00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 45 year old lady has been diagnosed with Friedreich's ataxia that has...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old lady has been diagnosed with Friedreich's ataxia that has affected her medial group of nuclei in the anterior horn of the spinal cord. Which of the following structures will have their muscles affected?

      Your Answer: Axial muscles

      Explanation:

      The cells in the anterior horn can be arranged in the following three main groups: medial, lateral and central. The medial group of nuclei in the anterior horn of the spinal cord are located along the entire length of the spinal cord and are responsible for the innervation of the axial muscles of the body ( muscles of the head and neck region). Thus this disease will most likely affect the functioning of the muscles of the head and neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An explorative laparotomy is done on a 23 year old following a gunshot...

    Correct

    • An explorative laparotomy is done on a 23 year old following a gunshot abdominal injury through the right iliac fossa. It is found that the ileocolic artery is severed and the bullet had perforated the caecum. From which branch does the ileocolic artery originate?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Ileocolic artery branches off from the superior mesenteric artery. It then divides to give a superior and inferior branch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What...

    Correct

    • Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What function do they perform in the muscle?

      Your Answer: Acts like haemoglobin and binds with O2

      Explanation:

      Myoglobin is a pigmented globular protein made up of 153 amino acids with a prosthetic group containing haem around which the apoprotein folds. It is the primary oxygen carrying protein of the muscles. The binding of oxygen to myoglobin is unaffected by the oxygen pressure as it has an instant tendency to bind given its hyperbolic oxygen curve. It releases oxygen at very low pO2 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A chef, whilst preparing food, cut her thumb with a knife. She transected...

    Correct

    • A chef, whilst preparing food, cut her thumb with a knife. She transected the arteria princeps pollicis. This artery is a branch of the?

      Your Answer: Radial artery

      Explanation:

      The radial artery branches into the arteria princeps pollicis as it turns medially into the deep part of the hand. The arteria princeps pollicis is distributed to the skin and subcutaneous tissue of the thumb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - the action of the semimembranosus muscle is: ...

    Correct

    • the action of the semimembranosus muscle is:

      Your Answer: Extension of the hip and flexion of the knee

      Explanation:

      the semimembranosus is situated at the back and medial side of the thigh. It arises from the upper and outer impression on the tuberosity of the ischium, above and lateral to the biceps femoris and semitendinosus. It is inserted mainly into the horizontal groove on the posterior medial aspect of the medial condyle of the tibia. it flexes the knee and assists in extension of the hip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Multiple, non-tender lymphadenopathy with biopsy showing several crowded follicles of small, monomorphic lymphocytes...

    Incorrect

    • Multiple, non-tender lymphadenopathy with biopsy showing several crowded follicles of small, monomorphic lymphocytes and the absence of Reed-Sternberg cells is seen in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Poorly differentiated lymphocytic lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Malignant lymphoma usually causes non-tender lymphadenopathy, unlike the tender lymphadenopathy caused by infections (including infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus). Also, the lymphoid hyperplasia seen in infectious mononucleosis is benign and polyclonal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Mechanical distortion, and not K+ channels are responsible for distortion of which of...

    Correct

    • Mechanical distortion, and not K+ channels are responsible for distortion of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Pacinian corpuscle

      Explanation:

      Pacinian corpuscles are a type of mechanoreceptor, sensitive to deep pressure, touch and high-frequency vibration. The Pacinian corpuscles are ovoid and about 1 mm long. In the centre of the corpuscle is the inner bulb, which is a fluid-filled cavity with a single afferent unmyelinated nerve ending. Any deformation in the corpuscle causes the generation of action potentials by opening of pressure-sensitive sodium ion channels in the axon membrane. This allows influx of sodium ions, creating a receptor potential (independent of potassium channels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Where do the seminal vesicles lie? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where do the seminal vesicles lie?

      Your Answer: Base of the bladder and prostate

      Correct Answer: Base of the bladder and rectum

      Explanation:

      The seminal vesicles are two lobulated membranous pouches situated between the fundus of the bladder and rectum and act as a reservoir for the semen and secrete a fluid that is added to the seminal fluid. Each sac is pyramidal in shape but they all vary in size not only in different individuals but also in the same individuals. The anterior surface is in contact with the fundus of the bladder, extending from near the termination of the ureter to the base of the prostate. Each vesicle consist of single tube, which gives off several irregular caecal diverticula. These separate coils and the diverticula are connected by fibrous tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 18 -year-old female is diagnosed with folliculitis in the left axilla. What...

    Correct

    • An 18 -year-old female is diagnosed with folliculitis in the left axilla. What is the most likely organism that could cause this condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Folliculitis is the inflammation of the hair follicles. It is usually caused by Staphylococcus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Injury of the ventral rami at this cervical spinal level will result in...

    Correct

    • Injury of the ventral rami at this cervical spinal level will result in paralysis of the rectus capitis anterior muscle:

      Your Answer: C1, C2

      Explanation:

      The rectus capitis anterior is a short, flat muscle, situated immediately behind the upper part of the longus capitis. It is also known as the obliquus capitis superior. It aids in flexion of the head and the neck. Nerve supple is from C1 and C2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal...

    Incorrect

    • Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal between tibialis posterior and flexor hallucis longus was lacerated. Which of the following arteries was injured?

      Your Answer: Posterior tibial

      Correct Answer: Peroneal

      Explanation:

      The peroneal artery is deeply seated at the back of the fibular side of the leg, contained in a fibrous canal between the tibialis posterior and the flexor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that the hernial sac is protruding out of the superficial inguinal ring. The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in which structure?

      Your Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique just above and lateral to the pubic crest. The opening is oblique and corresponds to the fibres of the aponeurosis. It is bound inferiorly by the pubic crest, on either side by the margins of the opening in the aponeurosis and superiorly by the curved intercrural fibres.

      The inferior crus is formed by the portion of the inguinal ligament that is inserted into the pubic tubercle.

      The falx inguinalis is made of arching fibres of the transversalis fascia and the internal abdominal oblique muscle. It forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

      The internal abdominal oblique forms the root of the inguinal canal.

      Scarpa’s and Camper’s fascia are the membranous and fatty layers, respectively of subcutaneous fascia.

      Transversalis fascia covers the posterior surface of the rectus abdominis muscle inferior to the arcuate line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      44.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which statement is true about the inferior sagittal sinus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true about the inferior sagittal sinus?

      Your Answer: It drains into the transverse sinus

      Correct Answer: Is formed between two layers of meningeal dura

      Explanation:

      The inferior sagittal sinus is also known as the inferior longitudinal sinus. It courses along the inferior border of the falx cerebri, superior to the corpus callosum. It is cylindrical in shape and increases in size as it passes backward ending in the straight sinus. It receives blood from the deep and medial aspects of the cerebral hemispheres and drains into the straight sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - One of the following structures is contained in the anterior compartment of the...

    Incorrect

    • One of the following structures is contained in the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Which is it?

      Your Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve

      Correct Answer: Extensor hallucis muscle

      Explanation:

      The lower leg is made up of four fascial compartments separated from one another by septa that contain the muscles of the lower leg. The four compartments are ; anterior, lateral, deep posterior and superficial posterior compartments.

      These are the compartments and there contents:

      i) Anterior compartment: Tibialis anterior muscle, extensor hallucis longus muscle, extensor digitorum longus muscle, peroneus tertius muscles, deep fibular nerve and anterior tibial blood vessels

      ii) Lateral compartment: Fibularis longus muscle, brevis muscles and superficial fibular nerve

      iii) Deep posterior compartment: Tibialis posterior m., flexor hallucis longus m., flexor digitorum longus m. ,popliteus m. , tibial nerve, posterior tibial artery and posterior tibial vessels such as the fibular artery.

      iv) Superficial posterior compartment: Gastrocnemius m., soleus m., plantaris m., medial sural cutaneous nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of acidity. According to this equation,...

    Incorrect

    • The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of acidity. According to this equation, the buffering capacity of the system is at maximum when the number of free anions compared with undissociated acid is:

      Your Answer: Two times more

      Correct Answer: Equal

      Explanation:

      In 1908, Lawrence Joseph Henderson wrote an equation describing the use of carbonic acid as a buffer solution. Later, Karl Albert Hasselbalch re-expressed that formula in logarithmic terms, resulting in the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation. The equation is also useful for estimating the pH of a buffer solution and finding the equilibrium pH in acid–base reactions. Two equivalent forms of the equation are: pH = pKa + log10 [A–]/[HA] or pH = pKa + log10 [base]/[acid]. Here, pKa is − log10(Ka) where Ka is the acid dissociation constant, that is: pKa = –log10(Ka) = –log10 ([H3 O+][A–]/[HA]) for the reaction: HA + H2 O ≈ A– + H3 O+ In these equations, A– denotes the ionic form of the relevant acid. Bracketed quantities such as [base] and [acid] denote the molar concentration of the quantity enclosed. Maximum buffering capacity is found when pH = pKa or when the number of free anions to undissociated acid is equal and buffer range is considered to be at a pH = pKa ± 1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following muscles winds around the pterygoid hamulus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles winds around the pterygoid hamulus?

      Your Answer: Tensor veli palatini

      Explanation:

      The tensor veli palatini tenses the soft palate and by doing so, assists the levator veli palatini in elevating the palate to occlude and prevent entry of food into the nasopharynx during swallowing. It arises by a flat lamella from the scaphoid fossa at the base of the medial pterygoid plate, from the spina angularis of the sphenoid and from the lateral wall of the cartilage of the auditory tube. Descending vertically between the medial pterygoid plate and the medial pterygoid muscle, it ends in a tendon which winds around the pterygoid hamulus, being retained in this situation by some of the fibres of origin of the medial pterygoid muscle. Between the tendon and the hamulus is a small bursa. The tendon then passes medialward and is inserted onto the palatine aponeurosis and the surface behind the transverse ridge on the horizontal part of the palatine bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Where does the ejaculatory duct open into? ...

    Correct

    • Where does the ejaculatory duct open into?

      Your Answer: Prostatic urethra

      Explanation:

      There are two ejaculatory ducts, one on either side of the midline. Each ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicles with the ductus deferens. They start at the base of the prostate and run forward and downward between the middle and lateral lobes and along the side of the prostatic utricle to end in the prostatic urethra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Congenital anomalies of genitourinary tract are more common than any other system. Which...

    Correct

    • Congenital anomalies of genitourinary tract are more common than any other system. Which of the following anomalies carries the greatest risk of morbidity?

      Your Answer: Bladder exstrophy

      Explanation:

      Bladder exstrophy is the condition where the urinary bladder opens from the anterior aspect suprapubically. The mucosa of the bladder is continuous with the abdominal skin and there is separation of the pubic bones. The function of the upper urinary tract remains normal usually. Treatment consists of surgical reconstruction of the bladder and returning it to the pelvis. There can be a need for continent urinary diversion along with reconstruction of the genitals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 77-year-old woman's renal function is tested. The following results were obtained during...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old woman's renal function is tested. The following results were obtained during a 24-h period:

      Urine flow rate: 2. 0 ml/min

      Urine inulin: 0.5 mg/ml

      Plasma inulin: 0.02 mg/ml

      Urine urea: 220 mmol/l

      Plasma urea: 5 mmol/l.

      What is the urea clearance?

      Your Answer: 76 ml/min

      Correct Answer: 88 ml/min

      Explanation:

      Urea is reabsorbed in the inner medullary collecting ducts of the nephrons. The clearance (C) of any substance can be calculated as follows: C = (U × V)/P, where U and P are the urine and plasma concentrations of the substance, respectively and V is the urine flow rate. So, glomerular filtration rate = (0.220 × 2. 0)/0.005 = 88 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The vagus nerve passes through which of the following foramen? ...

    Correct

    • The vagus nerve passes through which of the following foramen?

      Your Answer: Jugular foramen

      Explanation:

      The jugular foramen is a large foramen in the base of the skull. It is located behind the carotid canal and is formed in front by the petrous portion of the temporal bone, and behind by the occipital bone. Cranial nerves IX, X, and XI and the internal jugular vein pass through the jugular foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - From which of the following cells is heparin produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which of the following cells is heparin produced?

      Your Answer: Hepatocytes

      Correct Answer: Mast cells

      Explanation:

      Heparin is a natural highly-sulphated glycosaminoglycan that has anticoagulant functions. It is produced by the body basophils and mast cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman suffering from hyperemesis gravidarum is prescribed metoclopramide. What is...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman suffering from hyperemesis gravidarum is prescribed metoclopramide. What is the mechanism of action of metoclopramide?

      Your Answer: Dopamine antagonist

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide is a potent dopamine-receptor antagonist with anti-emetic and prokinetic properties. It is therefore commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting, and to facilitate gastric emptying in patients with gastric stasis. The anti-emetic action of metoclopramide is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) in the central nervous system. Common adverse drug reactions associated with metoclopramide include restlessness (akathisia), and focal dystonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An old man fell and fractured a carpal bone articulating with the pisiform...

    Incorrect

    • An old man fell and fractured a carpal bone articulating with the pisiform bone. Which bone was most likely fractured?

      Your Answer: Trapezium

      Correct Answer: Triquetral

      Explanation:

      The pisiform bone has an oval facet for articulation with the triquetral bone. The pisiform bone is a sesamoid bone, and is anterior to the other carpal bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old male presents with dysuria and chronic haematuria. He was diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male presents with dysuria and chronic haematuria. He was diagnosed with bladder cancer and tumour invasion of the perivesical fat. What is the stage of the patient's bladder cancer?

      Your Answer: T3

      Explanation:

      Bladder cancer is the growth of abnormal or cancerous cells on the inner lining of the bladder wall. The staging is as follows; stage 0is (Tis, N0, M0): Cancerous cells in the inner lining tissue of the bladder only, stage I (T1, N0, M0): tumour has spread onto the bladder wall, stage II (T2, N0, M0): tumour has penetrated the inner wall and is present in muscle of the bladder wall, stage III (T3, N0, M0): tumour has spread through the bladder to fat around the bladder and stage IV: (T4, N0, M0): tumour has grown through the bladder wall and into the pelvic or abdominal wall. The stage of cancer in the case presented is T3 because of the invasion of perivesical fat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm...

    Correct

    • An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. The patient, however, does not complain of any symptoms. Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery is rarely symptomatic because its territory is supplied by branches of the:

      Your Answer: Middle colic artery

      Explanation:

      The transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery which is a branch from the superior mesenteric artery. If the inferior mesenteric artery was occluded, branches from the middle colic may go to the marginal artery which supplies the descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum.. Ileocolic and right colic arteries also branch from the superior mesenteric artery that supply the colon but the middle colic, which serves the more distal part of the colon is the better answer. The gastroduodenal artery branches off the common hepatic artery, which supplies part of the duodenum, pancreas and stomach. The splenic artery supplies the spleen, pancreas and curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following statements regarding the arteries in the neck are TRUE?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding the arteries in the neck are TRUE?

      Your Answer: The thyrocervical trunk typically gives rise to the inferior thyroid artery, transverse cervical artery and suprascapular artery

      Explanation:

      The thyrocervical trunk is one of the three branches of the first part of the subclavian artery and gives numerous branches which supply viscera of the neck, the brachial plexus, neck muscles and scapular anastomoses. The vertebral arteries are major arteries of the neck. They arise as branches from the subclavian arteries and merge to form the single midline basilar artery. The carotid sinus is a dilated area at the base of the internal carotid artery just superior to the bifurcation of the internal carotid and external carotid at the level of the superior border of thyroid cartilage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - You observe a procedure to harvest the left internal thoracic (mammary) artery to...

    Correct

    • You observe a procedure to harvest the left internal thoracic (mammary) artery to be used as a graft for coronary artery bypass surgery. The left internal thoracic artery is mobilised from the inside of the chest wall and divided near the caudal end of the sternum. After dividing the internal thoracic artery at its distal end, the specialist registrar asks you to name the artery that will now have increased blood supply so that adequate blood flow is maintained to the rectus abdominis on the left side. What would your answer be?

      Your Answer: Inferior epigastric artery

      Explanation:

      The rectus abdominis muscle is supplied by the superior epigastric artery which is a branch of the internal thoracic artery. If the internal thoracic artery is thus ligated, blood would no longer flow to it. However, the superior epigastric artery communicates with the inferior epigastric artery (a branch of the external iliac artery). This means that blood could flow from the external iliac, to the inferior epigastric, to the superior epigastric to the rectus abdominis.

      The superficial circumflex iliac artery and the superficial epigastric are two superficial branches of the femoral artery and do not supply the deep branches of the abdomen.

      The deep circumflex iliac artery travels along the iliac crest on the inner surface of the abdominal wall; being too lateral it doesn’t supply blood to the rectus abdominis.

      The distal portions of the umbilical arteries are obliterated in adults to form the medial umbilical folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year old lady underwent biopsy of a soft, fleshy mass involving her...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old lady underwent biopsy of a soft, fleshy mass involving her left breast. The biopsy showed lymphoid stroma with minimal fibrosis, surrounding sheets of large vesicular cells with frequent mitoses. Which condition is she most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Cystosarcoma phyllodes

      Correct Answer: Medullary carcinoma of breast

      Explanation:

      Medullary carcinoma is a malignant tumour of the breast with well-defined boundaries and accounts for 5% of all breast cancers. Other special features include a larger size of the neoplastic cells and presence of lymphoid cells at tumour edge. Differential diagnosis includes invasive ductal carcinoma. Prognosis is usually good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 60 year-old patient being treated for hypertension presents to the ED with...

    Correct

    • A 60 year-old patient being treated for hypertension presents to the ED with swelling of the left upper limb due to poor venous return. On examination, it is found that an aneurysm of the ascending aorta is impinging on a large vein lying immediately anterosuperior to it. Which vein is it likely to be?

      Your Answer: Left brachiocephalic

      Explanation:

      Among the veins listed, only the left brachiocephalic vein is anterosuperior to the ascending aorta. The right brachiocephalic vein being on the right side would not be affected by the aortic aneurysm.

      The azygos vein lies deep in the chest on the right side.

      The internal thoracic vein lies interior to the anterior wall of the chest.

      The left superior intercostal vein is close to the aortic arch, crossing it laterally. This vein drains the 2nd to 4th interspaces on the left side.

      The Right internal jugular vein joins the right brachiocephalic vein which would not be affected by the aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Atrial septal defect (ASD) is most likely to be due to incomplete closure...

    Incorrect

    • Atrial septal defect (ASD) is most likely to be due to incomplete closure of which one of the following structures:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      Atrial septal defect is a congenital heart defect that results in a communication between the right and left atria of the heart and may involve the interatrial septum. It results from incomplete closure of the foramen ovale which is normally open during fetal life and closes just after birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (13/18) 72%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Abdomen (5/5) 100%
General (1/1) 100%
Physiology (2/4) 50%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
Lower Limb (1/3) 33%
Haematology (0/2) 0%
Pathology (4/7) 57%
Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (4/5) 80%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/2) 0%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Women's Health (0/1) 0%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Passmed