II) originate in the brainstem, which includes the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 40
Correct
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Which of the following has the shortest duration:
Your Answer: Atrial systole: 0.1s
Explanation:Atrial systole: 0.1sAtrial diastole: around 0.4sVentricular diastole: 0.4-0.53s.Ventricular systole: 0.27sPR interval: 0.12-0.2 s
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Which neurotransmitter is made from hydroxylation and decarboxylation of tryptophan?
Your Answer: Dopamine
Correct Answer: Serotonin
Explanation:Serotonin is synthesized from the essential amino acid tryptophan. The rate-limiting step is the conversion of the amino acid to 5-hydroxytryptophan by tryptophan hydroxylase. This is then converted to serotonin by the aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Which of the following structures of the cardiac conduction system is located in the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum?
Your Answer: SA node
Correct Answer: AV node
Explanation:AV node is located at the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 43
Correct
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Which of the following statements is most suitable to describe necrosis?
Your Answer: Significant inflammatory response
Explanation:Necrosis is the death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the blood supply. Cellular death due to necrosis does not follow the (regulated) apoptotic signal transduction pathway, but rather various receptors are activated, and result in the loss of cell membrane integrity and an uncontrolled release of products of cell death into the extracellular space. This initiates in the surrounding tissue an inflammatory response which attracts leukocytes and nearby phagocytes which eliminate the dead cells by phagocytosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 44
Incorrect
-
Sympathetic supply to the stomach is derived from
Your Answer: T5-T9 spinal segments via the superior mesenteric ganglion
Correct Answer: T5-T9 spinal segments via the coeliac ganglion
Explanation:Parasympathetic innervation to the stomach is from the vagus nerve and the sympathetic innervation is from the T5-T9 spinal segments via the coeliac ganglion through the greater splanchnic nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 45
Correct
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The actions of thrombin result directly in the release of:
Your Answer: Fibrin monomers
Explanation:Thrombin in turn acts as a serine protease that converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble strands of fibrin, as well as catalysing many other coagulation-related reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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In the Fick‘s method of measuring cardiac output, the arterial oxygen content can be measured in a sample obtained from
Your Answer: The aorta
Correct Answer: The pulmonary vein
Explanation:In Fick’s original method, the following variables are measured:VO2, oxygen consumption in ml of pure gaseous oxygen per minute. This may be measured using a spirometer within a closed rebreathing circuit incorporating a CO2 absorberCa, the oxygen concentration of blood taken from the pulmonary vein (representing oxygenated blood)Cv, the oxygen concentration of blood from an intravenous cannula (representing deoxygenated blood)From these values, we know that:VO2 = (CO x Ca) – (CO x Cv)where CO = Cardiac Output, Ca = Oxygen concentration of arterial blood and Cv = Oxygen concentration of mixed venous blood.This allows us to sayCO = VO2/{Ca – Cv}and hence calculate cardiac output.Note that (Ca – Cv) is also known as the arteriovenous oxygen difference.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 47
Correct
-
Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders?
Your Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.
Explanation:All are true except for B. Any point mutation in any part of the mitochondrial DNA will lead to a mutated mitochondria and will likewise have its ill effect on the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
Endotoxin will typically act on which one of the following cells, to produce endogenous pyrogens?
Your Answer: T lymphocytes
Correct Answer: Monocytes
Explanation:Endotoxin, also known as lipopolysaccharides or lipoglycans, are molecules that consist of a lipid and a polysaccharide. They bind to many cell types, but especially to monocytes, promoting the secretion of proinflammatory cytokines, acting as a pyrogen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 49
Correct
-
Which of the following statements is correct regarding homeostasis?
Your Answer: In negative feedback mechanisms, effectors always act to move the variable in the opposite direction to the change that was originally detected.
Explanation:The vast majority of systems within the body work by negative feedback mechanisms. This negative feedback refers to the way that effectors act to move the variable in the opposite direction to the change that was originally detected. Because there is an inherent time delay between detecting a change in a variable and effecting a response, the negative feedback mechanisms cause oscillations in the variable they control. There is a narrow range of values within which a normal physiological function occurs and this is called the ‘set point’. The release of oxytocin in childbirth is an example of positive feedback.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 50
Incorrect
-
Select a factor which stimulates glucagon secretion.
Your Answer: Somatostatin
Correct Answer: Protein meal
Explanation:Several studies have shown that glucagon levels are increased in individuals with a high protein diet. It is still debated, however, whether this type of diet affects insulin levels as well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
