-
Question 1
Correct
-
A terrorist running away from the police was shot in the back. The bullet hit his left lung halfway between its apex and the diaphragmatic surface. Which part of the lung was most likely to be injured?
Your Answer: Inferior lobe
Explanation:The oblique fissure of the left lung is so sharp that the posterior surface of the left lung is mostly composed of the inferior lobe so that the point halfway between the apex and the diaphragmatic surface of the lung would result in injury to the inferior lobe.
The hilum is the point on the medial surface of the lung where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung.
The lingual on the other hand is part of the superior lobe of the left lung and it is part of the anterior and superior sides of the lung.
The middle lobe is only found on the right lung.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A patient under went repair of a lingual artery aneurysm in the floor of the mouth. During surgical dissection from the inside of the mouth which muscle would you have to pass through to reach the main portion of the lingual artery?
Your Answer: Hyoglossus
Explanation:The lingual artery first runs obliquely upward and medialward to the greater horns of the hyoid bone. It then curves downward and forward, forming a loop which is crossed by the hypoglossal nerve, and passing beneath the digastric muscle and stylohyoid muscle it runs horizontally forward, beneath the hyoglossus, and finally, ascending almost perpendicularly to the tongue, turns forward on its lower surface as far as the tip, to become the deep lingual artery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A patient sustained an injury to the facial nerve after it emerges from the stylomastoid foramen. What is the clinical impact of this injury?
Your Answer: Facial expression
Explanation:The facial nerve is the seventh of the twelve paired cranial nerves. It emerges from the brainstem between the pons and the medulla. It controls the muscles of facial expression and supplies taste fibres to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. It also supplies preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to several head and neck ganglia. Its branches and distribution are as follows:
Inside the facial canal (proximal to the stylomastoid foramen):
– Greater petrosal nerve – provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland, as well as special taste sensory fibres to the palate via the nerve of pterygoid canal
– Nerve to stapedius – provides motor innervation for the stapedius muscle in the middle ear
– Chord tympani – provides parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular and sublingual glands and special sensory taste fibres for the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Outside the skull (distal to the stylomastoid foramen):
– Posterior auricular nerve – controls the movements of some of the scalp muscles around the ear
– Five major facial branches (in the parotid gland), from top to bottom: temporal branch, zygomatic branch, buccal branch, marginal mandibular branch and cervical branch. From the description given above it is obvious that injury to the facial nerve distal to the stylomastoid foramen will affect facial expression.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch?
Your Answer: Gives rise to the styloid process and hyoid bone
Correct Answer: Gives rise to the sphenomandibular ligament
Explanation:The first brachial arch (mandibular) gives rise to the mandibular and maxillary processes. Muscles and bones of this process originate within the arch’s mesoderm. The first arch cartilage (Meckel’s) ossifies to form the incus and malleus of the middle ear. Its perichondrium gives rise to he sphenomandibular ligament and through intermembraneous ossification after the mandible forms, the rest of the cartilage disappears. Muscles of the first arch include: mylohyoid, tensor tympany and palati, temporalis, masseter and lateral pterygoids and the anterior belly of the epigastric. This first arch is supplied by the trigeminal nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Embryology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that affected her middle cerebral artery as revealed by a CT scan is likely to exhibit which of the following neurologic conditions?
Your Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia
Explanation:The middle cerebral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the cerebrum. It continues from the internal carotid artery up into the lateral sulcus. The middle cerebral artery mainly supplies the lateral aspect of the cerebral cortex, anterior aspect of the temporal lobes and the insular cortices.
Functional areas supplied by this vein are as follows:
The motor and pre-motor areas
The somato-sensory
Auditory areas
Motor speech
Sensory speech
Pre-frontal area
Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery results in:
i) A severe contralateral hemiplegia, most marked in the upper extremity and face
ii) A contralateral sensory impairment worse in the upper part of the body.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A surgeon ligates the left superior suprarenal artery whilst preforming a left adrenalectomy. Where does the left superior suprarenal artery originate?
Your Answer: Abdominal aorta
Correct Answer: Left inferior phrenic artery
Explanation:The superior suprarenal arteries arises from the inferior phrenic artery on either side.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 45 years old women was diagnosed with breast cancer. After a radical mastectomy to remove all axillary lymph nodes from her right breast, it was noticed that she had a winged scapula. Which nerve injury would explain this?
Your Answer: Long thoracic nerve
Explanation:The long thoracic nerve supplies the serratus anterior muscle. When this nerve is injured the muscle undergoes paralysis, which is seen clinically as winging of the scapula most apparent when the arm is lifted forward. The long thoracic nerve is greatly susceptible to injury during breast surgery because of its long and superficial course along the thorax from its origin, the brachial plexus, to the lower border of the serratus anterior muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Breast
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A retroperitoneal structure is:
Your Answer: Pancreas
Explanation:Retroperitoneal structures are those that are found behind the peritoneum. They include: kidneys, suprarenal glands, bladder, ureter, inferior vena cava, rectum, oesophagus (part of it), part of the pancreas, 2nd, 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum and ascending and descending parts of the colon.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old lady of African descent with tuberculous of the abdomen and suspected perforation. The small bowel is matted due to adhesions and it is difficult to differentiate the ileum from the jejunum. Which of the following features is typical of the jejunum?
Your Answer: The circular folds of its mucous membrane are small
Correct Answer: It has sparse aggregated lymph nodules
Explanation:The jejunum has a wider diameter, is thicker and more vascularized, hence of a deeper colour compared to the ileum. The valvulae conniventes (circular folds) of its mucous membranes are large and thick and its villi are larger than those in the ileum. The jejunum also has sparse aggregates of lymph nodules and most of its part occupies the umbilical and left iliac regions whilst the ileum is mostly in the umbilical, hypogastric, right iliac and pelvic regions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
Which of the following structures lying posterior to the ovary are at risk of injury in excision of a malignant tumour in the right ovary?
Your Answer: Ureter
Explanation:The ovaries are two nodular structures situated one on either side of the uterus in relation to the lateral wall of the pelvis and attached to the back of the broad ligament of the uterus, lying posteroinferiorly to the fallopian tubes. Each ovary has a lateral and medial surface. The ureter is at greater risk of iatrogenic injury at this location.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A chef, whilst preparing food, cut her thumb with a knife. She transected the arteria princeps pollicis. This artery is a branch of the?
Your Answer: Radial artery
Explanation:The radial artery branches into the arteria princeps pollicis as it turns medially into the deep part of the hand. The arteria princeps pollicis is distributed to the skin and subcutaneous tissue of the thumb.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum are all located on which bone at the base of the skull?
Your Answer: Sphenoid
Explanation:The sphenoid bone consists of two parts, a central part and two wing-like structures that extend sideways towards each side of the skull. It forms the base of the skull, and floor and sides of the orbit. On its central part lies the optic foramen. The foramen ovale, foramen spinosum and foramen rotundum lie on its great wing while the superior orbital fissure lies on its lesser wing.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
The rotator cuff surrounds the shoulder joint and consists of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis and which one other muscle?
Your Answer: Deltoid
Correct Answer: Teres minor
Explanation:The correct answer is the teres minor muscle. These group of muscles play an important role in protecting the shoulder joint and keeping the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa of the scapula. This fossa is somehow shallow and needs support to allow for the full mobility that the shoulder joint has.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
Where would you insert the needle when drawing blood from a patient's median cubital vein?
Your Answer: Anterior aspect of the elbow
Explanation:The correct answer is to insert it into the anterior aspect of the elbow. If you look at the venous drainage of the upper limb, you will find that there are two main veins, the basilic and the cephalic vein; the connecting branch between these two veins is the median cubital vein. and this vein passes via the cubital fossa which is on the anterior aspect of the forearm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
Injury of the ventral rami at this cervical spinal level will result in paralysis of the rectus capitis anterior muscle:
Your Answer: C1, C2
Explanation:The rectus capitis anterior is a short, flat muscle, situated immediately behind the upper part of the longus capitis. It is also known as the obliquus capitis superior. It aids in flexion of the head and the neck. Nerve supple is from C1 and C2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A football player sustained an injury to his ankle. The wound went through the skin, subcutaneous tissue and flexor retinaculum. Which other structure passing under the retinaculum may be injured?
Your Answer: Tibial nerve
Explanation:The flexor retinaculum is immediately posterior to the medial malleolus. The structures that pass under the flexor retinaculum from anterior to posterior are: tendon of the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial artery (and vein), tibial nerve and tendon of flexor hallucis longus. The tibial nerve is the only one which lies behind the flexor retinaculum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Regarding abduction of the digits of the hand, which of the following is correct?
Your Answer: Adduction of the digits will be affected by carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct Answer: All of the adductors of the digits take at least part of their attachments from metacarpal bones
Explanation:Lying on the palmer surfaces of the metacarpal bones are four palmar interossei which are smaller than the dorsal interossei. Arising from the entire length of the metacarpal bone of one finger, is a palmar interosseous, which is inserted into the side of the base of the first phalanx and the aponeurotic expansion of the extensor digitorum communis tendon to the same finger. All the interossei are innervated by the eighth cervical nerve, through the deep palmar branch of the ulnar nerve. The palmar interossei adducts the fingers to an imaginary line drawn longitudinally through the centre of the middle finger.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
Which of these structures is most likely to be damaged if a patient loses consciousness days or weeks after an otherwise insignificant head trauma, especially in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Posterior cerebral artery
Correct Answer: Dural bridging vein
Explanation:A subdural haematoma is a type of hematoma, usually associated with traumatic brain injury, in which blood collects between the dura mater and the pia-arachnoid mater. Symptoms of subdural haemorrhage have a slower onset than those of epidural haemorrhages because the lower pressure veins bleed more slowly than arteries. These injuries are more common in elderly patients, especially those taking antiplatelet or anticoagulant drugs. Oedema and increased intracranial pressure are unusual.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor in his fingers that worsens on reaching for an object, what part of his brain is likely to be involved?
Your Answer: Cerebellum
Explanation:The cerebellum plays an important role in the integration of sensory perception and motor output. Multiple neural pathways link the cerebellum with the motor cortex and the spinocerebellar tract. The cerebellum uses the constant feedback on body position to fine-tune the movements and integrates these pathways. The patient described here has a characteristic cerebellar tremor that is a slow, broad tremor of the extremities and occurs at the end of a purposeful movement.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A previously healthy 40-year-old housewife suddenly complains of a headache and loses consciousness. A CT scan reveals subarachnoid haemorrhage. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Thromboembolism
Correct Answer: Ruptured berry aneurysm
Explanation:Saccular aneurysms, also known as berry aneurysms, appear as a round outpouching and are the most common form of cerebral aneurysm. They are a congenital intracranial defect, and haemorrhage can occur at any age, but is most common between the ages of 40-65 years. A second rupture (rebleeding) sometimes occurs, most often within about 7 days of the first bleed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
The following branch of the aorta is unpaired:
Your Answer: Coeliac artery
Explanation:Branches that stem from the abdominal aorta can be divided into three: the visceral branches, parietal branches and terminal branches. Of the visceral branches, the suprarenal, renal, testicular and ovarian arteries are paired while the coeliac artery and superior and inferior mesenteric arteries are unpaired. Of the parietal branches the inferior phrenic and lumbar arteries are paired while the middle sacral artery is unpaired. The terminal branches i.e. the common iliac arteries are paired.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit. A MRI reveals a large, poorly defined mass with central necrosis in his left temporal lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Medulloblastoma
Correct Answer: Glioblastoma multiforme
Explanation:Glioblastoma multiforme, or grade 4 astrocytoma, is the most common and aggressive primary brain tumour. They are formed by small areas of necrotising tissue surrounded by highly anaplastic cells. Most of them arise from the deep white matter of the brain and quickly infiltrate it, becoming very large before they are symptomatic. The most common symptom is progressive memory, personality or neurological deficit due to temporal and frontal lobe involvement. It is most common in men, and risk factors include: neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis, Von Hippel-Lindau disease, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, and Turcot syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
The specialist registrar, while performing the repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, decides not to re-implant the inferior mesenteric artery into the repaired abdominal aorta. She says that an anastomotic artery running along the border of the large intestine is good enough to supply blood to the territory of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which vessel is she referring to?
Your Answer: Ileocolic
Correct Answer: Marginal
Explanation:The marginal artery is a key anastomosis for the large intestine that runs around the border of the large intestine and is formed by the anastomosis of the branches of the ileocolic artery, right colic artery, middle colic artery, left colic artery and sigmoid artery. If a small artery is occluded, these branches allow blood to reach all segments of the colon.
The arcades are anastomotic loops between the arteries that provide alternative pathways for blood flow. They are more prominent in the small intestine than the large intestine.
Arteriae rectae are small branches that run from the marginal artery to reach the colon.
The ileocolic artery is the branch of the superior mesenteric artery that supplies the caecum, appendix and terminal part of the ileum.
The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8)?
Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi
Explanation:Latissimus dorsi is a triangular, flat muscle that covers the lumbar region and the lower half of the thoracic region. It is supplied by the sixth, seventh and eighth cervical nerves through the thoracodorsal (long subscapular) nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?
Your Answer: Adrenal medulla
Correct Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity
Explanation:Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Embryology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 60-year-old woman complains of left sided headaches which have been recurring for several years. She recently suffered from a focal seizure for the first time a few days ago. A CT scan shows a mass in the left hemisphere of the brain. The most likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer: Meningioma
Explanation:Meningiomas are a common benign intracranial tumour, and their incidence is higher in women between the ages of 40-60 years old. Many of these tumours are asymptomatic and are diagnosed incidentally, although some of them may have malignant presentations (less than 2% of cases). These benign tumours can develop wherever there is dura, over the convexities near the venous sinuses, along the base of the skull, in the posterior fossa and, within the ventricles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Thalamic syndrome will most likely result in:
Your Answer: Thirst
Correct Answer: Hyperaesthesia
Explanation:Signs and symptoms of thalamic syndrome include contralateral hemi anaesthesia, burning or aching sensation in one half of a body (hyperaesthesia), often accompanied by mood swings.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord?
Your Answer: Is filled with jelly of Wharton
Explanation:The umbilical cord that connects the fetus to the placenta is about 50cm long. This tissue consists of the body stalk and vitelline duct. The former containing the allantoic diverticulum and the umbilical vessels. The latter contains the connection linking the digestive tube and the yolk sac. This cord is wrapped by stratum of ectoderm and gelatinous tissue or jelly of Wharton. The right umbilical vein plus the vitelline vessels and ducts disappear and this at birth the cord has three vessels which are the umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Embryology
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens into which of the following structures?
Your Answer: Middle meatus
Explanation:The maxillary sinuses usually develop symmetrically. The maxillary sinus ostium drains into the infundibulum which joins the hiatus semilunaris and drains into the middle meatus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
After a car accident, a 30-year-old woman is alert and only has minor, superficial injuries. 2 hours later, she becomes unconscious and a CT scan reveals a convex, lens-shaped haemorrhage over the right parietal region. The most likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer: Epidural haematoma
Explanation:Epidural haematomas are usually caused by arterial bleeding, classically due to damage to the middle meningeal artery by a temporal bone fracture. Symptoms develop within minutes to several hours after the injury and consist of increasing headache, decreased level of consciousness, hemiparesis and pupillary dilation with loss of light reactivity. Around 15–20% of epidural hematomas are fatal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 31
Correct
-
The vagus nerve passes through which of the following foramen?
Your Answer: Jugular foramen
Explanation:The jugular foramen is a large foramen in the base of the skull. It is located behind the carotid canal and is formed in front by the petrous portion of the temporal bone, and behind by the occipital bone. Cranial nerves IX, X, and XI and the internal jugular vein pass through the jugular foramen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 32
Correct
-
The vascular structure found on the right side of the fifth lumbar vertebra is?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The most likely vascular structure is the inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava is formed by the joining of the two common iliac arteries, the right and the left iliac artery, at the level of the fifth lumbar vertebra( L5). The inferior vena cava passes along the right side of the vertebral column. It enters the thoracic cavity into the underside of the heart through the caval opening of the diaphragm at the level of the eight thoracic vertebra (T8).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 33
Correct
-
Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum?
Your Answer: Gastric
Explanation:The Meckel’s diverticulum is a vestigial remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. This structure is also referred to as the vitelline and contains two types of ectopic tissue, namely; gastric and pancreatic.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Embryology
-
-
Question 34
Correct
-
A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency department by his relatives. The patient however denied the presence of paralysis of his left upper and lower limbs. What is the most likely site of the lesion in this patient?
Your Answer: Right posterior parietal cortex
Explanation:A large injury to the non-dominant parietal cortex can make the patient neglect or refuse to acknowledge the presence of paralysis on the contralateral side. This can also involve the perception of the external world. Smaller injuries in this area which involve the precentral gyrus (primary motor cortex) or postcentral gyrus (primary sensory cortex) cause contralateral spastic paralysis or contralateral loss of tactile sensation respectively. A lesion in posterior inferior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe results in motor aphasia. Involvement of the posterior superior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe produces sensory aphasia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the:
Your Answer: Supraspinatus
Correct Answer: Pectoralis minor
Explanation:Situated at the upper part of the thorax beneath the pectoralis major, is a thin pectoralis minor, triangular muscle. It originates from the third, fourth and fifth ribs, near the cartilage and from the aponeurosis which covers the intercostals. These fibres move upwards and laterally to join and form a flat tendon. This is inserted into the medial border and upper surface of the coracoid process of the scapula. Through this medial anterior thoracic nerve, fibres from the pectoralis minor are received from the eighth cervical and first thoracic nerves. This pectoralis minor pushes down on the point of the shoulder (glenoid fossa), drawing the scapula downward and medially towards the thorax which throws the inferior angle backwards.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 36
Correct
-
Which of these laboratory findings will indicate a fetal neural tube defect when done between 15 and 20 weeks of pregnancy?
Your Answer: Increased alpha-fetoprotein
Explanation:Maternal serum screening during the second trimester is a non-invasive way of identifying women at increased risk of having children with a neural tube defect and should be offered to all pregnant women. The results are most accurate when the sample is taken between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein suggest open spina bifida, anencephaly, risk of pregnancy complications, or multiple pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 37
Correct
-
A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the urinary bladder. Which of the following abdominal wall layers will the surgeon NOT traverse?
Your Answer: Posterior rectus sheath
Explanation:Pfannenstiel incision (a transverse suprapubic incision) is made below the arcuate line. Thus, there is no posterior layer of the rectus sheath here, only the transversalis fascia lines the inner layer of the rectus abdominis. The layers traversed include: skin, superficial fascia (fatty and membranous), deep fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus abdominis muscle, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal connective tissue and peritoneum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 38
Correct
-
The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:
Your Answer: Calcaneus
Explanation:The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg form the characteristic ‘calf’ shape of the posterior leg and include the gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. The gastrocnemius and soleus together form a muscular mass which is occasionally described as the triceps surae; its tendon of insertion is the tendo calcaneus. The tendo calcaneus is the thickest and strongest in the body and together with the tendon of the plantaris muscle is inserted into the posterior part of the calcaneus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
An explorative laparotomy is done on a 23 year old following a gunshot abdominal injury through the right iliac fossa. It is found that the ileocolic artery is severed and the bullet had perforated the caecum. From which branch does the ileocolic artery originate?
Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:Ileocolic artery branches off from the superior mesenteric artery. It then divides to give a superior and inferior branch.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 40
Correct
-
Into which vein does the left and right inferior thyroid veins drain?
Your Answer: Brachiocephalic vein
Explanation:The brachiocephalic vein is formed by the confluence of the subclavian and internal jugular veins. In addition it receives drainage from: the left and right internal thoracic veins (also called internal mammary veins), left and right inferior thyroid veins and the left superior intercostal vein.
The superior thyroid veins and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein. The right and left inferior thyroid veins to drain into their respective brachiocephalic veins (right and left). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
The orbicularis oculi us a muscle that closes the eyelids. What is the motor innervation of this muscle?
Your Answer: A branch of the same nerve that innervates the orbicularis oris muscle
Correct Answer: A branch of a nerve that exits through the stylomastoid foramen
Explanation:The orbicularis oculi is a muscle in the face that closes the eyelids. It is supplied by zygomatic branch of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), which exits through the stylomastoid foramen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 42
Correct
-
Which best describes the suprascapular nerve?
Your Answer: It contains nerve fibres from C5 and C6 spinal cord segments
Explanation:The suprascapular nerve arises from the cervical spinal nerves 5 and 6 after coming together to form common trunk. This nerve supplies the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles giving off branches to the shoulder joint.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
A lady presents to the out patient clinic with a painful boil on the skin of her mons pubis. Which nerve supplies the skin of the mons pubis?
Your Answer: Ilioinguinal
Correct Answer: Anterior labial
Explanation:Anterior labial branch is the terminal branch of the ilioinguinal nerve that innervates the skin of the mons pubis in women and the skin of the anterior scrotum in men.
The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve innervates the upper medial thigh.
The iliohypogastric innervates muscles of the abdominal wall.
The subcostal nerve innervates muscles of the abdominal wall and the skin of the lower abdominal wall.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
A patient underwent surgical excision of mass in the right carotid triangle. One day after the surgery patient complained of numbness of the skin over the right side of the neck. Injury to the cervical plexus of nerves is suspected. What is the possible nerve affected in this patient?
Your Answer: Spinal accessory
Correct Answer: Transverse cervical
Explanation:The transverse cervical nerve (superficial cervical or cutaneous cervical) arises from the second and third spinal nerves, turns around the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid and, passing obliquely forward beneath the external jugular vein to the anterior border of the muscle, it perforates the deep cervical fascia, and divides beneath the platysma into the ascending and descending branches. It provides cutaneous innervation to this area.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 45
Correct
-
Which of the following muscles is innervated by the inferior branch of the right recurrent laryngeal nerve?
Your Answer: Posterior cricoarytenoid
Explanation:The posterior cricoarytenoid muscle, which is the sole abductor of the vocal folds, receives its innervation from the inferior laryngeal nerve which is a continuation of the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
During a case presentation, a 26 year old is said to have fractured his pelvis and shattered his coccyx following a motorbike accident. It is mentioned that he is likely to have lacerated his middle sacral artery from this kind of injury. Where does the middle sacral artery branch from?
Your Answer: Internal Iliac artery
Correct Answer: Abdominal aorta
Explanation:The middle sacral artery arises from behind the aorta a little above the point of its bifurcation to descend down in front of L4,5, the sacrum and coccyx.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 47
Correct
-
Which nerve lies immediately medial to the psoas major muscle?
Your Answer: Obturator
Explanation:The obturator nerve is formed from the ventral divisions of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th lumbar nerves. It courses through the fibres of the psoas major and emerges from the medial border near the pelvic brim.
The iliohypogastric nerve comes from the first lumbar nerve and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of psoas major.
The ilioinguinal nerve arises with the iliohypogastric nerve from the first lumbar nerve and also emerges from the lateral border of the psoas major muscle.
The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve comes from the posterior division of the 2nd and 3rd lumbar nerves to emerge from the lateral border of the psoas major muscle near its middle.
The femoral nerve also arises from the dorsal divisions, but of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th lumbar nerves and courses through the muscle fibres to emerge at the lower part of the lateral border.
The coccygeal nerve doesn’t arise from the lumbar plexus but from the sacral plexus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 48
Correct
-
The principal motor and sensory nerve of the perineum is the?
Your Answer: Pudendal
Explanation:The pudendal nerve is formed by S1,2,4 anterior branches. It gives off the inferior haemorrhoid nerve before dividing terminally into the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris or the penis. Thus, it is the principal motor and sensory nerve of the perineum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
-
-
Question 49
Correct
-
A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a cystic swelling in the left chest. The radiologist inserted the biopsy needle into the 9th intercostal space along the mid axillary line to aspirate the swelling and obtain tissue for histological diagnosis. In which space is the swelling most likely to be?
Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess
Explanation:The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.
The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.
Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.
Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.
Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.
The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 50
Correct
-
During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the posterior vagal trunk is injured. This damage would affect muscular movements as well as some secretory activities of the gastrointestinal tract. Which gastrointestinal segment is LEAST likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Sigmoid colon
Explanation:The vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic fibres to the abdominal structures that are receive arterial supply from the coeliac trunk or superior mesenteric artery i.e. up to the transverse colon. The end of the transverse colon and the gastrointestinal structures distal to this point receive parasympathetic innervation from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and blood from the inferior mesenteric artery(IMA). The ascending colon, caecum, jejunum and ileum would all, thus, be affected by this damage. Sigmoid colon would not be affected.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
