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Question 1
Incorrect
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Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following diseases?
Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Advanced paternal age is associated with poor quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility along with an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, Marfan’s syndrome, neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor. Turner syndrome is not found to be caused by advanced paternal age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 14-month-old boy is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother with complaints of vomiting, abdominal pain, and rectal bleeding. On examination, he is found to be dehydrated, and a palpable abdominal mass was felt. A Meckel's scan proved to be negative. However, the ultrasound scan did reveal a target sign.What is the most probable cause of the patient's complaints?
Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:The most probable cause for the patient’s symptoms is intussusception.Intussusception is a condition in which part of the intestine folds into the section next to it. It most commonly involves the small bowel and rarely the large bowel. Intussusception doesn’t usually require surgical correction. 80% of cases can be both confirmed and reduced using barium, water-soluble or air-contrast enema. However, up to 10% of cases can experience recurrence within 24 hours after reduction, warranting close monitoring during this period.Other options:- Enteric duplication: a duplication cyst could give all these features, although it may contain sufficient gastric epithelium to produce a positive Meckel’s scan. However, this is comparatively rare. – Meckel’s diverticulum: Scintigraphy has poor sensitivity making the possibility of a bleed from a Meckel’s diverticulum a genuine differential for this patient. However, considering the presence of features of bowel obstruction in the patient, a Meckel’s diverticulum bleeding and obstructing at the same time would be a rare phenomenon. – Midgut volvulus: It is also a plausible differential in this patient. However, for the given age group, a midgut volvulus is relatively uncommon compared to intussusception. – Acute appendicitis: While it is true that appendicitis can present acutely with a palpable mass and bowel obstruction, it rarely presents with rectal bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Correct Answer: Varicella
Explanation:Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A nuchal translucency measurement is taken from the nape of the foetus' neck to screen for Down's syndrome.Which of these is the embryological origin of this tissue?
Your Answer: Mesoderm
Correct Answer: Ectoderm
Explanation:The origins of the neural tube and the nape of the neck where nuchal translucency measurements are taken are from embryonic ectoderm.The structural development of the head and neck occurs between the third and eighth weeks of gestation. The 5 pairs of branchial arches, corresponding to the primitive vertebrae gill bars, that form on either side of the pharyngeal foregut on day 22 are the embryologic basis of all the differentiated structures of the head and neck. Each arch consists of 3 layers: an outer covering of ectoderm, an inner covering of endoderm, and a middle core of mesenchyme. These arches are separated further into external, ectoderm-lined pharyngeal clefts and internal, endoderm-lined pharyngeal pouchesA population of ectodermal cells adjacent to the neural fold and not included in the overlying surface (somatic) ectoderm gives rise to the formation of the neural crest. These neuroectodermal crest cells are believed to migrate widely throughout the developing embryo in a relatively cell-free enriched extracellular matrix and differentiate into a wide array of cell and tissue types, influenced by the local environment. Most connective and skeletal tissues of the cranium and face ultimately come from the derivatives of neural crest cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea and loose stools. He looks shorter than his age and does not seem to have undergone a growth spurt. After a series of investigations, he is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. Which of the following treatment strategies should initially be employed?
Your Answer: Elemental diet for 6 weeks
Explanation:The elemental diet is a medically supervised, sole nutrition dietary management given to individuals with moderate to severe impaired gastrointestinal function for 14-21 days.The diet consists of macronutrients broken down into their elemental form requiring little to no digestive functionality allowing time for the gut to rest. Elemental formulations are believed to be entirely absorbed within the first few feet of small intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral medication to improve the symptoms of patients with asthma. In the trial 400 patients with asthma, half were given the new medication and half a placebo. Three months later they are asked to rate their symptoms using the following scale: much improved, slight improvement, no change, slight worsening, significantly worse. What is the most appropriate statistical test to see whether the new medication is beneficial?
Your Answer: Chi-squared test
Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test
Explanation:The type of significance test used depends on whether the data is parametric (can be measured, usually normally distributed) or non-parametric.
Parametric tests:
Student’s t-test – paired or unpaired*
Pearson’s product-moment coefficient – correlationNon-parametric tests:
Mann-Whitney U test – unpaired data
Wilcoxon signed-rank test – compares two sets of observations on a single sample
chi-squared test – used to compare proportions or percentages
Spearman, Kendall rank – correlation.The outcome measured is not normally distributed, i.e. it is non-parametric. This excludes the Student’s t-tests. We are not comparing percentages/proportions so the chi-squared test is excluded. The Mann–Whitney U test is a nonparametric test of the null hypothesis that it is equally likely that a randomly selected value from one sample will be less than or greater than a randomly selected value from a second sample.
This test can be used to investigate whether two independent samples were selected from populations having the same distribution. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 17 year old girl presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the midline. Examination confirms the finding and petechial haemorrhages affecting the oropharynx are observed. Splenomegaly is seen on systemic examination. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Infection with Epstein Barr virus
Explanation:Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infectionThe Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:fever,fatigue,swollen tonsils,headache, andsweats,sore throat,swollen lymph nodes in the neck, andsometimes an enlarged spleen.Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.Petechiae on the palate are characteristic of streptococcal pharyngitis but also can be seen in Epstein–Barr virus infection, Arcanobacterium haemolyticum pharyngitis, rubella, roseola, viral haemorrhagic fevers, thrombocytopenia, and palatal trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with a mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Which of the following statements regarding the breast is untrue?
Your Answer: The internal mammary artery is a branch of the subclavian artery
Correct Answer: Nipple retraction may occur as a result of tumour infiltration of the clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:Patients with breast cancer develop clinical symptoms rather late at advanced tumour stages. Typical signs may include:Changes in breast size and/or shape| asymmetric breastsPalpable mass: typically a single, nontender, firm mass with poorly defined margins, most commonly in the upper outer quadrantSkin changes: Retractions or dimpling (due to tightening of the Cooper ligaments), Peau d’orange: skin resembling an orange peel (due to obstruction of the lymphatic channels): Redness, oedema, and pitting of the hair folliclesNipple changes: inversion, blood-tinged dischargeAxillary lymphadenopathy: firm, enlarged lymph nodes (> 1 cm in size), that are fixed to the skin or surrounding tissueIn advanced stages: ulcerations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 12 year old boy has a high HbA1c and is being checked by the diabetic specialist nurse. He has been skipping meals lately and his school teachers have noticed that he's been unhappy. Who do you suggest his parents take him to?
Your Answer: Clinical psychologist
Explanation:The boy is most probably a type 1 diabetic patient. Such a condition can affect the behaviour and psychological state of a young child reflected in their behaviour. The parents should seek the help of a clinical psychologist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 10
Correct
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A 6 year old child who has been developing normally until the age of 18 months, is now being investigated for developmental delay. The girl started losing her acquired skills and stopped walking. During the clinical examination she is holding her hands together and twisting and turning them. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rett syndrome
Explanation:Rett syndrome is a disorder that affects the brain and occurs most commonly in girls. It presents with a period of normal development followed by severe problems with language and communication, learning, coordination, and other brain functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which one of the following fulfils the diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer: There is one neurofibroma and two café-au-lait spots
Correct Answer: There is groin freckling and a plexiform neurofibroma
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disease caused by the mutation of the neurofibromin gene on Chromosome 17. The diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type 1 are two or more of the following:-6 or more cafe au lait macules-2 or more cutaneous neurofibroma or one plexiform Neurofibroma-Axillary of groin freckling -Optic pathway glioma -2 or more Lisch nodules (hamartomas of the iris seen on slit lamp examination)-Bony dysplasia (such as sphenoid wing dysplasia, bowing of the long bones, or pseudarthrosis)-First degree relative with neurofibromatosis type 1
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents with complaints of ear pain. The pain started last night and prevented him from sleeping. He reports that sounds are muffled on the affected side. On examination, he has a fever. A bulging tympanic membrane with a visible fluid level is seen on otoscopy. You suspect a diagnosis of acute suppurative otitis media. Tensor tympani is a muscle that is found in the middle ear. What is the nerve supplying the tensor tympani?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mandibular nerve
Explanation:The nerve supply to the tensor tympani is the mandibular nerve.The mandibular nerve is the only division of the trigeminal nerve that carries motor fibres.Tensor tympani is a muscle that lies in a bony canal just superior to the pharyngotympanic tube. It originates from the cartilaginous portion of the pharyngotympanic tube, the bony canal in which it sits, and the greater wing of the sphenoid bone. It inserts into the upper part of the handle of the malleus. When contracted, it pulls the handle of the malleus medially. This action increases the tension across the tympanic membrane, reducing the magnitude of vibrations transmitted into the middle ear. This dampens loud noises or noises produced by chewing. Tensor tympani is innervated through the nerve to tensor tympani, which arises from the mandibular nerve.Other options:- The vestibulocochlear nerve is the eighth cranial nerve. This nerve has two components, a vestibular division that carries balance information, and a cochlear division that carries hearing information.- The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve. It has a wide range of functions. It carries taste and sensation from the posterior third of the tongue, as well as sensation from the pharyngeal wall and tonsils, the middle ear, external auditory canal and auricle. It carries parasympathetic fibres that supply the parotid gland. It also supplies the baroreceptors and chemoreceptors of the carotid sinus and supplies the secretomotor fibres to the parotid gland.- The maxillary nerve carries only sensory fibres.- The facial nerve is the seventh cranial nerve. It supplies the muscles of facial expression, as well as stylohyoid, the posterior belly of digastric, and stapedius (the only other muscle associated with the middle ear). It carries taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and sensation from part of the external acoustic meatus, parts of the auricle and the retro-auricular area. It provides secretomotor fibres which supply to the submandibular gland, sublingual gland (via chorda tympani nerve), nasal glands and lacrimal glands.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A young child presents with a dull and greyish tympanic membrane and no shadow of the handle of malleus is evident. His mother complains that he does not respond when she calls him and that he lately raises the volume of the TV. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretory OM
Explanation:In secretory OM, effusion in the middle ear is present which does not produce any pain to the patient in comparison to acute OM which produces otalgia. The family members are the ones to notice hearing loss as the patient usually is not aware of it. On otoscopy, the features described in the question are prominent. Otitis externa is usually painful and it also produces an itching sensation. Chronic otitis media is painful and may interfere with balance problems. Cholesteatoma is an abnormal cystic growth in the middle ear that usually discharges foul-smelling fluids and as it grows, otalgia can appear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The father of a 3 month old baby presents to the child health clinic complaining that his child passes only one hard stool a day. He has tried to bicycle his legs and massage his abdomen but has not been successful. The baby seems to be growing well, and nothing of concern was found on clinical examination. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise extra water in between feeds
Explanation:According to the NICE guidelines, the frequency of stool passage is considered constipation when two or more of the following findings are present: Fewer than 3 stools a week, large hard stools, stools that resemble rabbit droppings| symptoms associated with defecation including distress, bleeding or straining| a history of previous episodes of a precious/current anal fissure. The child in the scenario fails to meet the criteria, and has no evidence of impacted faeces on examination. The best course of action is to encourage the parents to give the child more water to prevent dehydration, and feed the child a fibre rich diet including fruits, vegetables and high fibre bread.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely to have achieved?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Make good cuts with scissors
Explanation:At the age of three years a child is to be able to dress and undress himself with supervision, eat with a spoon and fork, build a tower with 9 cubes, give their full name and copy a circle. The child will not be able to make good cuts with scissions until he is about 5 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following findings is consistent with autism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrocephaly
Explanation:Autism is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by difficulties with social interaction, language delays, and some repetitive behaviours. Autism may be associated with some dysmorphic facial features, including macrocephaly, which denotes an abnormally large head. Macrocephaly is usually most observable during early childhood. The other features mentioned are not found to be associated with autism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a history of multiple episodes of generalized tonic-clonic seizures for the past week. Prior to this, he has had multiple admissions for the same reason and has been on anti-epileptic drugs since the age of 11 months with poor control. He was born of non-consanguineous parents with an uneventful birth history. There is no history of seizures in other family members. On examination, he has multiple hyperpigmented papules over the nasolabial region suggestive of adenoma sebaceum. A full body examination revealed a total of 5 hypopigmented ash leaf macules over the lower limbs along with a shagreen patch over the lateral aspect of the left buttock. The mode of inheritance of the boy's condition has a pattern similar to that of:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis Type 1
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable diagnosis for this patient would be tuberous sclerosis which is an autosomal dominant condition.Among the options provided, only Neurofibromatosis Type 1 is inherited by an autosomal dominant pattern. Other options:- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is an example of an imprinting disorder and results from abnormalities of inheritance or methylation of chromosome 11p15.- Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition.- Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is an example of an X-linked recessive condition.- Hypophosphataemic (Vitamin D resistant) rickets is an X-linked dominant condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 5 year old girl presents with reduced consciousness and metabolic acidosis. Additionally, her mother says that she had abdominal pain, vomiting, thirst, and weight loss, and is now worried that the girl’s twin brother will present with the same illness. Which of the following represents the highest chance of the brother presenting with the same illness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HLA DR3/DR4 genotype
Explanation:HLA-DR (3 and 4) have been associated with an increased risk for idiopathic diabetes mellitus.Type 1 diabetes has a high heritability compared to type 2Identical twins have a 30-50% risk if their twin has type 1 diabetes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the given statements is correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fertility is affected
Explanation:Klinefelter’s syndrome is the most common sex chromosome linked disorder with a karyotype of 47XXY. The incidence of the disease is 1 in 500-1000 male births. Childhood presentation consists of unusual growth spurt along with learning difficulties and delayed speech. The adolescence is marked by abnormal sexual maturation leading to hypogonadism and sub-fertility in adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound. The position has not changed despite attempting External Cephalic Version at 36 weeks and the due date is in a week. What is the preferred option of delivery for a foetus in a transverse lie?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Caesarean section
Explanation:A transverse lie is a common malpresentation. It occurs when the fetal longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. The location of the spine determines if the foetus is back up (the curvature of the spine is in the upper part of the uterus) or back down (the curvature of the spine is in the lower part of the uterus).Good antenatal care, ECV, and elective caesarean section are the mainstay of the management.Spontaneous delivery of a term foetus is impossible with a persistent transverse lie and, in general, the onset of labour is an indication for the lower segment caesarean section (LSCS) in a case of a transverse lie.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection is extremely painful.Which one of the following nerves conveys sensation from this region?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve
Explanation:The sensory innervation of the external auditory meatus is provided by branches of several cranial nerves. The auriculotemporal branch of the mandibular nerve (CN V3) with the nerve to external acoustic meatus supplies the anterior and superior wall of the canal with sensory innervation. The auricular branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) supplies the posterior and inferior walls of the canal, and the facial nerve (CN VII) may also supply it due to its connection with the vagus nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the given choices accurately defines perinatal mortality rate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Number of stillbirths and deaths within 7 days of life divided by 1000 births
Explanation:The perinatal mortality rate is defined as the number of perinatal deaths per 1000 total births. Perinatal death includes the death of a live-born neonate within 7-days of life (early neonatal death) and the death of a fetus ≥ 22 weeks of gestation (stillbirth). Hence, the perinatal mortality rate is calculated by dividing the number of still births+ the number of early neonatal deaths by 1000 births.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a history of failure to thrive. He is observed to have a large head and to be small for his age. A cupped appearance of the epiphysis of the wrist is seen on the x-ray. Which condition is this linked to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rickets
Explanation:Answer: RicketsRickets is a disease of growing bone that is unique to children and adolescents. It is caused by a failure of osteoid to calcify in a growing person. The signs and symptoms of rickets can include:pain – the bones affected by rickets can be sore and painful, so the child may be reluctant to walk or may tire easily| the child’s walk may look different (waddling)skeletal deformities – thickening of the ankles, wrists and knees, bowed legs, soft skull bones and, rarely, bending of the spinedental problems – including weak tooth enamel, delay in teeth coming through and increased risk of cavitiespoor growth and development – if the skeleton doesn’t grow and develop properly, the child will be shorter than averagefragile bones – in severe cases, the bones become weaker and more prone to fractures.Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan tend to be tall and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta, with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm. Other commonly affected areas include the lungs, eyes, bones and the covering of the spinal cord.Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a group of inherited disorders that affect your connective tissues — primarily your skin, joints and blood vessel walls. People who have Ehlers-Danlos syndrome usually have overly flexible joints and stretchy, fragile skin. This can become a problem if you have a wound that requires stitches, because the skin often isn’t strong enough to hold them.A more severe form of the disorder, called Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, vascular type, can cause the walls of your blood vessels, intestines or uterus to rupture. Osteoporosis is a disease in which bone weakening increases the risk of a broken bone. It is the most common reason for a broken bone among the elderly. Bones that commonly break include the vertebrae in the spine, the bones of the forearm, and the hip. Until a broken bone occurs there are typically no symptoms. Bones may weaken to such a degree that a break may occur with minor stress or spontaneously. Chronic pain and a decreased ability to carry out normal activities may occur following a broken bone.Osteoporosis may be due to lower-than-normal maximum bone mass and greater-than-normal bone loss. Bone loss increases after menopause due to lower levels of oestrogen. Osteoporosis may also occur due to a number of diseases or treatments, including alcoholism, anorexia, hyperthyroidism, kidney disease, and surgical removal of the ovaries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 4 year old girl is brought to the emergency due to fever and urinary urgency. The temperature is recorded to be 39C. Which of the following is the best investigation in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clean catch of urine
Explanation:Urine culture and sensitivity is used to diagnose a urinary tract infection (UTI). A mid-stream clean catch urine sample is the most common type of sample collected. It is important to follow the clean catch process to have accurate results from an uncontaminated sample. Urine cultures can also check for infections of the bladder or kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old child choked on a foreign object, which was removed at the hospital. The parents are now asking for advice on how to manage future occurrences at home. What do you advise?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turn the child on his back and give thumps
Explanation:Give up to five back blows: hit them firmly on their back between the shoulder blades. Back blows create a strong vibration and pressure in the airway, which is often enough to dislodge the blockage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents to the neurology clinic with complaints of unsteady gait and dysarthria. On examination, he is found to have ataxia, absent tendon reflexes, and nystagmus. His intelligence is well preserved. Additionally, distal muscle weakness was noted in hands and feet. He is also diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be Friedreich’s ataxia.Friedreich’s ataxia is also called spinocerebellar degeneration. It is an autosomal recessive condition. The onset of ataxia is around ten years of age. Intelligence is preserved. Cerebellar impairment, distal muscle weakness, pes cavus, hammer-toes and progressive kyphoscoliosis are present. Deep tendon reflexes are absent, particularly the ankle jerk. Loss of vibration and position sense occurs because of degeneration of the posterior columns. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can occur with progression to congestive cardiac failure.Other options:- Ataxia Telangiectasia: ataxia develops earlier, around two years of age, with loss of ambulation by adolescence. Nystagmus is present. Telangiectasia becomes evident by mid-childhood and is found on bulbar conjunctiva, over the bridge of the nose and on the ears. These children have an increased risk of developing lymphoreticular malignancies.- Abetalipoproteinemia: begins in childhood with steatorrhea and failure to thrive. Neurological symptoms appear in late childhood. These include ataxia, retinitis pigmentosa, peripheral neuritis, abnormalities in position and vibration sense, muscle weakness and mental retardation. Vitamin E is undetectable in serum in these patients.- Acute cerebellar ataxia: occurs in children of 1-3 years of age and is a diagnosis of exclusion. It often follows acute viral infections like varicella, coxsackievirus or echovirus by 2-3 weeks. It is an autoimmune response to a viral agent affecting the cerebellum. Prognosis is excellent with complete recovery present. Very small numbers have long term sequelae like ataxia, incoordination, speech disorder and behavioural problems.- Acute labyrinthitis: It is difficult to differentiate acute labyrinthitis from acute cerebellar ataxia in a toddler. It is associated with middle ear infections, vertigo and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A boy with Tay-Sachs disease has a sister who is normal and healthy. What is her risk of being a carrier for the condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.66
Explanation:Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive disease. For the brother to present with the disease, both parents must be carriers. Therefore, with each pregnancy the probability that the child would be affected is 1 in 4| the probability that the child would be a carrier is 2 in 4| and the probability that the child would be unaffected is also 1 in 4. Unaffected children have a 2 in 3 chance, or 66%, of becoming a carrier according to the patterns of autosomal recessive inheritance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Two boys were playing when one of them brought the forearm of the other behind his back. This resulted in a stretching of the lateral rotator of the arm. Which of the following muscles was most likely to have been involved?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infraspinatus
Explanation:There are two lateral rotators of the arm, the infraspinatus and the teres minor muscles. The infraspinatus muscle receives nerve supply from C5 and C6 via the suprascapular nerve, whilst the teres minor is supplied by C5 via the axillary nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Puts everything to his/her mouth
Explanation:6 month old milestones:Social and Emotional:Knows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/Communication:Responds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (“ah,” “eh,” “oh”) and likes taking turns with parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with “m,” “b”) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical Development:Rolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 14 year-old girl is found to have haemophilia B. What pathological problem does she have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deficiency of factor IX
Explanation:Haemophilia B (also known as Christmas disease) is due to a deficiency in factor IX. Haemophilia A is due to a deficiency in factor VIII.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A hyperkinetic gait is most likely associated with which condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sydenham chorea
Explanation:Hyperkinetic Gait is seen with certain basal ganglia disorders including Sydenham’s chorea, Huntington’s Disease and other forms of chorea, athetosis or dystonia. The patient will display irregular, jerky, involuntary movements in all extremities. Walking may accentuate their baseline movement disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea over the past one year. During these episodes, she may pass 3-7 very loose stools with mucus. Recently, over the past two months, she has passed stools mixed with blood. Her mother also complaints although she has not lost weight, she has failed to gain the appropriate weight for age according to her growth chart. The child is yet to attain her menarche, and her mother suffers from vitiligo. Clinical examination was unremarkable.Blood investigations revealed:Hb: 12.3 g/dLESR: 38 mm on the first hourTotal and differential counts were within normal limits, and an autoantibody screen was negative.What is the next most relevant investigation you will order?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:This patient in question is most likely suffering from inflammatory bowel disease, probably ulcerative colitis. The most valuable investigation that can assess the severity and extent of the disease, including the opportunity to obtain biopsies is a colonoscopy.Other options:Barium studies and abdominal x-rays do not give sufficient information. While they can provide indicative evidence, only a colonoscopy-guided biopsy can confirm IBD.Radio-isotope scans will help in identifying a focus such as a Meckel’s diverticulum, and angiography is rarely indicated unless a vascular lesion is suspected of causing the intestinal bleed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which of the given features is correct regarding coarctation of aorta?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70% of patients have bicuspid aortic valves
Explanation:Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases Occurring in about 1 in 2,500 births. It is characterized by a congenitally narrowed proximal thoracic aorta. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve in 70% of the cases and berry aneurysms in 10% of the cases. Coarctation of the aorta is commonly found in association with Turner’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome, and Patau syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 21-day old infant is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother with complaints of fever, lethargy and a reduction in feeds. On examination, the infant is hypotonic, tachypnoeic and has a CRT of 4 seconds, with the femoral pulse being barely palpable. Venous access is obtained with difficulty by inserting an interosseous needle and blood sugar level is 13. His saturation is found to be 98%. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sepsis
Explanation:Sepsis is a medical emergency that describes the body’s systemic immunological response to an infectious process that can lead to end-stage organ dysfunction and death. The fever, alongside the clinical presentation, make sepsis the likely diagnosis. A temperature >38 degrees in an infant <3months of age warrants investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A new-born infant has a posterior displacement of the tongue and cleft palate.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pierre-Robin syndrome
Explanation:Pierre Robin sequence is a condition present at birth, in which the infant has micrognathia, a tongue that is placed further back than normal (glossoptosis), and cleft palate. This combination of features can lead to difficulty breathing and problems with eating early in life. Pierre Robin sequence may occur isolated or be associated with a variety of other signs and symptoms (described as syndromic). The exact causes of Pierre Robin syndrome are unknown. The most common otic anomaly is otitis media, occurring 80% of the time, followed by auricular anomalies in 75% of cases. Hearing loss, mostly conductive, occurs in 60% of patients, while external auditory canal atresia occurs in only 5% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents to the clinic with a history of swelling of both wrists. He has been complaining of painful legs and his parents are concerned about his bandy legs. The child was breastfed until 6 months of age, with solids being introduced in the diet later. At 12 months of age the child suffered from a non-stick fracture of the radius after falling at the nursery. Which condition is the child most likely suffering from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin D-deficient rickets
Explanation:The signs and symptoms of vitamin D-dependent rickets begin within months after birth, and most are the same for all types of the condition. The weak bones often cause bone pain and delayed growth and have a tendency to fracture. When affected children begin to walk, they may develop abnormally curved (bowed) legs because the bones are too weak to bear weight. Impaired bone development also results in widening of the metaphysis, especially in the knees, wrists, and ribs. Some people with vitamin D-dependent rickets have dental abnormalities such as thin tooth enamel and frequent cavities. Poor muscle tone (hypotonia) and muscle weakness are also common in this condition, and some affected individuals develop seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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You have been called to see a 5 hour old infant exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. The baby was born premature, and the mothers membranes had ruptured more than 24 hours before delivery. You are concerned that the infant is at risk of sepsis.The following statement best describes sepsis:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dysregulated inflammatory response to infection
Explanation:Sepsis can be described as a condition in which there is a dysregulated inflammatory response to an infection. In the case of neonates, sepsis can be life threatening and may present with respiratory distress more than 4 hours after birth, shock, seizures, and multi organ failure. Risk factors that further point to sepsis include prolonged rupture of maternal membranes for more than 24 hours before birth, a history of a maternal fever during labour, or parenteral antibiotic treatment given to the mother for a suspected or confirmed bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Hypopigmentation is a clinical feature of all of the given conditions EXCEPT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Hypopigmentation refers to a decrease in the amount of the pigment melanin in the skin, which leads to an abnormally lighter skin tone. Hypopigmentation can be generalized or localized. Generalized hypopigmentation occurs in albinism or can be ethnicity related. Causes of localized hypopigmentation include Incontinentia pigmenti, Lichen planus, Tuberous sclerosis, Piebaldism, vitiligo, and leprosy. Celiac disease is not associated with hypopigmentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Achondroplasia is NOT associated with which of the following cranial abnormalities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prominent maxilla
Explanation:Achondroplasia is one of the commonest forms of skeletal dysplasias that lead to dwarfism. Multiple skeletal deformities are associated with it but the common cranial abnormalities are macrocephaly, frontal bossing, depressed nasal bridge, narrowed foramen magnum, and the presence of communicating hydrocephalus. A prominent maxilla is not associated with achondroplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Which of the following movements will most likely be lost following an injury to the spinal part of the accessory nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Upward rotation of the scapula
Explanation:Cranial nerve XI is also known as the accessory nerve. The accessory nerve innervates the trapezius muscle which retracts the scapula. The upper and lower fibres act together to also upwardly rotate it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 37.2℃ and acute abdominal pain. He has previously undergone a splenectomy secondary to sickle cell disease. Clinically he is jaundiced. An ultrasound scan demonstrates a common bile duct diameter of 10mm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impacted Gall Stone
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario provided, this patient most probably has impacted gall stones. Gall stones in children can be caused by haematological diseases such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassemia. Cholesterol stones are also becoming more prevalent. A dilated common bile duct (> 10mm in adults) suggests gall stone impaction. The presence of pyrexia indicates cholecystitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy was admitted with profound diarrhoea and low urine output. His mucous membranes seem dry and his skin turgor is low. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluid replacement
Explanation:Fluid replacement therapy should be initiated immediately because the patient is suffering from severe dehydration as shown by the low urine output, the dry mucous membranes and the low skin turgor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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An 8 year old boy was admitted following a MVA. His BMI is 28 kb/m2 and he's been found to have glycosuria, which resolved after his recovery. Which investigation is necessary to perform as part of the follow-up?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fasting blood glucose concentration
Explanation:The boy has an increased BMI which implies he is overweight. Possible trauma to his pancreas might have led to a diabetes-like condition, induced by damage to the beta cells. Fasting blood glucose should be measured as a follow-up strategy to see if the damage is reversible or irreversible and to conclude if the glycosuria is related to his metabolic profile or to his accident.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 2 year old child was brought to casualty with recurrent episodes of eczematoid rash over the cheeks and flexural regions of his body. Which one of the following statement best suit this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone 1% ointment should be applied sparingly to areas of active eczema
Explanation:Atopic dermatitis is an allergic condition which is more apparent in those children who have a positive family history in their 1st or 2nd degree relatives. In some cases, there might be a positive history of bronchial asthma. The best treatment option in this case would be topical application of 1% hydrocortisone ointment to the affected areas of the child. We cannot prescribe a strong ointment to the face because it may lead to skin atrophy, telangiectasia and other steroid related topical complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A floppy new-born baby has epicanthic folds, a thin upper lip and smooth philtrum. He was monitored closely throughout pregnancy for intra-uterine growth retardation (IUGR) and a ventricular septal defect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fetal alcohol syndrome
Explanation:Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is a common yet under-recognized condition resulting from maternal consumption of alcohol during pregnancy. The diagnosis of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is based on findings in the following 3 areas: (1) characteristic facial anomalies (see image below), (2) growth retardation (intrauterine growth restriction and failure to have catch-up growth), and (3) CNS involvement (cognitive impairment, learning disabilities, or behavioural abnormalities).Key characteristic craniofacial abnormalities include the following:- Smooth philtrum- Thin, smooth vermilion border of the upper lipShort palpebral fissures (< 10th percentile for age)Other craniofacial abnormalities are as follows:- Midface hypoplasia- Microphthalmia- Strabismus- PtosisCNS and neurobehavioral abnormalities include the following:- Microcephaly- Intellectual impairment (mild-to-moderate mental retardation)- Cognitive impairment- Developmental delay- Irritability in infancy- Hyperactivity in childhood or attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)- Seizures- Delayed or deficient myelination- Agenesis or hypoplasia of the corpus callosumSkeletal abnormalities include the following:- Radioulnar synostosis- Flexion contractures- Camptodactyly- Aberrant palmar creases, especially hockey-stick palmar crease- Clinodactyly- Klippel-Feil anomaly- Hemivertebrae- Scoliosis- Dislocated jointsOther major congenital anomalies include the following:- Cleft palate- Heart defects- Renal anomalies- DiGeorge sequenceFunctional problems include the following:- Refractive problems (e.g., myopia, astigmatism)- Hearing lossGrowth deficiency includes the following:- Infant small for gestational age (< 10th percentile for weight or length)- Postnatal growth deficiency
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no menstrual bleeding. Menarche was at 11 years of age. She denies experiencing any headache or visual disturbances. Physical examination shows an overweight girl, with facial hair, acne vulgaris on the face and a deep voice. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities and a pregnancy test is negative. Diagnosis can be confirmed with which of the following lab test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised Testosterone
Explanation:Diagnostic criteria of PCOsAccording to the American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists, at least two of three of the criteria below are required for diagnosis of PCOS after excluding other causes of irregular bleeding and elevated androgen levels.Hyperandrogenism (clinical or laboratory)Oligo- and/or anovulationPolycystic ovaries on ultrasoundDiagnosis of PCOS is possible without the presence of ovarian cysts.Rule out any other causes of hyperandrogenism and anovulation.Blood hormone levels↑ Testosterone (both total and free) or free androgen index↑ LH (LH:FSH ratio > 2:1)Oestrogen is normal or slightly elevated A clinical picture of hyperandrogenism overrules any normal hormone levels and can fulfil a diagnostic criterium of PCOS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old male with epilepsy presents to the emergency department. On examination, he is found to have a prominent carotid pulse but a feeble femoral pulse. He was also found to be hypertensive with blood pressure in his upper limbs found to be 40 mmHg more than that of the lower limbs.Auscultation reveals an ejection-systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge and the left interscapular area and an audible ejection click at the apex.An ECG reveals features suggestive of mild left ventricular hypertrophy and a chest X-ray reveals mild cardiomegaly with notches on the lower surface of the 3rd, 4th and 5th ribs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for the clinical scenario provided is coarctation of the aorta. It contributes to about 4% of all congenital heart disease and is more prominent in males than females.It is associated with trisomy 13 and 18, Turner syndrome, valproate toxicity as well as ventricular septal defects, persistent ductus arteriosus, mitral valve abnormalities and berry aneurysms of the circle of Willis. Other associated cardiac abnormalities include a bicuspid aortic valve (50%), mitral valve disease, aortic regurgitation (20%) and subaortic stenosis. Ninety-eight per cent of coarctations occur at the level of the pulmonary artery after the subclavian artery. It is for this reason that, on observation, the proximal blood pressure varies compared with the distal blood pressure. The blood pressure in the right arm is often higher than that in the left arm. Clinically, these children present with hypertension, prominent carotid pulses, radio-femoral delay, left ventricular hypertrophy and an ejection systolic murmur maximum over the posterior left interscapular area. An apical click over the aortic valve may be heard. Coarctation of the aorta may be simple (post-ductal), or complex (pre-ductal or with a septal defect), and may be associated with aortic stenosis, transposition of the great arteries or a bicuspid aortic valve. The ECG and chest radiograph may be normal. However, as the child enters the first decade, evidence of cardiomegaly, congestive heart failure, post-stenotic dilatation with a dilated subclavian artery and rib notching may be noticed. The ECG may show right ventricular hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy in infancy and right axis deviation. Complications of coarctation of the aorta include left ventricular failure, cerebral haemorrhage, aortic dissection, renal vascular stenosis and infective endocarditis. This condition may result in death due to an aortic aneurysm or rupture in the third or fourth decade of life. It may also cause premature ischaemic heart disease as a result of hypertension. If left untreated, 20% of individuals die before 20 years of age and 80% before 50 years of age. Treatment options include surgical balloon dilatation or the grafting of a subclavian flap, and should surgical correction not normalise the blood pressure, further medical management is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 48
Incorrect
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The parents of a 5 year old child with cystic fibrosis present at the clinic with concerns over having another child. Neither of them have cystic fibrosis, and they would like to know what the chances are of their next child being a carrier of the cystic fibrosis gene. What is the probability of this occurring?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.5
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive inherited disorder that affects the lungs or the pancreas. In the case of an affected child whose parents do not have the disorder but carry one copy of the mutated gene, each sibling has a 50% chance of being a carrier of the disease. They can inherit one copy of the gene from each parent. There is a 25 % chance that the child may inherit both mutated genes and be homozygous for the trait.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy with a history of pharyngitis 10 days ago, presents with periorbital oedema. You perform a urine dipstick test which shows 1+ for protein and 3+ for blood. Family history is clear. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Explanation:The child has a history of pharyngitis followed 10 days later by signs of glomerulonephritis. In this particular case, it is most probably a post-streptococcus glomerulonephritis which accounts for 80% of paediatric cases of glomerulonephritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure to thrive and a sputum culture positive for H.influenzea and S.pneumoniae. There is no history of congenital anomalies. He is most likely suffering from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Explanation:Recurrent bacterial infections may be due to lack of B-cell function, consequently resulting in a lack of gamma globulins production. Once the maternal antibodies have depleted, the disease manifests with greater severity and is called x-linked agammaglobulinemia also known as ‘X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia’, ‘XLA’ or ‘Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia. it is a rare x linked genetic disorder that compromises the bodies ability to fight infections.
Acute leukaemia causes immunodeficiency but not so specific.
DiGeorge syndrome is due to lack of T cell function.
Aplastic anaemia and EBV infection does not cause immunodeficiency. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents with hyperkeratotic plaques on the extensor aspects of the skin and the scalp margin. A skin scraping KOH mount and fungal culture in Sabouraud Dextrose Agar from the skin and hair revealed no growth.What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms is psoriasis. Psoriasis:Chronic plaque psoriasis is characterised by pinkish-red hyperkeratotic plaques, which occur mainly on extensor surfaces such as knees and elbows. The lower back, ears and scalp can also be involved. Koebner phenomenon: Psoriasis typically exhibits this phenomenon where new plaques of psoriasis occur particularly at sites of skin trauma. Diagnosis:Skin biopsy of psoriatic plaques reveals acanthosis and parakeratosis, reflecting increased skin turnover. Capillary dilatation within the dermis also occurs, surrounded by a mixed neutrophilic and lymphohistiocytic perivascular infiltrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to suffer from, if he/she was born with incomplete fusion of the embryonic endocardial cushions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:The endocardial cushions in the heart are the mesenchymal tissue that make up the part of the atrioventricular valves, atrial septum and ventricular septum. An incomplete fusion of these mesenchymal cells can cause an atrioventricular septal defect. The terms endocardial cushion defect, atrioventricular septal defect and common atrioventricular canal defect can be used interchangeably with one another.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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An 18-month-old girl already speaks ten words but her father says she cannot form a sentence. What is the best management strategy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:Not being able to form a sentence at the age of 18 months is quite normal. A combination of two words to form a sentence can be done by 2 years of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 17 year old boy presented with complaints of pain in his right lower limb. The pain tends to occur more at night and is not associated with physical activity. The most likely diagnosis would be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoid osteoma
Explanation:Osteoid osteoma is a bone forming tumour which affects individuals in the second decade of life. The patient presents with a history of pain in the lower limbs which is mostly at night and responds to NSAIDS. If the pain doesn’t respond to NSAIDS, then other differentials should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A young family is to fly abroad on holiday with their 3 year old son who had grommets inserted 5 weeks ago for otitis media with effusion. The mother is concerned about traveling so she presents to the clinic with questions. The following should be discouraged for children with grommets:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immersion of the head in soapy water
Explanation:Grommets are small tubes surgically inserted into the tympanic membrane to drain viscous inflammatory fluid found in the middle ear in bilateral otitis media with effusion of more than three months duration. There is no indication against using in ear headphones or flying. Swimming or snorkelling can be reinforced with ear plugs. However immersion of the child’s head in soapy water is to be avoided as the water is more likely to enter the ear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl with type-1 diabetes mellitus presents with vomiting and rapid breathing. A diagnosis of acute diabetic ketoacidosis was made. Which of the following regarding management is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bolus of insulin recommended
Explanation:The following methods are adopted for the treatment of DKA:
– Fluids: Bolus of 10 ml/kg of normal saline. Stop at three boluses to avoid precipitating cerebral oedema. The remaining deficit has to be corrected over 48 hours. Strict input/output, U&E, and pH monitoring is necessary in such patients.
– Insulin: Insulin infusion can be initiated at 0.05-0.1 unit/kg/hour. It is essential to monitor blood glucose closely, and the aim is to decrease by 2 mmol/hour.
– Potassium: Initially, it will be high, but following insulin administration, the levels drop quickly as K+ enters cells with glucose, and thus, replacement is almost always necessary.
– Acidosis: Bicarbonate is avoided unless pH is less than 7. Acidosis will get corrected with the correction of fluid and insulin deficits. The definitive treatment is directed towards correcting the underlying precipitants of DKA, e.g. sepsis, infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 14 year old girl presented with complaints of acne vulgaris over her face. The acne is exacerbated during her menstrual period. The most appropriate treatment option would be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical benzoyl peroxide
Explanation:Topical benzoyl peroxide is used for the treatment of mild to moderate acne vulgaris. It is actually a peeling agent and it clears the pores and reduces the bacterial cell count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 15 year old girl presents to the clinic with a history of hard to control psoriasis. She is to start on ultraviolet B phototherapy as prescribed by her dermatologist. What is the mechanism of action of the phototherapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Induction of pyrimidine dimerization
Explanation:Psoriasis is an autoimmune dermatological condition that causes cells of the epidermal layer to rapidly develop, leading to itchy scaly plaques. Phototherapy with UV radiation has emerged as a new treatment for difficult to treat psoriasis. The therapy works by inducing epidermal cell apoptosis by DNA damage through the formation of pyrimidine dimerization, disrupting the cell cycle. This slows the rapid proliferation of cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a risk factor for intrauterine growth restriction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foetal echogenic bowel
Explanation:Intrauterine growth restriction refers to the failure of the fetus to grow in accordance with the weeks of gestation. There are two types of growth restriction, symmetrical and asymmetrical. Causes include various genetic abnormalities, fetal infections, maternal health conditions, etc. Risk factors for the development of IUGR include fetal echogenic bowel, maternal age above 40 years, low PAPP-A levels, maternal smoking or cocaine use, etc. Fetal echogenic bowel implies a brighter than usual fetal intestines on ultrasonography. It is a marker associated with trisomy 21, which is a cause of IUGR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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Which of the following is responsible for the closure of the ductus arteriosus at birth?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced level of prostaglandins
Explanation:The ductus arteriosus is normally patent during fetal life| it is an important structure in fetal development as it contributes to the flow of blood to the rest of the fetal organs and structure. From the 6th week of fetal life onwards, the ductus is responsible for most of the right ventricular outflow, and it contributes to 60% of the total cardiac output throughout fetal life. Only about 5-10% of its outflow passes through the lungs.This patency is promoted by continual production of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) by the ductus.In the foetus, the oxygen tension is relatively low, because the pulmonary system is non-functional. Coupled with high levels of circulating prostaglandins, this acts to keep the ductus open. The high levels of prostaglandins result from the little amount of pulmonary circulation and the high levels of production in the placenta.At birth, the placenta is removed, eliminating a major source of prostaglandin production, and the lungs expand, activating the organ in which most prostaglandins are metabolized. In addition, with the onset of normal respiration, oxygen tension in the blood markedly increases. Pulmonary vascular resistance decreases with this activity.Normally, functional closure of the ductus arteriosus occurs by about 15 hours of life in healthy infants born at term. This occurs by abrupt contraction of the muscular wall of the ductus arteriosus, which is associated with increases in the partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) coincident with the first breath. A preferential shift of blood flow occurs| the blood moves away from the ductus and directly from the right ventricle into the lungs. Until functional closure is complete and PVR is lower than SVR, some residual left-to-right flow occurs from the aorta through the ductus and into the pulmonary arteriesA balance of factors that cause relaxation and contraction determine the vascular tone of the ductus. Major factors causing relaxation are the high prostaglandin levels, hypoxemia, and nitric oxide production in the ductus. Factors resulting in contraction include decreased prostaglandin levels, increased PO2, increased endothelin-1, norepinephrine, acetylcholine, bradykinin, and decreased PGE receptors. Increased prostaglandin sensitivity, in conjunction with pulmonary immaturity leading to hypoxia, contributes to the increased frequency of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in premature neonates.Although functional closure usually occurs in the first few hours of life, true anatomic closure, in which the ductus loses the ability to reopen, may take several weeks. The second stage of closure related to the fibrous proliferation of the intima is complete in 2-3 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 4 year old boy is wetting his bed at night or whenever he gets excited. His parents are concerned. What is the best strategy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Behavioural therapy
Explanation:Generally, bed-wetting before age 7 isn’t a concern as the child may still be developing night-time bladder control. The child is less than 5 years and most children will outgrow bed-wetting on their own. Therefore only reassurance and behavioural therapy are suggested at this stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A baby is born with complications including microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly and elevated total bilirubin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation:CMV infection is usually asymptomatic in adults. However, if the mother is infected for the first time during pregnancy then there is high chances of this infection passing on to the foetus. CMV infection can cause blindness, deafness, learning difficulties, restricted growth etc. Hepatitis B, herpes simplex, syphilis and HIV do not present with these classical signs of CMV infection in new-borns. It is estimated that 10 stillbirths occur in England and Wales every year due to CMV infection. The foetus is most at risk in early pregnancy. There is no effective prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 63
Incorrect
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What is the cause for tinea incognito?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inappropriate treatment with steroid cream
Explanation:“Tinea incognito” is a term used to describe a tinea infection modified by topical steroids. It is caused by prolonged use of topical steroids, sometimes prescribed as a result of incorrect diagnosis. Topical steroids suppress the local immune response and allow the fungus to grow easily. As a result, the fungal infection may take on the bizarre appearance seen in this patient.The diagnosis of tinea incognito is simple to confirm by microscopic visualization of branching hyphae and spores typical of dermatophytes in a potassium hydroxide preparation.Treatment of tinea incognito requires cessation of all topical steroid use and implementation of specific antifungal treatment. A low-potency corticosteroid may be used briefly to avoid the flare often associated with abrupt cessation of a potent steroid. Patients should be warned of this possibility so they do not reinstitute use of topical steroids on their own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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An 11-year-old boy was brought to the hospital by his mother, who says that occasionally he tilts his head towards his right shoulder. She also remarked that his left eye seemed to move up suddenly when he looked towards his nose. Which of the following extraocular muscles is most likely to be affected in this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior oblique
Explanation:From the given scenario, the extraocular muscle affected in the child is superior oblique muscle. Point to remember:All of the extraocular muscles are supplied by the oculomotor nerve (3rd cranial nerve), except superior oblique (trochlear nerve/4th cranial nerve) and lateral rectus (abducens nerve/6th cranial nerve).The superior oblique muscle causes the eye to move downwards and medially. The unopposed inferior oblique, in this case, causes the eye to deviate upwards and medially. Children tend to tilt their head (torticollis) to the side opposite to the affected eye with their chin down toward the shoulder, and their face turned away from the affected side to decrease the diplopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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Today was Jacob’s birthday. This morning he woke up very excited and picked out a pair of shorts and t-shirt in his favourite colour, blue, with matching blue sandals. He brushed his teeth with supervision, and used the toilet by himself. He greeted each of his friends at the door with an excited jump. At the party he ran around and jumped on the small trampoline in the backyard with his friends. He tried to skip like some if his friends, but he wasn’t able to do it as evenly. How old is Jacob likely to be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 years of age
Explanation:Jacob is likely to be four years old as demonstrated by his activities throughout the day. Most 4 year olds are able to run well, jump and hop, but find skipping a little more difficult. They are able to brush their teeth and dress themselves with supervision, and go to the toilet alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent, intense nausea and vomiting. His mum reveals he hasn’t passed urine the whole day. Upon inspection, he looks lethargic and his eyes are sunken. What would be the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests that the child is severely dehydrated. IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids is the correct option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 17-month-old boy is brought by his mother to the hospital. She is concerned that he is having symptoms of itching, being very upset and unsettled. They hail from a low socioeconomic background and have poor living conditions. On examination, an itchy, papular rash is noted on the palms of his hands specifically in the web spaces between the fingers, as well as in the groin region. He was normothermic. The mother explains that his sister also has similar symptoms.What is the most probable cause of the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei
Explanation:The most probable cause for the patient’s presenting symptoms is Sarcoptes scabeii.Scabies:The boy in the scenario presents with a pruritic rash affecting the palms of the hands, especially in the web spaces between the fingers. Additionally, the fact that his sister is showing similar symptoms is an indication of its infectivity. The female Sarcoptes scabiei var hominis mite burrows into the webs of fingers and the sides of digits as seen in the child.This parasitic skin infestation presents typically with nocturnal itching. Other options:- Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1): This can affect this age group but would usually present with a vesicular perioral rash with associated erythema. – Human papillomavirus (HPV): Cutaneous human papillomavirus infection causes warts, which can form a dome and fleshy shaped lesions on the palms of the hands, but these are not usually itchy. Similar to the causative agent in the boy, they are contagious.- Poxvirus: These viruses cause molluscum contagiosum which presents as dome-shaped lesions anywhere on the body, rather than specifically in palms of hands or finger webs as seen in the boy. Poxviruses are also very infectious.- Staphylococcal infection: This causes impetigo, which presents with yellow discharge and underlying erythema. Impetigo is not usually itchy and can present on any part of the body, rather than the specific areas seen in the boy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease
Explanation:Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old rugby player is brought to the emergency by his teammates after suffering a blow to the face. He is applying pressure on his nose with a towel which is saturated with blood. Direct compression results in cessation of bleeding. On examination, a pink/blue mass can be seen occupying the right nostril. The rest of the ENT examination is not significant. The patient reports a blocked nose for the past few weeks. The boy is most likely suffering from which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Juvenile Angiofibroma
Explanation:Juvenile angiofibroma (JA) is a rare benign vascular lesion of the skull base that affects young adolescent males. The management of JA is challenged by the abundant vascular blood supply of the lesion, along with the complex anatomy of the skull base and the young age of the affected population. JA typically affects the male population, most commonly between 9 and 19 years of age. The most frequent symptoms are nasal obstruction and epistaxis. Nasal obstruction may be bilateral despite the unilaterality of the lesion, due to nasopharyngeal extension as well as deviation of the nasal septum by the expansile lesion. Epistaxis is usually brisk and intermittent. Purulent nasal discharge and facial pain can be due to sinus drainage pathway obstruction, and conductive hearing loss indicates obstruction of the eustachian tube.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 70
Incorrect
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Which of the following classification systems is used for categorizing scaphoid fractures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herbert classification
Explanation:Scaphoid fractures are regarded as fractures that are difficult to heal, so a classification system is needed taking different factors into account that should lead towards proper guidance to the healing time and management of these fractures. Popular classification criteria are Herbert, Russe, and Mayo classification systems. Herbert’s classification system is based on the fracture’s stability and proposes that all complete bicortical fractures (except for tubercle fractures) are unstable. Salter-Harris classification is used for categorizing epiphyseal fractures, while Delbert classification system is reserved for fractures of the proximal femur in children. Fractures of the ankles are classified using Ottawa rules, and Garland classification is used for supracondylar fractures in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A boy with atopic eczema presents with a flare up. In which of the following situations would you suspect herpes simplex virus versus a bacterial infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lesions were present at different stages
Explanation:Lesions caused by herpes simplex virus may appear in various clinical stages. They are usually the result of an HSV-1 infection and they may appear on the face and neck. They start as fluid-filled blisters which eventually erupt into small painful ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy.Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: t(8|14)
Explanation:Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8|14). Burkitt lymphoma is a rare high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma endemic to west Africa and the mosquito belt. It has a close association with the contraction of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Burkitt lymphoma often presents with symmetrical painless lymphadenopathy, systemic B symptoms (fever, sweats, and weight loss), central nervous system involvement, and bone marrow infiltration. Classically in the textbooks, the patient also develops a large jaw tumour.Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:1. t(9|22)—Chronic myeloid leukaemia2. t(15|17)—Acute promyelocytic leukaemia3. t(14|18)—Follicular Lymphoma4. t(11|14)—Mantle Cell Lymphoma
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 5-month-old baby was brought by the mother for assessment. The baby can sit with support but not on his own. On examination, there is palmar grasp. How is the current development of this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal
Explanation:All the given development milestones are compatible with the given age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 10 month infant was brought in a drowsy condition with a 4 day history of vomiting and diarrhoea. His skin turgor was reduced and skin appeared mottled. Vital signs showed decreased BP, reduced capillary refill and a heart rate of 145/min. The best choice of treatment in this case would be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV fluid bolus over 20 minutes
Explanation:According to WHO, the treatment protocol in severely dehydrated children, is to infuse a bolus of isotonic crystalloid over 20-30 min at 30ml/kg to children less than 12 months of age followed by giving the remaining fluid over 5 hours for infants. Reference: World Health Organisation, the treatment of diarrhoea, a manual for physical and senior health workers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluid And Electrolytes
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Question 75
Incorrect
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What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to a term new-born who is unable to breathe spontaneously?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30 cmH2O
Explanation:According per the national guidelines, 5 inflation breaths should be given with a gas pressure of 30cmH2O for term babies. Each breath should be given for 2-3 seconds. Pre-term babies should be aerated with a lower pressure of 20-25cmH2O.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents to the physician with a history of easy bruising and epistaxis since childhood. He recently had a dental extraction after which the bleeding lasted for 30 hours. His labs are sent and the reports are as follows: APTT: 36 secondsPT: 15 secondsFibrinogen: 2.5 g/lFactor VIIIC: 0.4 iu/ml (normal range 0.5-1.5)vWF antigen: 0.35 iu/ml (normal range 0.45-1.4)vWF ristocetin co-factor: 0.05 iu/ml (normal 0.45-1.35)PLT: 230 x 109/lBleeding time: 12 mins (normally up to 8 mins). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: von Willebrand disease type II
Explanation:Von Willebrand disease (VWD), a congenital bleeding disorder caused by deficient or defective plasma von Willebrand factor (VWF), may only become apparent on haemostatic challenge, and bleeding history may become more apparent with increasing age. Type 1 VWD (,30% of VWD) typically manifests as mild mucocutaneous bleeding. Type 2 VWD accounts for approximately 60% of VWD. Type 2 subtypes include: Type 2A, which usually manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2B, which typically manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding that can include thrombocytopenia that worsens in certain circumstances| Type 2M, which typically manifests as mild-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2N, which can manifest as excessive bleeding with surgery and mimics mild haemophilia A. Type 3 VWD (<10% of VWD) manifests with severe mucocutaneous and musculoskeletal bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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Which of the following features are most likely to be specifically associated with the vascular subtype (type IV) of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dysmorphic features, including thin nose and large eyes
Explanation:Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS) is a group of genetic connective tissue disorders with over 13 clinical subtypes. Hyper-mobility is common to many of these subtypes. Vascular EDS is identified by thin, translucent skin prone to easy bleeding, as well as the risk of early arterial rupture, gastrointestinal perforation and uterine rupture. Those affected have dysmorphic features including a thin nose and lips, sunken cheeks and large eyes. The other features including| atrophic scars, a dominant family history, hyper extensible skin and kyphoscoliosis are not specific to vascular EDS and overlap in many of the subtypes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 1-year old child is brought to the ER with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Radiological examination shows distended bowel loops and gas in the rectum. Her mother reveals that the baby had surgery at the two days of age for a twisted intestine. Blood gas analysis from a sample drawn from a capillary shows a pH of 7.34 and lactate of 2. Which of the following is the most appropriate management step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Naso-gastric decompression, intra venous fluids and admit. The majority of adhesional obstruction resolves without need for surgery
Explanation:Adhesion formation might be reduced by minimally invasive surgical techniques and the use of adhesion barriers. Non-operative treatment is effective in most patients with ASBO. Contraindications for non-operative treatment include peritonitis, strangulation, and ischemia. When the adhesive aetiology of obstruction is unsure, or when contraindications for non-operative management might be present, CT is the diagnostic technique of choice. The principles of non-operative treatment are nil per os, naso-gastric, or long-tube decompression, and intravenous supplementation with fluids and electrolytes. When operative treatment is required, a laparoscopic approach may be beneficial for selected cases of simple ASBO.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She is found to have gestational diabetes and ultrasonography estimates a fetal macrosomia. BP is 127/72 mmHg. This primigravida is at greatest risk for which of the following obstetric emergency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Shoulder dystocia
Explanation:Shoulder dystocia occurs when the fetal anterior shoulder impacts against the maternal symphysis following delivery of the vertex. Less commonly, shoulder dystocia results from impaction of the posterior shoulder on the sacral promontory. Risk Factors for Shoulder DystociaMaternalAbnormal pelvic anatomyGestational diabetesPost-dates pregnancyPrevious shoulder dystociaShort statureFetalSuspected macrosomiaLabour relatedAssisted vaginal delivery (forceps or vacuum)Protracted active phase of first-stage labourProtracted second-stage labour
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant mother?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valves
Explanation:Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a plasma protein produced by the embryonic yolk sac and the fetal liver. AFP levels in serum, amniotic fluid, and urine functions as a screening test for congenital disabilities, chromosomal abnormalities, as well as some other adult occurring tumours and pathologies.Pregnant maternal serum AFP levels are elevated in:- Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly)- Omphalocele- Gastroschisis- posterior urethral valves- nephrosis- GI obstruction- teratomas
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 40-week-old baby presented with a weak cry and failure to thrive. The mother gives a history of prolonged neonatal jaundice and says it is common in her family. On examination, a large tongue was noticed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital hypothyroidism
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with failure to thrive, macroglossia, prolonged jaundice of a new-born and constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old Japanese boy presents to the hospital with pain in his elbows and knees associated with swelling of his hands and feet. On examination, he is found to be febrile with a temperature of 39°C. He is also tachycardic with a pulse rate of 120bpm and hypotensive with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. Conjunctival congestion and cervical lymphadenopathy with a red tongue were also noted. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Kawasaki disease.Kawasaki disease:It is an acute systemic disorder of childhood that predominantly occurs in Japan (800 cases per million in children under the age of 5 years). The causative factor is not known, but mycoplasma and HIV infection may be associated in some cases. Clinical Features:The principal clinical features are fever persisting for more than five days, bilateral non-purulent conjunctival congestion, cervical lymphadenopathy, polymorphous rash, arthralgia, palmar erythema and strawberry tongue. Other options:- Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis is associated with skin, renal and gut involvement. Arthralgia, morning stiffness and flexor tenosynovitis are common. – Behçet syndrome is a vasculitis of unknown aetiology that characteristically targets venules. – Felty syndrome is the association of splenomegaly and neutropenia with rheumatoid arthritis. Lymphadenopathy is common, and there is a predisposition to recurrent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 5 year old girl presents with impaired hearing capacity. Her mother admits she often has to repeat herself to be heard. History reveals that the girl often watches television in high volume. Weber test reveals that the sounds are louder on the left side. What can you conclude from these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can not tell which side is affected.
Explanation:To get more information regarding hearing loss, a physician should perform both Rinne and Weber tests. Weber test alone cannot tell which side is affected.Rinne test – a vibrating tuning fork (typically 512 Hz) is placed initially on the mastoid process behind each ear until sound is no longer heard. Then, without re-striking the fork, the fork is then quickly placed just outside the ear with the patient asked to report when the sound caused by the vibration is no longer heard. A normal or positive Rinne test is when sound is still heard when the tuning fork is moved to air near the ear (air conduction or AC), indicating that AC is equal or greater than (bone conduction or BC).Weber’s test – tuning fork is placed in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears. The patient is then asked which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localised to the unaffected side however in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localised to the affected side.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 12 year old girl presented with pallor and a rash over her lower limbs after 4 days of bloody diarrhoea. Lab investigations showed proteinuria and deranged renal function. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)
Explanation:Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome affects children and is characterised by abdominal pain, a purpuric rash over the body, generalized pallor, haematuria and bloody diarrhoea. There is always a history of preceding diarrhoea caused usually by E.coli and it affects the renal system causing haematuria and deranged renal function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presents with multiple non-healing ulcers, poor dentition, bleeding gums and pale conjunctivae. She also complains of easy fatiguability.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:The clinical scenario presented is highly suggestive of vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy).Vitamin C is found in citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, Brussel sprouts, cauliflower, broccoli, cabbage and spinach. Deficiency leads to impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue. Scurvy is associated with severe malnutrition as well as drug and alcohol abuse, and those living in poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.Symptoms and signs include:- Follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage- Ecchymosis- Gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums- Sjogren’s syndrome- Arthralgia- Oedema- Impaired wound healing- Generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia and depression
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A term baby is born through thick meconium. The baby has not yet cried and is making no respiratory effort. The baby appears to be covered in thick particulate meconium.What is the next most appropriate step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suction with wide-bore catheter under direct vision
Explanation:Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) refers to breathing problems that a new-born baby may have when: – There are no other causes, and- The baby has passed meconium (stool) into the amniotic fluid during labour or deliveryThe most recent guidelines are as follows:- If the baby is vigorous (defined as having a normal respiratory effort and normal muscle tone), the baby may stay with the mother to receive the initial steps of new-born care. A bulb syringe can be used to gently clear secretions from the nose and mouth.- If the baby is not vigorous (defined as having a depressed respiratory effort or poor muscle tone), place the baby on a radiant warmer, clear the secretions with a bulb syringe, and proceed with the normal steps of new-born resuscitation (i.e., warming, repositioning the head, drying, and stimulating). If, after these initial steps are taken, the baby is still not breathing or the heart rate is below 100 beats per minute (bpm), administer positive pressure ventilation.Resuscitation should follow the same principles for infants with meconium-stained fluid as for those with clear fluidContinued care in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU):Maintain an optimal thermal environment to minimize oxygen consumption.Minimal handling is essential because these infants are easily agitated. Agitation can increase pulmonary hypertension and right-to-left shunting, leading to additional hypoxia and acidosis. Sedation may be necessary to reduce agitation.An umbilical artery catheter should be inserted to monitor blood pH and blood gases without agitating the infant.Continue respiratory care includes oxygen therapy via hood or positive pressure, and it is crucial in maintaining adequate arterial oxygenation. Mechanical ventilation is required by approximately 30% of infants with MAS. Make concerted efforts to minimize the mean airway pressure and to use as short an inspiratory time as possible. Oxygen saturations should be maintained at 90-95%.Surfactant therapy is commonly used to replace displaced or inactivated surfactant and as a detergent to remove meconium. Although surfactant use does not appear to affect mortality rates, it may reduce the severity of disease, progression to extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) utilization, and decrease the length of hospital stay.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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An 11-year-old boy is undergoing a wedge excision of his great toenail. As the surgeon passes a needle into the area to administer a local anaesthetic, the patient experiences a sharp pain.Which of the following pathways conveys pain sensations to the central nervous system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinothalamic tract
Explanation:The lateral spinothalamic tracts carry pain and temperature sensations from the peripheries to the central nervous system.Note:The spinothalamic tract transmits impulses from receptors which measure crude touch, pain and temperature. The spinothalamic tract comprises the lateral and anterior spinothalamic tracts.The former typically transmits pain and temperature while the latter transmits crude touch and pressure. Neurones transmitting these signals will usually ascend by one or two vertebral levels in the Lissauer tract before decussating in the spinal cord itself. Neurones then pass rostrally in the cord to connect at the thalamus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 88
Incorrect
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What IQ is the cut off for profound learning disability?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Mild learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 50-70, or mental age of 9-12 years
Moderate learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 35-49, or mental age of 6-9 years
Severe learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20-34, or mental age of 3-6 years
Profound learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20, or mental age of less than 3 years
Average IQ is 100. The arbitrary cut-off to indicate learning disabilities is 70. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A neonate is born with a suspected duct dependent cyanotic heart disease. Which of the following should be used in the immediate management of the condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostaglandin E1
Explanation:Severe cyanotic heart diseases such as pulmonary stenosis, transposition of the great vessels, hypoplastic left heart syndrome and truncus arteriosus all run the risk of a poor prognosis for a neonate. To continue the supply of oxygen the ductus arteriosus must be kept patent. This can be done with the immediate administration of Prostaglandin E1 as a temporary measure until a surgical intervention such as an atrial septostomy can be done. The closure of the duct can subsequently be initiated with the administration of indomethacin and oxygen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female, who works at a day-care centre presents to the physician with vomiting, joint pains, diarrhoea and crampy abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals a purpuric rash on her legs and over the belt area. She has microscopic haematuria, proteinuria and RBC casts on urine testing. Which of the underlying diagnoses is most likely in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), also known as IgA vasculitis, is a disease of the skin, mucous membranes, and sometimes other organs that most commonly affects children. In the skin, the disease causes palpable purpura (small, raised areas of bleeding underneath the skin), often with joint pain and abdominal pain. It is an acute immunoglobulin A (IgA)–mediated disorder. The tetrad of purpura, arthritis, kidney inflammation, and abdominal pain is often observed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old presents to the physician with 2-week history of fever, chest pan, generalized stiffness, swollen wrists and fingers and lower extremity oedema bilaterally. There is a facial rash over her cheeks and palms. She complains that while combing her hair, she has started to notice hair loss. Based on these clinical findings, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low serum complement levels
Explanation:Complement activation plays a key role in the pathophysiology of SLE and it is recommended to continue monitoring serum levels of C3 and C4 to assess for disease activity. However, it is important to note that decreased serum complement is not consistently associated with disease flares.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A child presents with signs of a hormonal abnormality due to an abnormality of the G protein. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: McCune–Albright syndrome
Explanation:McCune–Albright syndrome, characterised by polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café au lait spots, sexual precocity, and hyperfunction of multiple endocrine glands, is the result of G-protein abnormality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wolffian duct
Explanation:The development of the kidney proceeds through a series of successive phases, each marked by the development of a more advanced kidney: the pronephros, mesonephros, and metanephros. The development of the pronephric duct proceeds in a cranial-to-caudal direction. As it elongates caudally, the pronephric duct induces nearby intermediate mesoderm in the thoracolumbar area to become epithelial tubules called mesonephric tubules. Each mesonephric tubule receives a blood supply from a branch of the aorta, ending in a capillary tuft analogous to the glomerulus of the definitive nephron. The mesonephric tubule forms a capsule around the capillary tuft, allowing for filtration of blood. This filtrate flows through the mesonephric tubule and is drained into the continuation of the pronephric duct, now called the mesonephric duct or Wolffian duct. The nephrotomes of the pronephros degenerate while the mesonephric duct extends towards the most caudal end of the embryo, ultimately attaching to the cloaca.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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The blood supply to which of the following structures is NOT compromised due to an occlusion in the anterior cerebral artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brocas area
Explanation:Broca’s area is usually supplied by branches from the middle cerebral artery and thus will be spared when the anterior cerebral artery is occluded.Note:The two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries form an anastomosis known as the Circle of Willis on the inferior surface of the brain. Each half of the circle is formed by:1. Anterior communicating artery2. Anterior cerebral artery3. Internal carotid artery4. Posterior communicating artery5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar arteryThe circle and its branches supply the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon and midbrain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A child is admitted with a febrile illness. Which of the following is of concern?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 6 month old with a systolic blood pressure of 60
Explanation:Age (years) Respiratory rate (per minute) Heart rate (per minute) Systolic blood pressure<1 30-40 110-160 70-901-2 25-35 100-150 80-952-5 25-30 95-140 80-1005-12 20-25 80-120 90-110>12 15-20 60-100 100-120Adapted from Advanced Paediatric Life Support Manual
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old baby sustained a wound to her hand whilst playing in the garden. She is unvaccinated as the parents are concerned regarding side effects. There is no contraindication to vaccinations. What is the most appropriate action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give complete DPT vaccine course
Explanation:A complete course of DPT should be given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years
Explanation:Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common adenomatous polyposis syndrome. It is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by the early onset of hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps throughout the colon. If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. In addition, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.Most patients with FAP are asymptomatic until they develop cancer. As a result, diagnosing presymptomatic patients is essential.Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.Nonspecific symptoms, such as unexplained rectal bleeding (haematochezia), diarrhoea, or abdominal pain, in young patients may be suggestive of FAP.In a minority of FAP families a mutation cannot be identified and so annual flexible sigmoidoscopy should be offered to at risk family members from age 13–15 years until age 30, and at three to five year intervals thereafter until age 60 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Premature epiphyseal closure
Explanation:Exposure to excessive androgens is usually accompanied by premature epiphyseal maturation and closure, resulting in a final adult height that is typically significantly below that expected from parental heights. congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is associated with precocious puberty caused by long term exposure to androgens, which activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Similarly, CAH is associated with hyperpigmentation and hyperreninemia due to sodium loss and hypovolaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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What post-birth event encourages closure of the ductus venosus in a new-born baby?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Umbilical cord clamping and separation from mother
Explanation:After birth, the infant takes its first breath and is exposed to a myriad of stimuli. The pulmonary vessels dilate, and pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) decreases remarkably while the systemic vascular pressure rises above the PVR. This allows blood from the right ventricle to enter the lungs for oxygenation. In most cases, this increased oxygenation, along with other factors, causes the ductal wall to constrict and the ductus arteriosus to close functionally. As left-sided pressures rise higher than right-sided pressures, the foramen ovale functionally closes. With the clamping of the umbilical cord and the cessation of blood flow, pressures in the portal sinus decrease. This causes the muscle in the sinus wall near the ductus venosus to contract. The lumen of the duct becomes filled with connective tissue, and, in two months, the ductus venosus becomes a fibrous strand embedded in the wall of the liver, thus establishing adult circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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Which is the most common cardiac defect in babies with Down’s syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)
Explanation:Congenital heart defects are common (40-50%)| they are frequently observed in patients with Down syndrome who are hospitalized (62%) and are a common cause of death in this aneuploidy in the first 2 years of life.The most common congenital heart defects are the following:- Endocardial cushion defect (43%), which results in atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)/AV canal defect- Ventricular septal defect (32%)- Secundum atrial septal defect (10%)- Tetralogy of Fallot (6%)- Isolated patent ductus arteriosus (4%).About 30% of patients have more than one cardiac defect. The most common secondary lesions are patent ductus arteriosus (16%), atrial septal defect, and pulmonic stenosis (9%). About 70% of all endocardial cushion defects are associated with Down syndrome.Valve abnormalities, such as mitral valve prolapse or aortic regurgitation may develop in up to 40-50% of adolescents and adults who were born without structural heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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