00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in...

    Correct

    • Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in an adult?

      Your Answer: Accounts for 15% of the cardiac output

      Explanation:

      While the brain only weighs 3% of the body weight, 15% of the cardiac output goes towards the brain.

      Between mean arterial pressures (MAP) of 60-130 mmHg, autoregulation of cerebral blood flow (CBF) occurs. Exceeding this, the CBF is maintained at a constant level. This is controlled mainly by the PaCO2 level, and the autonomic nervous system has minimal role.

      Beyond these limits, the CBF is directly proportional to the MAP, not the systolic blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The SI unit of measurement is kgm2s-2 in the System international d'unités (SI).

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • The SI unit of measurement is kgm2s-2 in the System international d'unités (SI).

      Which of the following derived units of measurement has this format?

      Your Answer: Power

      Correct Answer: Energy

      Explanation:

      The derived SI unit of force is Newton.
      F = m·a (where a is acceleration)
      F = 1 kg·m/s2

      The joule (J) is a converted unit of energy, work, or heat. When a force of one newton (N) is applied over a distance of one metre (Nm), the following amount of energy is expended:

      J = 1 kg·m/s2·m =
      J = 1 kg·m2/s2 or 1 kg·m2·s-2

      The unit of velocity is metres per second (m/s or ms-1).

      The watt (W), or number of joules expended per second, is the SI unit of power:

      J/s = kg·m2·s-2/s
      J/s = kg·m2·s-3

      Pressure is measured in pascal (Pa) and is defined as force (N) per unit area (m2):
      Pa = kg·m·s-2/m2
      Pa = kg·m-1·s-2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The single most important prerequisite for accuracy in measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR)...

    Correct

    • The single most important prerequisite for accuracy in measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR) using indirect calorimetry is performing the test:

      Your Answer: In a neutral thermal environment

      Explanation:

      The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of energy required to maintain basic bodily functions in the resting state. The unit is Watt (Joule/second) or calories per unit time.

      Indirect calorimetry measures O2 consumption and CO2 production where gases are collected in a canopy which is the gold standard, Douglas bag, face-mask dilution technique or interfaced with a ventilator.

      The BMR can be calculated using the Weir formula:

      Metabolic rate (kcal per day) = 1.44 (3.94 VO2 + 1.11 VCO2)

      The BMR should be measured while lying down and at rest with the following conditions met:

      It should follow a 12 -hour fast
      No stimulants ingested within a 12-hour period
      It should be done in a neutral thermal environment (between 20°C-25°C)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in...

    Incorrect

    • An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in good shape. His routine biochemistry results are checked and found to be within normal limits.

      Which of the following pairs has the greatest impact on his plasma osmolarity?

      Your Answer: Glucose and urea molecules

      Correct Answer: Sodium and potassium cations

      Explanation:

      The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per litre (L) of solution (Osmol/L) is the unit of measurement for solute concentration. The calculated serum osmolality assumes that the primary solutes in the serum are sodium salts (chloride and bicarbonate), glucose, and urea nitrogen.

      2 (Na + K) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L) = calculated osmolarity

      313 mOsm/L = 2 (144 + 6) + 9.5 + 3.5

      Sodium and potassium ions clearly contribute the most to plasma osmolarity. Glucose and urea, on the other hand, are less so.

      The osmolarity of normal serum is 285-295 mOsm/L. Temperature and pressure affect osmolality, and this calculated variable is less than osmolality for a given solution.

      The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per kilogramme (Osm/kg) is a measure of osmolality, which is also a measure of solute concentration. Temperature and pressure have no effect on the value. An osmometer is used to measure it in the lab. Osmometers rely on a solution’s colligative properties, such as a decrease in freezing point or a rise in vapour pressure.

      The osmolar gap (OG) is calculated as follows:

      OG = osmolaRity calculated from measured serum osmolaLity

      Excess alcohols, lipids, and proteins in the blood can all contribute to the difference.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient was brought to the emergency room after passing black tarry stools....

    Incorrect

    • A patient was brought to the emergency room after passing black tarry stools. The initial diagnosis was upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The patient was placed on temporary nil per os (NPO) for the next 24 hours, his weight was 110 kg, and the required volume of intravenous fluid for the him was 3 litres. His electrolytes and other biochemistry studies were normal.

      If you were to choose the intravenous fluid regimen that would closely mimic his basic electrolyte and caloric requirements, which one would be the best answer?

      Your Answer: 3000 mL Hartmann's

      Correct Answer: 3000 mL 0.45% N. saline with 5% dextrose, each bag with 40 mmol of potassium

      Explanation:

      The patient in the case has a fluid volume requirement of 30 mL/kg/day. His basic electrolyte requirement per day is:

      Sodium at 2 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 220 mmol/day
      Potassium at 1 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 110 mmol/day

      His energy requirement per day is:

      35 kcal/kg/day x 110 kg = 3850 kcal/day

      One gram of glucose in fluid can provide approximately 4 kilocalories.

      The following are the electrolyte components of the different intravenous fluids:

      Fluid Na (mmol/L) K (mmol/L)
      0.9% Normal saline (NSS) 154 0
      0.45% NSS + 5% dextrose 77 0
      0.18% NSS + 4% dextrose 30 0
      Hartmann’s 131 5
      5% dextrose 0 0

      1000 mL of 5% dextrose has 50 g of glucose

      Option B is inadequate for his sodium and caloric requirements (30 mmol of Na+ and 560 kcal). It is adequate for his K+ requirement (120 mmol of K+).

      Option C is in excess of his Na+ requirement (462 mmol of Na+). Moreover, it does not provide any K+ replacement.

      Option D is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal) and K+ requirement (60 mmol of K+). Moreover it does not provide any Na+ replacement.

      Option E is in excess of his Na+ requirement (393 mmol of Na+), and is inadequate for his potassium requirement (15 mmol of K+)

      Option A has adequate amounts for his Na+ (231 mmol of Na+) and K+ (120 mmol of K+) requirements. It is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The biochemical assessment of malnutrition can be measured by the amount of plasma...

    Incorrect

    • The biochemical assessment of malnutrition can be measured by the amount of plasma proteins.

      In acute starvation, which of these plasma proteins is the most sensitive indicator?

      Your Answer: Transferrin

      Correct Answer: Retinol binding globulin

      Explanation:

      The half life of Retinol binding protein (RBP) is 10-12 hours and therefore reflects more acute changes in protein metabolism than any of these proteins. Therefore it is not commonly used as a parameter for nutritional assessment.

      The half life of Transthyretin (thyroxine binding pre-albumin) is only one to two days and so levels are less sensitive and this protein is not an albumin precursor. 15 mg/dL represents early malnutrition and a need for nutritional support.

      Albumin levels have been frequently as a marker of nutrition but this is not a very sensitive marker. It’s half life more than 30 days and significant change takes some time to be noticed. Also, synthesis of albumin is decreased with the onset of the stress response after burns. Unrelated to nutritional status, the synthesis of acute phase proteins increases and that of albumin decreases.

      A more accurate indicator of protein stores is transferrin. It’s response to acute changes in protein status is much faster. The half life of serum transferrin is shorter (8-10 days) and there are smaller body stores than albumin. A low serum transferrin level is below 200 mg/dL and below 100 mg/dL is considered severe. Serum transferrin levels can also affect serum transferrin level.

      Fibronectin is used a nutritional marker but levels decrease after seven days of starvation. It is a glycoprotein which plays a role in enhancing the phagocytosis of foreign particles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - One litre of water at 0°C and a pressure of 1 bar is...

    Incorrect

    • One litre of water at 0°C and a pressure of 1 bar is in a water-bath. A 1 kW element is used in heating it.

      Given that the specific heat capacity of water is 4181 J/(kg°C) or J/(kg K), how long will it take to raise the temperature of the water by 10°C?

      Your Answer: 70 minutes

      Correct Answer: 42 seconds

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The solutions that contains the most sodium is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The solutions that contains the most sodium is?

      Your Answer: 1000 mL 3% N saline

      Correct Answer: 3500 mL 0.9% N saline

      Explanation:

      Sodium concentration for different fluids
      3% N saline 513 mmol/L
      5% N saline 856 mmol/L
      0.9% N saline 154 mmol/L
      Hartmann’s solution 131 mmol/L
      0.45% N saline with 5% glucose 77 mmol/L

      This means that:

      500 mL 5% N saline contains 428 mmol of sodium
      1000 mL 3% N saline contains 513 mmol of sodium
      3500 mL 0.9% N saline contains 539 mmol of sodium
      4000 mL Hartmann’s contains 524 mmol of sodium
      6000 mL 0.45% N saline with 5% glucose contains 462 mmol of sodium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by...

    Incorrect

    • In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by oxygen-rich blood over other organs. This is possible because of which phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Fetal brain receives a higher proportion of cardiac output

      Correct Answer: Well oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava is preferentially streamed across the patent foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      During fetal development, blood oxygenated by the placenta flows to the foetus through the umbilical vein, bypasses the fetal liver through the ductus venosus, and returns to the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.

      Blood returning from the inferior vena cava then enters the right atrium and is preferentially shunted to the left atrium through the patent foramen ovale. Blood in the left atrium is then pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The oxygenated blood ejected through the ascending aorta is preferentially directed to the fetal coronary and cerebral circulations.

      Deoxygenated blood returns from the superior vena cava to the right atrium and ventricle to be pumped into the pulmonary artery. Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR), however, is higher than fetal systemic vascular resistance (SVR); this forces deoxygenated blood to mostly bypass the fetal lungs. This poorly oxygenated blood enters the aorta through the patent ductus arteriosus and mixes with the well-oxygenated blood in the descending aorta. The mixed blood in the descending aorta then returns to the placenta for oxygenation through the two umbilical arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via local anaesthesia of a neck abscess?

      Your Answer: Protein binding

      Correct Answer: pKA

      Explanation:

      For the local anaesthetic base to be stable in solution, it is formulated as a hydrochloride salt. As such, the molecules exist in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection. However, this form will not penetrate the neuron. The time for onset of local anaesthesia is therefore predicated on the proportion of molecules that convert to the tertiary, lipid-soluble structure when exposed to physiologic pH (7.4).

      The ionization constant (pKa) for the anaesthetic predicts the proportion of molecules that exists in each of these states. By definition, the pKa of a molecule represents the pH at which 50% of the molecules exist in the lipid-soluble tertiary form and 50% in the quaternary, water-soluble form. The pKa of all local anaesthetics is >7.4 (physiologic pH), and therefore a greater proportion the molecules exists in the quaternary, water-soluble form when injected into tissue having normal pH of 7.4.

      Furthermore, the acidic environment associated with inflamed tissues favours the quaternary, water-soluble configuration even further. Presumably, this accounts for difficulty when attempting to anesthetize inflamed or infected tissues; fewer molecules exist as tertiary lipid-soluble forms that can penetrate nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Cells use adenosine-5-triphosphate (ATP) as a coenzyme and is a source of energy.

    Glucose...

    Correct

    • Cells use adenosine-5-triphosphate (ATP) as a coenzyme and is a source of energy.

      Glucose metabolism produces the most ATP from which of the following biochemical processes?



      Your Answer: Electron transport phosphorylation in the mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It converts 1 glucose molecule (6-carbon) to pyruvate (two 3-carbon molecules) and produces 4 ATP molecules and 2NADH but uses 2 ATP in the process with an overall net energy production of 2 ATP.

      Pyruvate is then oxidised to acetyl coenzyme A (generating 2 NADH per pyruvate molecule). This takes place in the mitochondria and then enters the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle). It produces 2 ATP, 8 NADH and 2 FADH2 per glucose molecule.

      Electron transport phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondria. The aim of this process is to break down NADH and FADH2 and also to pump H+ into the outer compartment of the mitochondria. It produces 32 ATP with an overall net production of 36ATP.

      In anaerobic respiration which occurs in the cytoplasm, pyruvate is reduced to NAD producing 2 ATP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general anaesthesia for a knee arthroscopy.

      Induction was done with fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supra-glottic airway was inserted and using and air oxygen mixture with 2.5% sevoflurane, her anaesthesia was maintained. The patient is allowed to spontaneously breathe using a Bain circuit, and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal Co2 rises from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.

      The most appropriate initial action is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Correct Answer: Hypoventilation

      Explanation:

      The commonest and most likely cause of a gradual rise in end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) occurring during anaesthesia in a spontaneously breathing patient is hypoventilation. This occurs from the respiratory depressant effects of the opioid and sevoflurane.

      Malignant hyperthermia should be sought if the EtCO2 shows further progressive rise.

      Causes of rebreathing and a rise in the baseline of the capnograph can be caused by exhausted soda lime and inadequate fresh gas flow into the Bain circuit.

      A sudden rise in EtCO2 can be caused deflation of the tourniquet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In an experimental study, a healthy subject was given one litre of 5%...

    Incorrect

    • In an experimental study, a healthy subject was given one litre of 5% dextrose within a 15-minute period. Which of the following mechanisms is expected to affect the urine output?

      Your Answer: Osmotic diuresis

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of arginine vasopressin (AVP) secretion

      Explanation:

      Changes in the osmolality of body fluids (changes as minor as 1% are sufficient) play the most important role in regulating AVP secretion. The receptors that monitor changes in osmolality of body fluids (termed osmoreceptors) are distinct from the cells that synthesize and secrete AVP, and are located in the organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis (OVLT) of the hypothalamus. The osmoreceptors sense changes in body osmolality by either shrinking or swelling. When the effective osmolality of the plasma increases, the osmoreceptors send signals to the AVP synthesizing/secreting cells located in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus, and AVP synthesis and secretion are stimulated. Conversely, when the effective osmolality of the plasma is reduced, secretion is inhibited. Because AVP is rapidly degraded in the plasma, circulating levels can be reduced to zero within minutes after secretion is inhibited.

      In this scenario, the osmolality of the plasma will decrease to an estimate of 2.5%, hence inhibition of AVP.

      Stimulation of atrial stretch receptors is incorrect because the increase in plasma volume is still below the threshold for its activation.

      Osmotic diuresis is incorrect because 5% dextrose is isotonic, hence osmotic diuresis is not probable.

      Renin is inhibited when an excess of NaCl in the tubular fluid is sensed by the macula densa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Comparing pressure-volume curves in patients during an asthma attack with that of healthy...

    Incorrect

    • Comparing pressure-volume curves in patients during an asthma attack with that of healthy subjects.

      The increased resistive work of breathing in the patients with asthma is best indicated by?

      Your Answer: Longer expiratory time

      Correct Answer: Larger hysteresis loop

      Explanation:

      A major source of caloric expenditure and oxygen consumption in the body is work of breathing (WOB) and 70% of this is to overcome elastic forces. The remaining 30% is for flow-resistive work

      In a normal patient breathing normally, the total area of hysteresis pressure volume curve represents the flow-resistive WOB.

      The area of the expiratory resistive work increases during an asthma attack making the compliance curve larger in area. The larger the area the greater the work required to breathe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Of the following, which of these oxygen carrying molecules causes the greatest shift...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following, which of these oxygen carrying molecules causes the greatest shift of the oxygen-dissociation curve to the left?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin (HbAA)

      Correct Answer: Myoglobin (Mb)

      Explanation:

      Myoglobin is a haemoglobin-like, iron-containing pigment that is found in muscle fibres. It has a high affinity for oxygen and it consists of a single alpha polypeptide chain. It binds only one oxygen molecule, unlike haemoglobin, which binds 4 oxygen molecules.

      The myoglobin ODC is a rectangular hyperbola. There is a very low P50 0.37 kPa (2.75 mmHg). This means that it needs a lower P50 to facilitate oxygen offloading from haemoglobin. It is low enough to be able to offload oxygen onto myoglobin where it is stored. Myoglobin releases its oxygen at the very low PO2 values found inside the mitochondria.

      P50 is defined as the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen: It is the PO2 at which the haemoglobin becomes 50% saturated with oxygen. Normally, the P50 of adult haemoglobin is 3.47 kPa(26 mmHg).

      Foetal haemoglobin has 2 ? and 2 ?chains. The ODC is left shifted – this means that P50 lies between 2.34-2.67 kPa [18-20 mmHg]) compared with the adult curve and it has a higher affinity for oxygen. Foetal haemoglobin has no ? chains so this means that there is less binding of 2.3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3 DPG).

      Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin with an affinity more than 200-fold higher than that of oxygen. This therefore decreases the amount of haemoglobin that is available for oxygen transport. Carbon monoxide binding also increases the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen, which shifts the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the left and thus impedes oxygen unloading in the tissues.

      In sickle cell disease, (HbSS) has a P50 of 4.53 kPa(34 mmHg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory tract?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The sympathetic innervation of the bronchi is derived from T2 - T4

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm has three opening through which different structures pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity:

      Inferior vena cava passes at the level of T8.

      Oesophagus, oesophageal vessels and vagi at T10.

      Aorta, thoracic duct and azygous vein through T12.

      Sympathetic trunk and pulmonary branches of vagus nerve form a posterior pulmonary plexus at the root of the lung. Fibres continue posteriorly from superficial cardiac plexus to form Anterior pulmonary plexus. It contains vagi nerves and superficial cardiac plexus. These fibres then follow the blood vessel and bronchi into the lungs.

      The lower border of the pleura is at the level of:

      8th rib in the midclavicular line

      10th rib in the lower level of midaxillary line

      T12 at its termination.

      Both lungs have oblique fissure while right lung has transverse fissure too.

      The trachea expands from the lower edge of the cricoid cartilage (at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra) to the carina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance.

      Which one of the following factors has most impact on systemic vascular resistance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small arterioles

      Explanation:

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR), also known as total peripheral resistance (TPR), is the amount of force exerted on circulating blood by the vasculature of the body. Three factors determine the force: the length of the blood vessels in the body, the diameter of the vessels, and the viscosity of the blood within them. The most important factor that determines the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is the tone of the small arterioles.

      These are otherwise known as resistance arterioles. Their diameter ranges between 100 and 450 µm. Smaller resistance vessels, less than 100 µm in diameter (pre-capillary arterioles), play a less significant role in determining SVR. They are subject to autoregulation.

      Any change in the viscosity of blood and therefore flow (such as due to a change in haematocrit) might also have a small effect on the measured vascular resistance.

      Changes of blood temperature can also affect blood rheology and therefore flow through resistance vessels.

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is measured in dynes·s·cm-5

      It can be calculated from the following equation:

      SVR = (mean arterial pressure − mean right atrial pressure) × 80 cardiac output

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year old female was anaesthetically induced for an elective open cholecystectomy. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old female was anaesthetically induced for an elective open cholecystectomy. Upon mask ventilation, patient's oxygen saturation level dropped to 90% despite maximal head extension, jaw thrust and two handed mask seal. Intubation was performed twice but failed. Use of bougie also failed to localize the trachea. Oxygen levels continued to drop, but was maintained between 80 and 88% with mask ventilation.

      Which of the following options is the best action to take for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insert a supraglottic airway

      Explanation:

      A preplanned preinduction strategy includes the consideration of various interventions designed to facilitate intubation should a difficult airway occur. Non-invasive interventions intended to manage a difficult airway include, but are not limited to: (1) awake intubation, (2) video-assisted laryngoscopy, (3) intubating stylets or tube-changers, (4) SGA for ventilation (e.g., LMA, laryngeal tube), (5) SGA for intubation (e.g., ILMA), (6) rigid laryngoscopic blades of varying design and size, (7) fibreoptic-guided intubation, and (8) lighted stylets or light wands.

      Most supraglottic airway devices (SADs) are designed for use during routine anaesthesia, but there are other roles such as airway rescue after failed tracheal intubation, use as a conduit to facilitate tracheal intubation and use by primary responders at cardiac arrest or other out-of-hospital emergencies. Supraglottic airway devices are intrinsically more invasive than use of a facemask for anaesthesia, but less invasive than tracheal intubation. Supraglottic airway devices can usefully be classified as first and second generation SADs and also according to whether they are specifically designed to facilitate tracheal intubation. First generation devices are simply ‘airway tubes’, whereas second generation devices incorporate specific design features to improve safety by protecting against regurgitation and aspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - If a large volume of 0.9% N. saline is administered during resuscitation, it...

    Incorrect

    • If a large volume of 0.9% N. saline is administered during resuscitation, it is most likely to cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Crystalloids recommended for fluid resuscitation include 0.9% N saline and Hartmann’s solution(a physiological solution). 0.9% N. saline is not a physiological solution for the following reasons:

      Compared with the normal range of 98-102 mmol/L, its chloride concentration is high (154 mmol/L)
      It lacks calcium, magnesium, glucose and potassium
      It does not have bicarbonate or bicarbonate precursor buffer necessary to maintain plasma pH within normal limits

      There is a difference in the activity (concentration) of strong ions at a physiological pH. This imbalance can explain abnormalities of acid base balance. A normal strong ion difference (SID) is in the order of 40.

      SID = ([Na+] + [K+] + [Ca2+] + [Mg2+]) – ([Cl-] + [lactate] + [SO42-])

      This imbalance is made up with the weaker anions to maintain electrical neutrality.
      Administration of a large volume of 0.9% normal saline during resuscitation results in excessive chloride administration and this impairs renal bicarbonate reabsorption. The SID of 0.9% normal saline is 0 (Na+ = 154mmol/L and Cl- = 154mmol/L = 154 – 154 = 0). A large volume of NS will decrease the plasma SID causing an acidosis.

      Other causes of a hyperchloremic acidosis are:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis
      Total Parenteral Nutrition
      Overdose of ammonium chloride and hydrochloric acid
      Gastrointestinal losses of bicarbonate like in diarrhoea and pancreatic fistula
      Proximal renal tubular acidosis with failure of bicarbonate reabsorption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The Fick principle can be used to determine the blood flow to any...

    Incorrect

    • The Fick principle can be used to determine the blood flow to any organ of the body.

      At rest, which one of these organs has the highest blood flow (ml/min/100g)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid gland

      Explanation:

      After the carotid body, the thyroid gland is the second most richly vascular organ in the body.

      The global blood flow to the thyroid gland can be measured using:
      1. Colour ultrasound sonography
      2. Quantitative perfusion maps using MRI of the thyroid gland using an arterial spin labelling (ASL) method.

      This table shows the blood flow to various organs of the body at rest:
      Organ Blood Flow(ml/minute/100g)
      Hepatoportal 58
      Kidney 420
      Brain 54
      Skin 13
      Skeletal muscle 2.7
      Heart 87
      Carotid body 2000
      Thyroid gland 560

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day,...

    Incorrect

    • The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day, as determined by the starling forces present in the glomerulus. Ninety-nine percent of which is reabsorbed thereafter.

      Water is reabsorbed in the highest proportion in which segment of the nephron?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Sixty-seven percent of filtered water is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. The driving force for water reabsorption is a transtubular osmotic gradient established by reabsorption of solutes (e.g., NaCl, Na+-glucose).

      Henle’s loop reabsorbs approximately 25% of filtered NaCl and 15% of filtered water. The thin ascending limb reabsorbs NaCl by a passive mechanism, and is impermeable to water. Reabsorption of water, but not NaCl, in the descending thin limb increases the concentration of NaCl in the tubule fluid entering the ascending thin limb. As the NaCl-rich fluid moves toward the cortex, NaCl diffuses out of the tubule lumen across the ascending thin limb and into the medullary interstitial fluid, down a concentration gradient as directed from the tubule fluid to the interstitium. This mechanism is known as the counter current multiplier.

      The distal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb approximately 8% of filtered NaCl, secrete variable amounts of K+ and H+, and reabsorb a variable amount of water (approximately 8%-17%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times.

    Which mechanism...

    Incorrect

    • During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times.

      Which mechanism is the most important for increased blood flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Local autoregulation

      Explanation:

      Skeletal muscle blood flow is in the range of 1-4 ml/min per 100 g when at rest. Blood flow can reach 50-100 ml/min per 100 g during exercise. With maximal vasodilation, blood flow can increase 20 to 50 times.

      The adrenal medulla releases catecholamines and increases neural sympathetic activity during exercise. Normally, alpha-1 and alpha-2 would cause vasoconstriction in the muscle groups being used, but vasodilatory metabolites override these effects, resulting in a so-called functional sympathectomy. Local hypoxia and hypercarbia, nitric oxide, K+ ions, adenosine, and lactate are some of the stimuli that cause vasodilation.

      However, the splanchnic and cutaneous circulations, which supply inactive muscles, vasoconstrict.

      Sympathetic cholinergic innervation of skeletal muscle arteries is found in some species (such as cats and dogs, but not humans). Vasodilation is induced by stimulating smooth muscle beta-2 adrenoreceptors, but at rest, the alpha-adrenoreceptor effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline predominate. During exercise, the skeletal muscle pump promotes venous emptying, but it does not necessarily increase blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following best explains the association between smoking and lower oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best explains the association between smoking and lower oxygen delivery to tissues?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left shift of the oxygen dissociation curve

      Explanation:

      Smoking is a major risk factor associated with perioperative respiratory and cardiovascular complications. Evidence also suggests that cigarette smoking causes imbalance in the prostaglandins and promotes vasoconstriction and excessive platelet aggregation. Two of the constituents of cigarette smoke, nicotine and carbon monoxide, have adverse cardiovascular effects. Carbon monoxide increases the incidence of arrhythmias and has a negative ionotropic effect both in animals and humans.

      Smoking causes an increase in carboxyhaemoglobin levels, resulting in a leftward shift in which appears to represent a risk factor for some of these cardiovascular complications.

      There are two mechanisms responsible for the leftward shift of oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve when carbon monoxide is present in the blood. Carbon monoxide has a direct effect on oxyhaemoglobin, causing a leftward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, and carbon monoxide also reduces the formation of 2,3-DPG by inhibiting glycolysis in the erythrocyte. Nicotine, on the other hand, has a stimulatory effect on the autonomic nervous system. The effects of nicotine on the cardiovascular system last less than 30 min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year old gentleman is in the operating room to have a knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old gentleman is in the operating room to have a knee arthroscopy under general anaesthesia.

      Induction is done using fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supraglottic airway is inserted and the mixture used to maintain anaesthesia is and air oxygen mixture and 2.5% sevoflurane. Using a Bain circuit, the patient breathes spontaneously and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal CO2 increase from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.

      The most appropriate action that should follow is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observe the patient for further change

      Explanation:

      Such a high rise of end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) in a patient who is spontaneously breathing is often encountered.

      Close observation should occur for further rises in EtCO2 and other signs of malignant hyperthermia. If this were to rise even more, it might be wise to ensure that ventilatory support is available.

      A lot would depend on whether surgery was almost completed. At this stage of anaesthesia, it would be inappropriate to administer opioid antagonists or respiratory stimulants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the paediatric airway? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the paediatric airway?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The larynx is more anterior than in an adult

      Explanation:

      In the neonatal stage, the tongue is usually large and comes to the normal size at the age of 1 year. The vocal cords lie inverse C4 and as it reaches the grown-up position inverse C5/6 by the age of 4 (not 1 year).

      Due to the immature cricoid cartilage, the larynx lies more anterior in newborn children. That’s why the cricoid ring is the narrowest part of the paediatric respiratory tract, while in the adults the tightest portion of the respiratory route is vocal cords. The epiglottis is generally expansive and slants at a point of 45 degrees to the laryngeal opening.

      The carina is the ridge of the cartilage in the trachea at the level of T2 in newborn (T4 in adults), that separates the openings of right and left main bronchi.

      Neonates have a comparatively low number of alveoli and then this number gradually increases to a most extreme by the age of 8 (not 3 years).

      Neonates are obligatory nose breathers and any hindrance can cause respiratory issues (e.g., choanal atresia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Concerning forced alkaline diuresis, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning forced alkaline diuresis, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can be used in a barbiturate overdose

      Explanation:

      In situations of poisoning or drug overdose with acid dugs like salicylates and barbiturates, forced alkaline diuresis may be used.

      With regards to overdose with alkaline drugs, forced acid diuresis is used.

      By changing the pH of the urine, the ionised portion of the drug stays in the urine, and this prevents its diffusion back into the blood. Charged molecules do not readily cross biological membranes.

      The process involves the infusion of specific fluids at a rate of about 500ml per hour. This requires monitoring of the central venous pressure, urine output, plasma electrolytes, especially potassium, and blood gas analysis.

      The fluid regimen recommended is:
      500ml of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate (not 200ml of 8.4%)
      500ml of 5% dextrose and
      500ml of 0.9% sodium chloride.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Krebs' cycle...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Krebs' cycle (also known as the tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule

      Explanation:

      Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions in which acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA) is metabolised and this results in carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms production.

      This series of reactions occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells, not the cytoplasm. The cycle requires oxygen and so, cannot function under anaerobic conditions.

      It is the common pathway for carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids oxidation and is required for high energy phosphate bond formation in adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

      When pyruvate enters the mitochondria, it is converted into acetyl-CoA. This represents the formation of a 2 carbon molecule from a 3 carbon molecule. There is loss of one CO2 but formation of one NADH molecule. Acetyl-CoA is condensed with oxaloacetate, the anion of a 4 carbon acid, to form citrate which is a 6 carbon molecule.

      Citrate is then converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.

      The only 5 carbon molecule in the cycle is alpha-ketoglutarate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is true in the Kreb's cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true in the Kreb's cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule

      Explanation:

      Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions to release stored energy through oxidation of acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA). Some of the products are carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms.

      The sequence of reactions, known collectively as oxidative phosphorylation, only occurs in the mitochondria (not cytoplasm).

      The Krebs cycle can only take place when oxygen is present, though it does not require oxygen directly, because it relies on the by-products from the electron transport chain, which requires oxygen. It is therefore considered an aerobic process. It is the common pathway for the oxidation of carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids, required for the formation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

      Pyruvate enters the mitochondria and is converted into acetyl-CoA. Acetyl-CoA is then condensed with oxaloacetate, to form citrate which is a six carbon molecule. Citrate is subsequently converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.

      The only five carbon molecule in the cycle is Alpha-ketoglutarate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 61-year-old woman with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the ER with type...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the ER with type II respiratory failure. There is a suspicion of myasthenic crisis.

      She is in a semiconscious state. Her blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, pulse is 110 beats per minute, temperature is 37°C, and oxygen saturation is 84 percent.

      With a PaCO2 of 75 mmHg (10 kPa) breathing air, blood gas analysis confirms she is hypoventilating.

      Which of the following values is the most accurate representation of her alveolar oxygen tension (PAO2)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7.3

      Explanation:

      The following is the alveolar gas equation:

      PAO2 = PiO2 − PaCO2/R

      Where:

      PAO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.
      PiO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen inhaled.
      PaCO2 stands for partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arteries.
      The amount of carbon dioxide produced (200 mL/minute) divided by the amount of oxygen consumed (250 mL/minute) equals R = respiratory quotient. With a normal diet, the value is 0.8.

      By subtracting the partial pressure exerted by water vapour at body temperature, the PiO2 can be calculated:

      PiO2 = 0.21 × (100 kPa − 6.3 kPa)
      PiO2 = 19.8

      Substituting:
      PAO2 = 19.8 − 10/0.8
      PAO2 = 19.8 − 12.5
      PAO2 = 7.3k Pa

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has a glucose concentration 2/3 that of the plasma glucose

      Explanation:

      The pH of CSF is 7.31 which is lower than plasma.

      Compared to plasma, it has a lower concentration of potassium, calcium, and protein and a higher concentration of sodium, chloride, bicarbonate and magnesium.

      CSF usually has no cells present but if white cells are present, there should be no more than 4/ml.

      The pressure of CSF should be less than 20 cm of water.

      The concentration of glucose is approximately two-thirds of that of plasma, and it has a concentration of approximately 3.3-4 mmol/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (3/15) 20%
Passmed