-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
After finding elevated PSA levels, a 69-year-old man undergoes a needle biopsy and is diagnosed with prostatic cancer. What is the stage of this primary tumour?
Your Answer: T1a
Correct Answer: T1c
Explanation:The AJCC uses a TNM system to stage prostatic cancer, with categories for the primary tumour, regional lymph nodes and distant metastases:
TX: cannot evaluate the primary tumour T0: no evidence of tumour
T1: tumour present, but not detectable clinically or with imaging T1a: tumour was incidentally found in less than 5% of prostate tissue resected (for other reasons)
T1b: tumour was incidentally found in more than 5% of prostate tissue resected
T1c: tumour was found in a needle biopsy performed due to an elevated serum prostate-specific antigen
T2: the tumour can be felt (palpated) on examination, but has not spread outside the prostate
T2a: the tumour is in half or less than half of one of the prostate gland’s two lobes
T2b: the tumour is in more than half of one lobe, but not both
T2c: the tumour is in both lobes
T3: the tumour has spread through the prostatic capsule (if it is only part-way through, it is still T2)
T3a: the tumour has spread through the capsule on one or both sides
T3b: the tumour has invaded one or both seminal vesicles
T4: the tumour has invaded other nearby structures.
In this case, the tumour has a T1c stage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Urology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of the spleen?
Your Answer: It becomes retroperitoneal during its development
Correct Answer: It develops in the dorsal mesogastrium
Explanation:The spleen in the human embryo arises in week 5 of intrauterine life. It appears as a proliferating mesenchyme above the pancreas. The spleen is one the organs that develops in the dorsal mesogastrium. When the stomach changes its position during development, the spleen is made to move behind the stomach and stays in contact with the left kidney. The spleen is found within the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity thus it is an intraperitoneal organ.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 47 year-old woman was admitted for elective cholecystectomy, with a past history of easy bruising and heavy menstrual periods. The patient was also diagnosed with Willebrand's disease. Willebrand's disease is:
Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:von Willebrand disease is an autosomal dominant disorder marked by the deficiency of vWF, a large protein synthesized by the endothelial cells and megakaryocytes. It mediates adhesion of platelets to the subendothelium at site of vascular injury. Disease characteristics include impaired platelet adhesion, prolonged bleeding time and a functional deficiency of factor VIII (vWF is its carrier protein).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
Where is the mental foramen located?
Your Answer: In the mandible
Explanation:The mental foramen is found bilaterally on the anterior surface of the mandible adjacent to the second premolar tooth. The mental nerve and terminal branches of the inferior alveolar nerve and mental artery leave the mandibular canal through it.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Selective destruction of which of the following cells will affect antibody synthesis?
Your Answer: T lymphocytes
Correct Answer: Plasma cells
Explanation:Plasma cell are memory cells. After the antigen Is engulfed by the B cells it is presented to the CD4+ helper cells via the MCH II receptor and this leads to their activation which in turn stimulates the B cells to form antibodies against that specific antigen. Some B cells differentiate into plasma cells also called memory cells that get activated after subsequent infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old woman has a mass in her right breast and has right axillary node involvement. She underwent radical mastectomy of her right breast. The histopathology report described the tumour to be 4 cm in its maximum diameter with 3 axillary lymph nodes with evidence of tumour. The most likely stage of cancer in this patient is:
Your Answer: IIIA
Correct Answer: IIB
Explanation:Stage IIB describes invasive breast cancer in which: the tumour is larger than 2 centimetres but no larger than 5 centimetres; small groups of breast cancer cells — larger than 0.2 millimetre but not larger than 2 millimetres — are found in the lymph nodes OR the tumour is larger than 2 centimetres but no larger than 5 centimetres; cancer has spread to 1 to 3 axillary lymph nodes or to lymph nodes near the breastbone (found during a sentinel node biopsy) OR the tumour is larger than 5 centimetres but has not spread to the axillary lymph nodes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the skin at the pubic region. Which nerve was most likely injured in the operation?
Your Answer: Iliohypogastric
Explanation:The iliohypogastric nerve comes from L1 and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of the psoas major. It then crosses obliquely in front of the quadratus lumborum to the iliac crest where it perforates the posterior part of transversus abdominis and divides between that muscle and the internal oblique into a lateral and an anterior cutaneous branch. This provides sensory innervation to the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh.
The genitofemoral nerve also comes from the lumbar plexus that innervates the skin of the anterior scrotum or labia majora and upper medial thigh.
The subcostal nerve is the ventral primary ramus of T12 providing sensory innervation to the anterolateral abdominal wall in an area superior to the pubic region.
A spinal nerve owing to their deep location would not have been injured in the procedure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A surgeon ligates the left superior suprarenal artery whilst preforming a left adrenalectomy. Where does the left superior suprarenal artery originate?
Your Answer: Left inferior phrenic artery
Explanation:The superior suprarenal arteries arises from the inferior phrenic artery on either side.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by which of the following?
Your Answer: Gastrin
Explanation:Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by three factors:
– Acetylcholine, from parasympathetic neurones of the vagus nerve that innervate parietal cells directly
– Gastrin, produced by pyloric G-cells
– Histamine, produced by mast cells.
Gastric acid is inhibited by three factors:
– Somatostatin
– Secretin
– Cholecystokinin
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
Action potentials are used extensively by the nervous system to communicate between neurones and muscles or glands. What happens during the activation of a nerve cell membrane?
Your Answer: Sodium ions flow inward
Explanation:During the generation of an action potential, the membrane gets depolarized which cause the voltage gated sodium channels to open and sodium diffuses inside the neuron, resulting in the membrane potential moving towards a positive value. This positive potential will then open the voltage gated potassium channels and cause more K+ to move out decreasing the membrane potential and restoring the membrane potential to its resting value.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle?
Your Answer: Ciliary ganglion
Correct Answer: Edinger–Westphal nucleus
Explanation:The Edinger–Westphal nucleus (accessory oculomotor nucleus) is the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 58-year-old woman diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis had been using warfarin for 10 days. When she presented to the doctor she had haemorrhagic bullae and necrotic lesions in her lower limbs and buttocks. Deficiency of which of the following proteins may have caused the necrotic skin lesions?
Your Answer: Protein C
Explanation:Warfarin-induced skin necrosis is a rare complication of anticoagulant therapy that requires immediate drug cessation. The most common cutaneous findings include petechiae that progress to ecchymoses and haemorrhagic bullae. Warfarin inactivates vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and vitamin K-dependent proteins C and S. The concentration of protein C falls more rapidly than other vitamin K-dependent factors because they have a shorter half-lives. Skin necrosis is seen mainly in patients with prior protein C deficiency.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 35 year old patient presenting with haematemesis, heart burn and bloody stool was diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer that had eroded the gastroduodenal artery. The patient was then rushed into theatre for an emergency procedure to control the haemorrhage. If the surgeon decided to ligate the gastroduodenal artery at its origin, which of the following arteries would most likely experience retrograde blood flow from collateral sources as a result of the ligation?
Your Answer: Short gastric
Correct Answer: Right gastroepiploic
Explanation:In the stomach and around the duodenum, there are many arterial anastomoses. Ligation of the gastroduodenal artery would result in the retrograde flow of blood from the left gastroepiploic artery to the right gastroepiploic artery. The blood flows into the right gastroepiploic artery, a branch of the gastroduodenal artery from the left gastroepiploic artery that branches from the splenic artery. This retrograde blood flow is aimed at providing alternate blood flow to the greater curvature of the stomach.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 55-year old lady underwent a major surgery for repair of an aortic aneurysm. Her blood pressure was low throughout the intra-operative and the post-operative period, along with increasing serum creatinine and urea. Microscopic examination of her urine showed multiple granular and hyaline casts. What is the likely condition the patient is suffering from?
Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis
Explanation:The most common predisposing factor leading to acute tubular necrosis is ischemia, typically seen in hospitalized patients with low blood pressure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Renal
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
During an operation to repair an aortic coarctation in a neonate, a surgeon accidentally cuts the first aortic intercostal arteries as he mobilised the descending aorta. Which one of the following structure might be deprived of its primary source of blood supply following this injury?
Your Answer: First anterior intercostal space
Correct Answer: Right bronchus
Explanation:The right bronchus is supplied by one right bronchial artery that may branch from one of the left bronchial arteries or from the right 3rd posterior intercostal artery (this is the first intercostal artery that arises from the aorta). Damage to this artery might stop blood supply to the main bronchus. Intercostal arteries that go to the first and the second interspaces originate from the highest intercostal artery such that blood supply to either of these spaces would not be interfered with.
The left bronchus receives blood from 2 left bronchial arteries which are direct branches from the descending aorta.
Fibrous pericardium is the sac that contains the heart. Its blood supply is not a major concern.
Visceral pericardium receives its blood supply from the coronary vessels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
The nutcracker effect of the alimentary canal is described as a nutcracker-like compression caused by the aorta and the superior mesenteric arteries on a certain section of the alimentary canal leading to bowel obstruction. Which of the following parts of the alimentary canal is usually obstructed by this nutcracker compression of the two arteries?
Your Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:The ‘nutcracker effect’ is only seen in one part of the alimentary canal, and that is in the third part of the duodenum. This can happen when the superior mesenteric artery that passes across the duodenum and the aorta, posteriorly to the third part of the duodenum enlarges and starts compressing the duodenum. The result is an obstructed duodenum that inhibits passage of food.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 75-year old patient is in atrial fibrallation but has never been on anticoagulation therapy. To reduce the risk of future emboli, she would benefit from starting on long-term warfarin. Arterial emboli leading to acute limb ischaemia most commonly lodge at which one of the following sites?
Your Answer: Common femoral artery
Explanation:The common femoral artery is the commonest site of arterial emboli causing acute limb ischemia. The treatment of choice is urgent femoral embolectomy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pathology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
All the following statements are FALSE regarding the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, except:
Your Answer: The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest branch of the trigeminal nerve
Explanation:The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest of the three trigeminal divisions. The cutaneous branches of the ophthalmic nerve supply the conjunctiva, the skin over the forehead, the upper eyelid, and much of the external surface of the nose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
Glucose is not secreted by the kidneys, and is filtered without a limit. What is the transport maximum for glucose?
Your Answer: 300 mg/dl
Explanation:Transport maximum (or Tm) refers to the point at which increases in concentration do not result in an increase in movement of a substance across a membrane. Glucose is not secreted, thus excretion = filtration – reabsorption. Both filtration and reabsorption are directly proportional to the concentration of glucose in the plasma. However, reabsorption has a transport maximum of about 300 mg/dl in healthy nephrons, while filtration has effectively no limit (within reasonable physiological ranges). So, if the concentration rises above 300 mg/dl, the body cannot retain all the glucose, leading to glucosuria. Glucosuria is nearly always caused by elevated blood glucose levels, most commonly due to untreated diabetes mellitus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 32-year old gentleman came to the emergency department, complaining of progressively increasing weakness in his arms and legs over 5 days. On examination, there is symmetrical weakness on both sides of his face, along with weakness of the proximal and distal muscles of all four limbs. No loss of sensation noted. Deep tendon reflexes could not be elicited and plantar responses were downward. On enquiry, it was revealed that he had an upper respiratory tract infection 10 days ago. The likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome
Explanation:Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is an acute, autoimmune polyradiculoneuropathy which affects the peripheral nervous system and is usually triggered by an acute infectious process. 75% patients have a history of acute infection within the past 1–4 weeks, usually respiratory or gastrointestinal. immunisations have also been implicated. The most common form is acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy. It results in an ascending paralysis with complete loss of deep tendon reflexes. Treatment includes immunoglobulins and supportive care. However, the disease may be fatal due to severe pulmonary complications and dysautonomia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
Digital rectal examination of a 75-year old gentleman who presented to the surgical clinic with urinary retention revealed an enlarged, nodular prostate. PSA was found to be elevated, favouring the diagnosis of prostatic malignancy. Which of the given options is the most common malignant lesion affecting the prostate gland?
Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Prostatic adenocarcinoma is the commonest solid malignancy and non-dermatological cancer in men above 50 years age. Increasing in incidence with age and the highest risk seen in the black population. About 75% of cases are seen in men over 65 years. Other tumours affecting the prostate include undifferentiated prostate cancer, squamous cell carcinoma, and ductal transitional carcinoma, but these occur less commonly. Sarcomas usually affect children. Hormones play a role in the aetiology of prostate adenocarcinoma unlike the other types. Intraepithelial neoplasia is considered a precursor of invasive malignancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Urology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 50 year-old man, who sustained a head injury experienced sudden onset of horizontal double vision. He is diagnosed with lateral rectus palsy. Which of the following nerves is affected in this condition?
Your Answer: Optic
Correct Answer: Abducent
Explanation:The lateral rectus muscle is one of the 6 extra-ocular muscles that control eye movements. It is responsible for abduction and is the only muscle that is innervated by the abducens nerve (CN VI).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A correct statement about the RECTUM:
Your Answer: It is an important anastomotic site for the portal and caval (systemic) venous systems
Explanation:The rectum is part of the gastrointestinal tract that is continuous above with the sigmoid colon and below with the anal canal. It contains both longitudinal and circular smooth muscles. These are supplied by the enteric nervous system. It is about 12 cm long. It has no sacculations comparable with those of the colon. It has three permanent transverse folds called the valves of Houston. The peritoneum is related to the upper two thirds of the rectum only whereas the lower part is not covered by peritoneum. It is supplied by the superior rectal (hemorrhoidal) branch of the inferior mesenteric artery and the median sacral artery that is a direct branch from the abdominal aorta. It is drained by veins that begin as a plexus that surround the anus. These veins form anastomoses with the portal system (portocaval anastomoses).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:
Your Answer: Calcaneus
Explanation:The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg form the characteristic ‘calf’ shape of the posterior leg and include the gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. The gastrocnemius and soleus together form a muscular mass which is occasionally described as the triceps surae; its tendon of insertion is the tendo calcaneus. The tendo calcaneus is the thickest and strongest in the body and together with the tendon of the plantaris muscle is inserted into the posterior part of the calcaneus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of the spinal cord?
Your Answer: C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
Explanation:THE correct answer is A. The posterior cord derives its fibres from the spinal nerves C5,C6,C7,C8,T1. This cord is formed from the fusion of the posterior divisions of the upper, lower, and middle trunks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
After severe injury of the upper limb following an accident. The humerus is injured as well as the nerve which innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm. Which nerve is injured?
Your Answer: Musculocutaneous
Explanation:The musculoskeletal nerve supplies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm including the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii and the greater part of the brachialis. This nerve derives its fibres from the fifth, sixth and seventh cervical nerves and arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. It also provides a branch to the elbow joint.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
T lymphocytes that express the MCH type II antigen are most likely to produce which of the following cytokines?
Your Answer: Interleukin-1
Correct Answer: Gamma interferon
Explanation:Interferon gamma is a soluble cytokine previously known as the macrophage activating factor. It is the only member belonging to the type II class of the interferons. It is secreted by a number of cells taking part in the immune reaction including: T-helper cells (CD-4), cells with immunological memory (CD45PA), killer cells (CD8), dendrite cells (CD23,35), natural killer cells (CD16) and B lymphocytes (CD22,CD23). It has both a defending as well as a pathological effect. It induces differentiation in the myeloid cell in the bone marrow. If macrophages are infected by parasites it activates the macrophages to destroy them. IFN-γ strengthens the anti-tumour activities of the cytotoxic lymphocytes. Together with CD4 or CD8 toxins, produced by lymphocytes, it suppresses the growth of the tumour cells. along with these functions it increases the non specific response of the natural killer cells, causing changes in the cell membrane surface to prevent adhesion and penetration of a virus. It can either increase or decrease B cell response and it activates osteoclasts which increases bone resorption.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on the skull. What structure lies beneath it?
Your Answer: Anterior branches of the middle meningeal artery
Explanation:The pterion is the area where four bones, the parietal, frontal, greater wing of sphenoid and the squamous part of the temporal bone meet. It overlies the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery on the internal aspect of the skull. The pterion is the weakest part of the skull. Slight trauma to this region can cause extradural hematoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
The fundus of the stomach receives blood supply from the same artery as the greater curvature of the stomach. Which of the following arteries when ligated will disrupt blood supply to the fundus of the stomach through this artery?
Your Answer: Splenic
Explanation:The fundus of the stomach along with the greater curvature of the stomach receive blood supply from the short gastric artery. The short gastric artery arises from the end of the splenic artery. The ligation of the splenic artery therefore would cause a disruption of blood supply to the fundus of the stomach.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
