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  • Question 1 - Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows ST segment...

    Correct

    • Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III and aVF, and ST segment depression in V1-V3?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      A posterior wall MI occurs when posterior myocardial tissue (now termed inferobasilar), usually supplied by the posterior descending artery — a branch of the right coronary artery in 80% of individuals — acutely loses blood supply due to intracoronary thrombosis in that vessel. This frequently coincides with an inferior wall MI due to the shared blood supply.

      The ECG findings of an acute posterior wall MI include the following:

      1. ST segment depression (not elevation) in the septal and anterior precordial leads (V1-V4). This occurs because these ECG leads will see the MI backwards; the leads are placed anteriorly, but the myocardial injury is posterior.
      2. A R/S wave ratio greater than 1 in leads V1 or V2.
      3. ST elevation in the posterior leads of a posterior ECG (leads V7-V9). Suspicion for a posterior MI must remain high, especially if inferior ST segment elevation is also present.
      4. ST segment elevation in the inferior leads (II, III and aVF) if an inferior MI is also present.

      The following ECG leads determine the location and vessels involved in myocardial infarction:

      ECG Leads Location Vessel involved
      V1-V2 Septal wall Left anterior descending
      V3-V4 Anterior wall Left anterior descending
      V5-V6 Lateral wall Left circumflex artery
      II, III, aVF Inferior wall Right coronary artery (80%) or Left circumflex artery (20%)
      I, aVL High lateral wall Left circumflex artery
      V1, V4R Right ventricle Right coronary artery
      V7-V9 Posterior wall Right coronary artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      312.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The patient is a 61-year-old man with severe central chest pain. An acute...

    Correct

    • The patient is a 61-year-old man with severe central chest pain. An acute myocardial infarction is revealed by his ECG. Clopidogrel is one of the medications he takes as part of his treatment.

      Clopidogrel's direct mechanism of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of platelet ADP receptors

      Explanation:

      Clopidogrel, a thienopyridine derivative, prevents platelet aggregation and cross-linking by the protein fibrin by inhibiting the ADP receptor on platelet cell membranes (inhibits binding of ADP to its platelet receptor (P2Y12 ADP-receptor).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The Philadelphia chromosome is a genetic abnormality associated primarily with which of the...

    Correct

    • The Philadelphia chromosome is a genetic abnormality associated primarily with which of the following malignancies:

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a clonal disorder of a pluripotent stem cell. The disease accounts for around 15% of leukaemias and may occur at any age. The diagnosis of CML is rarely difficult and is assisted by the characteristic presence of the Philadelphia (ph) chromosome. This disease occurs in either sex, most frequently between the ages of 40 and 60 years. In up to 50% of cases the diagnosis is made incidentally from a routine blood count. Leucocytosis is the main feature, with a complete spectrum of myeloid cells seen in the peripheral blood. The levels of neutrophils and myelocytes exceed those of blast cells and promyelocytes.Increased circulating basophils are a characteristic feature. Normochromic normocytic anaemia is usual. Platelet count may be increased (most frequently), normal or decreased. The clinical outlook is very good and 90% of patients can expect long-term control of disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 62-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of lethargy and tiredness. She...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of lethargy and tiredness. She states that she has also felt very itchy, particularly after a hot bath and that she is often dizzy and sweaty. On examination she appears plethoric and you note the presence of splenomegaly. Her blood tests today show that her haemoglobin level is 16.9 g/dl.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia vera

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia vera (PCV), which is also referred to as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a clonal haematological malignancy in which the bone marrow produces too many red blood cells. It may also result in the overproduction of white blood cells and platelets. It is most commonly seen in the elderly and the mean age at diagnosis is 65-74 years.
      Patients can be completely asymptomatic and it is often discovered as an incidental finding on a routine blood count. Approximately 1/3 of patients present with symptoms due to thrombosis, of these 3/4 have arterial thrombosis and 1/4 venous thrombosis. Features include stroke, myocardial infarction, deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
      The other clinical features of PCV include:
      Plethoric appearance
      Lethargy and tiredness
      Splenomegaly (common)
      Pruritis (in 40% – particularly after exposure to hot water)
      Headaches, dizziness and sweating (in 30%)
      Gouty arthritis (in 20%)
      Budd-Chiari syndrome (in 5-10%)
      Erythromyalgia (in <5% – burning pain and red/blue discolouration of hands and feet)
      Increased incidence of peptic ulcer disease (possibly related to increased histamine release from mast cells)
      The diagnosis of PCV requires two major criteria and one minor criterion, or the first major criterion and two minor criteria:
      Major criteria:
      HB > 18.5 g/dl in men, 16.5 g/dl in women
      Elevated red cell mass > 25% above mean normal predicted value
      Presence of JAK2 mutation

      Minor criteria:
      Bone marrow biopsy showing hypercellularity with prominent erythroid, granulocytic and megakaryocytic proliferation
      Serum erythropoietin level below normal range
      Endogenous erythroid colony formation in vitro
      The main aim of treatment is to normalize the full blood count and prevent complications such as thrombosis. Venesection is the treatment of choice but hydroxyurea can also be used to help control thrombocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following laboratory findings are suggestive of functional hyposplenism: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following laboratory findings are suggestive of functional hyposplenism:

      Your Answer: Howell-Jolly bodies

      Explanation:

      Functional hyposplenism is characterised by the blood film findings of Howell-Jolly bodies or siderotic granules on iron staining. The most frequent cause is surgical removal of the spleen e.g. after traumatic rupture, but hyposplenism can also occur in sickle cell anaemia, gluten-induced enteropathy, amyloidosis and other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following statements is true about anterior cord syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true about anterior cord syndrome?

      Your Answer: There is preservation of proprioception

      Explanation:

      Anterior cord syndrome is an incomplete cord syndrome that predominantly affects the anterior 2/3 of the spinal cord, characteristically resulting in motor paralysis below the level of the lesion as well as the loss of pain and temperature at and below the level of the lesion. The patient presentation typically includes these two findings; however, there is variability depending on the portion of the spinal cord affected. Other findings include back pain, or autonomic dysfunction such as hypotension, neurogenic bowel or bladder, and sexual dysfunction. The severity of motor dysfunction can vary, typically resulting in paraplegia or quadriplegia.

      Proprioception, vibratory sense, two-point discrimination, and fine touch are not affected in anterior cord syndrome. These sensations are under the control of the dorsal column of the spinal cord, which is supplied by two posterior spinal arteries running in the posterior lateral sulci.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      119.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is a primary action of aldosterone: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a primary action of aldosterone:

      Your Answer: Renal sodium reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Aldosterone acts mainly at the renal distal convoluted tubule (DCT) to cause sodium retention and potassium loss. It increases the synthesis of transport mechanisms in the distal nephron including the Na+pump, Na+/H+symporter, and Na+and K+channels in principal cells, and H+ATPase in intercalated cells. Na+(and thus water) reabsorption and K+and H+secretion are thereby enhanced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The following statements are not true of the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle,...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements are not true of the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle, except?

      Your Answer: It arises from the medial epicondyle of the elbow

      Correct Answer: It receives its blood supply from the radial artery

      Explanation:

      Extensor carpi radialis brevis is a fusiform muscle found in the lateral part of the posterior forearm. Together with anconaeus, brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi and extensor carpi ulnaris, it belongs to the superficial forearm extensor group. Extensor carpi radialis brevis originates from the lateral epicondyle of humerus via the common extensor tendon. This is a common origin that it shares with the extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi and extensor carpi ulnaris muscles. Some fibres also originate from the lateral intermuscular septum, a thick aponeurosis that covers the muscle itself, and from the radial collateral ligament.

      The muscle courses inferiorly, giving off a long tendon in the middle of the forearm which descends towards the dorsal hand. The tendon passes through a groove on the posterior surface of radius, deep to the extensor retinaculum. After traversing the extensor retinaculum space, the tendon inserts into the posterior aspect of the base of the third metacarpal bone.

      Extensor carpi radialis brevis is innervated directly by the radial nerve (C5- C8), or sometimes from its deep branch/posterior interosseous nerve. The radial nerve stems from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.

      The muscle is vascularized by the radial recurrent artery, radial artery and deep brachial artery (via its radial collateral branch).

      Extensor carpi radialis brevis works together with extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi radialis longus to extend the hand at the wrist joint. This action is vital in a sequence of muscle contractions needed for clenching a fist or making a grip. When performing these functions, wrist extension blocks the flexor muscles from on acting upon the hand. Instead, flexors act only on the digits, thereby flexing them and producing an effective hand grip, such as that seen in a tennis backhand. When the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle contracts together with extensor carpi radialis longus and flexor carpi radialis, it contributes to producing hand abduction (radial deviation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      232.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following muscles inserts into the patella? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles inserts into the patella?

      Your Answer: The quadriceps femoris complex

      Explanation:

      The quadriceps femoris muscle translates to “four-headed muscle” from Latin. It bears this name because it consists of four individual muscles; rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus lateralis, and vastus intermedius. Out of all four muscles, only the rectus femoris crosses both the hip and knee joints. The others cross only the knee joint. These muscles differ in their origin, but share a common quadriceps femoris tendon which inserts into the patella. The function of the quadriceps femoris muscle is to extend the leg at the knee joint and to flex the thigh at the hip joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Antispasmodic drugs are primarily indicated in which of the following conditions: ...

    Correct

    • Antispasmodic drugs are primarily indicated in which of the following conditions:

      Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Antispasmodics, such as antimuscarinics, may be used in the management of irritable bowel syndrome. Other antispasmodics used include direct-acting smooth muscle relaxants such as mebeverine, alverine, and peppermint oil. Antispasmodics are contraindicated in bowel obstruction and severe inflammatory bowel disease. Antispasmodics are occasionally of value in treating abdominal cramp associated with diarrhoea but they should not be used for primary treatment. Antispasmodics should be avoided in young children with gastroenteritis because they are rarely effective and have troublesome side effects. Antimuscarinics are contraindicated in urinary retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Pharmacology
      17.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (3/4) 75%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Pathology (3/3) 100%
Immune Responses (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
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