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  • Question 1 - A 66-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of a brownish vaginal discharge...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of a brownish vaginal discharge that has been bothering her for the previous three months. Atrophic vagina is seen on inspection.

      Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer should always be the first diagnosis to rule out in a 65-year-old lady with brownish vaginal discharge. The inquiry focuses on the most likely source of the symptoms, rather than the most significant diagnosis to explore.
      Blood typically causes the dark hue of vaginal discharge. The uterine cavity or the vagina can both be the source of bleeding. Only 5-10% of postmenopausal women with vaginal bleeding were found to have endometrial cancer. Around 60% of the women had atrophic vaginitis.

      Urogenital atrophy is caused by oestrogen insufficiency in postmenopausal women. Urogenital atrophy can cause the following symptoms:
      – Dry vaginal skin
      – Vaginal inflammation or burning
      – Vaginal lubrication is reduced during sexual activity.
      – Vulvar or vaginal pain, as well as dyspareunia (at the introitus or within the vagina)
      – Vaginal or vulvar bleeding (e.g. postcoital bleeding. fissures)
      – Vaginal discharge from the cervix (leukorrhea or yellow and malodorous)
      – A vaginal bulge or pelvic pressure
      – Symptoms of the urinary tract (e.g. urinary frequency, dysuria, urethral discomfort, haematuria).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      19.4
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  • Question 2 - A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed by a nurse practitioner at a family planning facility. A high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion is visible on the Pap smear (HGSIL).

      Colposcopy was performed in the office. The impression is of acetowhite alterations, which could indicate infection by HPV. Chronic cervicitis is present in your biopsies, but there is no indication of dysplasia.

      Which of the following is the most suitable next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer: Repeat the Pap smear in 3 to 6 months

      Correct Answer: Conization of the cervix

      Explanation:

      When cervical biopsy or colposcopy doesn’t explain the severity of the pap smear results cone biopsy is done. In 10% of biopsies, results will be different from that of the pap smear as in this patient with pap smear showing HSIL and colposcopy showing chronic cervicitis.

      In such cases conization is indicated. Repeating the pap smear could risk prompt management of a serious problem. No destructive procedure, ablation or cryotherapy, should be done before diagnosis is certain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      27.9
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old female presented with a lump in the upper outer quadrant of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female presented with a lump in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast, which is 1.5cm in size and tender. What is the initial investigation to be done?

      Your Answer: FNAC

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Tenderness is usually suggestive of a benign breast mass such as a breast abscess. Ultrasound is used to distinguish solid from cystic structures and to direct needle aspiration for abscess drainage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      13.2
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  • Question 4 - An 20-year-old woman presents to you 6 hours after she was raped on...

    Incorrect

    • An 20-year-old woman presents to you 6 hours after she was raped on day-12 of her menses which usually lasts for 28 days. You have decided to give her Postinor-2 (levonorgestrel 0.75 mg) as a post-intercourse contraceptive. She is requesting information about any potential adverse effects as well as its efficacy.

      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Nausea and vomiting occurs in about 50% of women given this treatment.

      Correct Answer: The treatment fails to prevent pregnancy in 2-3% of women treated.

      Explanation:

      Postinor-2 (levonorgestrel 750pg) is only an emergency contraceptive and is not designed to be a regular form of contraception. If taken within 24 hours, it is estimated to be able to prevent up 97-98% of pregnancies and 58% if given between 48-72 hours post-unprotected intercourse. It can cause vaginal bleeding within a few days of its administration if it is given before day 8-10 of her menstrual cycle. However, if given mid-cycle, it typically doesn’t affect the timing of her next period unless conception occurs. Nausea and vomiting were common when high doses of OCP were used as a post-intercourse contraceptive. Nausea and vomiting still can occur with Postinor-2, but not up to 50% of women. There is currently no evidence to suggest that the levonorgestrel dose would cause a virilising effect on female foetuses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman living in England had a cervical smear test one month...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman living in England had a cervical smear test one month ago. There were no cervical abnormalities visualised at the time of the smear. She has no symptoms of unusual vaginal bleeding and her previous smear results have always been negative. She received the following report: 'Your recent smear was negative with no evidence of nuclear abnormalities.' When will she be routinely recalled for her next smear?

      Your Answer: 2 years

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Women aged 25-49 years living in England are routinely recalled for screening every three years. Women receive their first invitation for cervical screening at 25 years of age. They are not invited earlier as changes in the young cervix can be normal and result in unnecessary treatment. Provided the smears remain negative and there are no symptoms to suggest cervical cancer, the routine recall is three years for women aged 25-49 years. Women aged 50-64 years old are routinely recalled for a smear every five years. After the age of 65 years, women are only screened if they have not had a smear since the age of 50 years (including those who have never had a smear) or those who have had recent abnormal smears. This is because due to the natural history and progression of cervical cancer, it is highly unlikely that women over 65 years old will go on to develop the disease. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      19
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  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old lady complains of a mild discomfort in her lower abdomen. She...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old lady complains of a mild discomfort in her lower abdomen. She attained menopause 6 years ago whereas her last vaginal examination 2 years prior, was normal. She now has a palpable mass measuring 8cm in diameter in the left ovarian area.

      Which is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Admission to hospital for early surgical exploration.

      Explanation:

      This lady should be admitted to hospital for early surgical exploration. Taking into account her age, mild abdominal discomfort and a palpable lower abdominal mass, it is imperative that ovarian malignancy be ruled out as soon as possible. Patients with ovarian malignancy often present in advanced stages of cancer as the symptoms tend to be occult and non-specific. Other things to include in her workup would be her CA125 level. Any form of hormonal therapy is contraindicated until ovarian malignancy has been ruled out. A pap smear is not relevant here since we are suspecting an ovarian malignancy rather than cervical. Evaluation of her mass takes priority over an assessment for osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      31.3
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  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She has hirsutism and acne. She has also expressed that she occasionally suffers from migraines along with pins and needles in her left arm.

      Which is the best contraceptive for her?

      Your Answer: A barrier method of contraception.

      Explanation:

      OCPs which contain oestrogen and progesterone are contraindicated in women who have migraines associated with a neurological deficit or aura (pins and needles in this case). In such cases, the alternative would be Implanon (etonogestrel), however, there are mixed reviews and opinions regarding whether or not there is a decreased efficacy in heavier women. The absolute contraindication for Implanon is active breast cancer. Therefore, the best advice for her case would be some form of barrier contraceptive.

      When choosing a COCP (combined oral contraceptive pill), it is recommended that a formulation containing 20-30ug of ethinyl oestradiol is chosen. The progestogen part is responsible for prevention of conception and can be norgestrel or any other progestogens although the formulations containing norgestrel tend to be cheaper than more novel progestins such as cyproterone acetate as well as drospirenone. If the patient is known to have issues with excessive fluid retention, OCPs that has drospirenone would be the most suitable. However, if the patient is suspected to have PCOS, the best choice would be one that contains cyproterone acetate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old female, expecting twins, complains of decreased fetal movements in her 40th...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female, expecting twins, complains of decreased fetal movements in her 40th week of gestation. An hour ago, she experienced constant abdominal pain for an hour and passed blood in her urine. What is the next best investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Ultrasounds can

      Correct Answer: Cardiotocograph

      Explanation:

      Cardiotocography (CTG) helps to record the heartbeat of the foetus in parallel to measuring the contractions of the mother’s uterus, this is the most appropriate tool to assess this patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      19.7
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  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old woman presents to the gynaecologic clinic with a complaint of headache,...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to the gynaecologic clinic with a complaint of headache, irritability, insomnia, abdominal bloating, anxiety, and breast tenderness around 4 to 5 days before menstruation for the last 8 months. There's also a limitation on daily activities and she has to take a week off from work. The patient's symptoms are relieved with the onset of menstruation. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. There is no other significant past medical history.

      Which of the following is the best treatment?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      The signs and symptoms of premenstrual dysmorphic disorder are well-known in this patient. Fluoxetine is the greatest therapeutic option among the available options.
      For severe symptoms, clomipramine and danazol can be used interchangeably.
      Bromocriptine, like oral contraceptives and evening primrose, has no scientific evidence to support its use in this syndrome.
      NSAIDs are helpful for painful symptoms, but they only address a limited number of them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old woman has a vaginal discharge with pH <4.5 and a very...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has a vaginal discharge with pH <4.5 and a very foul smell. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite. In women, trichomoniasis can cause a foul-smelling vaginal discharge which might be white, grey, yellow or green, genital itching and painful urination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.2
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  • Question 11 - A 33 year old pregnant lady was brought into the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old pregnant lady was brought into the emergency department with per vaginal bleeding. She has been having labour pains for the last 2 hours. O/E: her cervix was 2cm dilated. Which stage of labour is she in now?

      Your Answer: Latent phase

      Correct Answer: First stage

      Explanation:

      There are 3 stages of labour. The 1st stage of labour starts from labour contractions till the time the cervix is fully dilated. Stage 2 is from complete cervical dilatation until the baby is born. The 3rd stage is from the birth of the baby, until the time the placenta is expelled.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28.3
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  • Question 12 - Which is the most useful tumour marker for monitoring of ovarian cancer patients?...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most useful tumour marker for monitoring of ovarian cancer patients?

      Your Answer: CA 125

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      CA-125 has found application as a tumour marker or biomarker that may be elevated in the blood of some patients with specific types of cancers, or other conditions that are benign. Increased level of CA125 appears in fifty percent of stage 1 ovarian cancer patients and more than 90% with stages 2-4 ovarian cancer. CA-125 is therefore a useful tool for detecting ovarian cancer after the onset of symptoms as well as monitoring response to treatment and for predicting a patient’s prognosis after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      4.2
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  • Question 13 - A 61-year-old woman presents to OBGYN clinic with a complaint of irregular bleeding...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old woman presents to OBGYN clinic with a complaint of irregular bleeding per vagina for the last 3 months. Her past medical history is not significant and she went through menopause around a decade ago.
      A cervical screening test is performed and comes back normal. PCR for chlamydia is also negative. Endometrial thickness of around 8mm is seen on transvaginal ultrasound.
      What would be the next step of management?

      Your Answer: Referral to the gynaecologist for endometrial biopsy

      Explanation:

      This patient had postmenopausal vaginal haemorrhage and an 8mm endometrial thickness. Endometrial thickness of 4mm or more in a postmenopausal woman with vaginal bleeding necessitates an endometrial biopsy to rule out endometrial cancer, and this patient should be referred to a gynaecologist for this procedure.
      All of the other choices are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      1409.6
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  • Question 14 - A 34-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating,...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation. Her past medical history is insignificant, she is non-alcoholic and is not taking any medicine.

      The most likely diagnosis with such a presentation is?

      Your Answer: Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

      Correct Answer: Premenstrual syndrome

      Explanation:

      As the most likely diagnosis, this woman meets diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome (PMS).
      Affective and physical symptoms that begin one week before menstruation and end four days after menstrual flow begins are diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome. The symptoms must be present for at least three menstrual cycles and must not occur during the preovulatory period.
      It’s critical to note that these symptoms are not caused by any medical or psychological condition, medications, drugs, or alcohol.

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome marked by intense melancholy, emotional lability with frequent tears, and a lack of interest in daily activities. To put it another way, emotional impairment is the most prominent trait.

      This woman does not meet the diagnostic criteria for PMDD because she only has psychological symptoms of irritation and anxiety, as well as physical symptoms of headache and breast soreness (five symptoms).

      PMDD diagnostic criteria include:
      Symptoms and their timing
      A) At least 5 symptoms must be present in the final week before menses, improve within a few days after menses, and become mild or non-existent in the week after menses in the majority of menstrual cycles.
      Symptoms
      B) At least one of the symptoms listed below must be present:
      1) Affective lability that is noticeable (e.g., mood swings, feeling suddenly sad or tearful, or increased sensitivity to rejection)
      2) Excessive irritation, wrath, or interpersonal conflicts
      3) Depressed mood, hopelessness, and self-depreciating thoughts
      4) Severe anxiety, tension, and/or a sense of being tense or on edge
      C) In addition to the symptoms listed in criterion B, one (or more) of the following symptoms must also be present to reach a total of five symptoms.
      1) Loss of enthusiasm for customary activities
      2) Subjective concentration problems
      3) Lethargy, fatigability, or a noticeable lack of energy
      4) Significant changes in appetite, such as binge eating or specific food desires
      5) Insomnia or hypersomnia
      6) A feeling of being overwhelmed or powerless
      7) Physical signs and symptoms include breast discomfort or swelling, joint or muscle pain, bloating, or weight gain.
      Severity
      D)The symptoms are linked to clinically substantial distress or interfere with employment, school, regular social activities, or interpersonal relationships.
      E) Think about other mental illnesses. The disturbance isn’t only a sign of another disorder, like major depressive disorder, panic disorder, persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), or a personality disorder (although it may co-occur with any of these disorders).
      Confirmation of the condition
      F)Prospective daily ratings throughout at least two symptomatic cycles should be used to confirm Criterion A. (although a provisional diagnosis may be made prior to this confirmation)
      Other medical explanations are ruled out.
      G) The symptoms aren’t caused by the physiological consequences of a substance (e.g., drug misuse, medication, or other treatment) or a medical condition (e.g., hyperthyroidism).
      The severity of the symptoms cannot be explained by normal menstrual physiology.
      Generalized anxiety disorder and depression are improbable diagnoses because these symptoms are temporally tied to menstrual cycles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.6
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  • Question 15 - A 25 year old unmarried female presented with dizziness, nausea and vomiting for...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old unmarried female presented with dizziness, nausea and vomiting for 1 week. According to her, she has been stressed recently and her usual menstrual period has been delayed by 4 weeks. Examination findings were normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Dipstick for B-hCG

      Explanation:

      There is high possibility of her being pregnant. Urine B-hCG has to be checked to exclude pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.8
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  • Question 16 - A 39-year-old woman presents with a history of menorrhagia for 2 years. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman presents with a history of menorrhagia for 2 years. Her symptoms started after laparoscopic filshie clip sterilization was performed 3 years ago. She has three children aged eleven, seven, and six years.  Her periods used to last 10 days before she was sterilized because she didn't use any form of contraception. Her periods lasted only four days when she was on the oral contraceptive pill (OCP), which was the case right before the sterilization. At the time of sterilization, a hysteroscopic check revealed a normal uterine cavity, and no abnormalities were found during the laparoscopic surgery. Which of the following would be the best next step in management?

      Your Answer: Endometrial ablation.

      Correct Answer: A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).

      Explanation:

      Although a dilatation and curettage (D&C) is frequently recommended as part of a woman’s menorrhagia examination.
      D&C is not indicated in a woman who had a normal hysteroscopy and laparoscopy only two years ago, and who experienced comparable symptoms when not taking the OCP in the past, especially after the age of 40.
      The Filshie clips should not be removed because they will not improve the symptoms.

      Although an endometrial ablation or possibly a hysterectomy may be required in the future to address the symptoms, the first line of treatment should be a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), which will reduce the loss in up to half of the women treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in her underpants one day prior to consultation. Her mother reports that the girl started cycling lessons one week ago. How will you proceed with the investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Local Examination

      Correct Answer: Examination under Anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      A local exam might not help in locating the cause of the bleeding because it might be underneath the superficial structures. A thorough examination should be done under GA to accurately locate the source of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia....

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. She has been using an IUCD for one year now and wants to know the cause of her current condition. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Adenomyosis

      Correct Answer: PID

      Explanation:

      IUCD is a risk factor for PID and PID has the clinical picture already described. However, fibroids should also be excluded since they may present in the same way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 19 - Your 64-year-old patient has come to you with a uterine prolapse complaint.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • Your 64-year-old patient has come to you with a uterine prolapse complaint.

      Which of the following ligaments plays the most critical role in uterine prolapse pathophysiology?

      Your Answer: Levatorani muscle

      Correct Answer: Uterosacral ligament

      Explanation:

      The uterus needs support in order to remain centered inside the pelvic cavity. The support it receives comes in two forms: dynamic and passive. The ligaments of the uterus have an important role in both.

      Dynamic support is provided by the pelvic diaphragm through tonic contractions while standing and sitting and active contractions during moments of increased abdominal pressure, such as coughing or sneezing. During these moments, the ligaments of the uterus transmit the force of the diaphragm towards the organ itself, maintaining its position.

      The ligaments are also crucial in providing passive support. By minimizing movement of the body and the cervix, they maintain the uterus in the typical anteverted and anteflexed position directly on top of the bladder. This provides a support for the uterus when the abdominal pressure increases.

      Hence, even though the broad ligament, round ligament and ovarian ligament have some role in the suspension of the uterus, the uterosacral ligament plays the most significant role. It is also the ligament used for surgical suspension of POP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A 46-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of irregular heavy...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of irregular heavy menstruation. She had normal menstrual pattern 6 months back. Physical examination revealed no abnormality with a negative cervical smear. Laboratory investigation reveals a haemoglobin of 105g/L (Normal 115-165g/L). The most common cause of such menorrhagia is?

      Your Answer: Adenomyosis.

      Correct Answer: Anovulatory cycles.

      Explanation:

      Menorrhagia in a 45-year-old woman is most likely caused by an ovulation issue, most likely anovulatory cycles, particularly if the periods have grown irregular.

      Endometrial carcinoma is a rare cause of menorrhagia that usually occurs after menopause.

      Menorrhagia can be caused by fibroids, endometrial polyps, and adenomyosis, although the cycles are normally regular, and a dramatic change from normal cycles six months prior would be exceptional.
      If fibroids or adenomyosis are the source of the menorrhagia, the uterus is usually enlarged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - A 42 years old woman presents to a gynaecologic clinic with mid-cycle, moderate-intensity...

    Correct

    • A 42 years old woman presents to a gynaecologic clinic with mid-cycle, moderate-intensity abdominal pain. There is also a similar episode of pain around a month ago, which remained for about 3 days and resolved spontaneously. She is otherwise healthy with a normal regular cycle of about 28 days duration.
      Examination reveals normal vitals, soft and non-tender abdomen without any guarding or rebound tenderness.

      The most likely cause of the patient's problem is?

      Your Answer: Ovulation pain

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed symptoms of ovulation discomfort, which is also known as Mittelschmerz syndrome. Lower abdominal and pelvic pain that arises around the middle of a woman’s menstrual cycle characterises this condition.
      The discomfort usually appears suddenly and disappears within hours, though it can continue up to three days.

      The symptoms of ovulation pain can include:
      – Lower abdomen pain.
      – The pain typically occurs about two weeks before the menstrual period is due.
      – The pain is felt on the right or left side, depending on which ovary is releasing an egg.
      – The pain may switch from one side to the other from one cycle to the next, or remain on one side for a few cycles.
      The duration of pain ranges anywhere from minutes to 48 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of a one week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of a one week history of light vaginal bleeding.

      Her past medical history reveals she had a lumpectomy, postoperative radiotherapy, adjuvant chemotherapy and tamoxifen therapy 3 years ago as treatment for an oestrogen receptor-positive breast malignancy.

      She was prescribed tamoxifen in a dose of 10mg per day to take for the next five years.

      Since she completed her chemotherapy three years ago, she has no menstrual periods.

      What is the most probable cause of her current bleeding?

      Your Answer: Endometrial atrophy due to the tamoxifen.

      Correct Answer: Endometrial polyp formation due to the tamoxifen.

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of her bleeding is an endometrial polyp formation due to the tamoxifen.

      Tamoxifen is often prescribed to decrease risk of breast cancer recurrence in premenopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive cancers.

      As with any medication, it has known side effects, which include endometrial polyp formation, subendometrial oedema and, rarely, endometrial carcinoma.

      A polyp or carcinoma can cause uterine bleeding, but a polyp is more likely to occur.

      Routine endometrial thickness screening is not recommended in all women taking tamoxifen. However, in cases of abnormal bleeding, ultrasound assessment of endometrial thickness, hysteroscopy and curettage are indicated to assess the endometrium in more detail.

      Tamoxifen is not associated with endometrial atrophy.

      Endometrial metastasis from a breast cancer is rare, and tamoxifen would not usually induce follicular development in a woman who has had chemotherapy and resultant amenorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - A 33 year old lady in her first trimester of pregnancy presented with...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old lady in her first trimester of pregnancy presented with loss of weight, abdominal pain and frequent episodes of vomiting. Her vital signs are normal. She has been given a cyclizine injection but without any significant improvement. The next step would be?

      Your Answer: IV antiemetics

      Correct Answer: IV steroids

      Explanation:

      In hyperemesis gravidarum, IV corticosteroids can be given to reduce vomiting, if the patient is not responding to standard anti emetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her cervical screening test. According to the study, she has a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion as well as HPV non-16 and 18 subtypes. She had never previously had a cervical screening.

      What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Repeat pap smear within 12 months

      Correct Answer: Repeat HPV test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      All other options are not acceptable for the above mentioned reasons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 25 - A 29-year-old woman presents to her local Emergency Department with the complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to her local Emergency Department with the complaint of feeling unwell.

      Her last menstrual period was eight weeks ago. Normally, she has regular monthly periods.

      She reports that she had heavy vaginal bleeding on the previous day; the bleeding had reduced today.

      On examination, she appears unwell, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min, BP is 110/60 mmHg, and temperature is 39.5°C

      Suprapubic tenderness and guarding is noted on abdominal examination.

      There is no evidence of a pelvic mass.

      Speculum examination shows that the cervix is open and apparent products of conception are present in the upper vagina.

      From the following, choose the most appropriate treatment option for optimal management of this patient.

      Your Answer: Curettage.

      Correct Answer: Cervical swabs for microscopic assessment and culture.

      Explanation:

      This woman has experienced a septic abortion. Therefore the first step is commencement of intensive antibiotic treatment as soon as cervical swabs have been taken.

      The next step is evacuation of the uterus. Curettage can be performed after a few hours, to extract any remaining infected products of conception from the uterine cavity.

      The choice of antibiotics depends on the most likely microorganism involved. Therefore, prior to commencing any other procedure, it is vital to take cervical swabs for microscopic examination to guide further antibiotic therapy (correct answer).

      If curettage is performed immediately there is a risk that the infection would spread.

      However, if Clostridium welchii infection is suspected from the cervical smear (particularly if encapsulation of the microorganisms is present), then curettage should be performed immediately along with commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Curettage can be delayed for up to 12-24 hours if other microorganisms are suspected; unless a significant increase in bleeding occurs.

      Ergometrine is not essential as an immediate treatment measure as the patient is not bleeding heavily and reports that her bleeding has decreased. However, ergometrine is commonly given when curettage is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 26 - A 23-year-old woman presents to the local hospital clinic for her first antenatal...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman presents to the local hospital clinic for her first antenatal visit.

      She is primigravid at 39 weeks of gestation (exact dates uncertain).

      She has just arrived from overseas, and no antenatal care had been available in her origin country.

      On examination, BP is 120/80 mmHg. The fundal height is 30cm above the pubic symphysis. Fetal heart sounds are present at a rate of 144/min.

      Pelvic examination indicates a long, closed cervix. The baby is noted to be in cephalic presentation.

      What is the appropriate choice for initial management of this woman?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound examination.

      Explanation:

      In this case, the fundus height appears to be smaller than the suggested dates of gestation. However, this is uncertain as the exact gestation dates are not known. Head-sparing intrauterine growth restriction needs to be excluded or managed appropriately if detected.

      The best initial management step would be to perform an ultrasound examination (correct answer). This would enable complete assessment of the foetus and all the measurable parameters can be determined. This would aid in identifying any discrepancy in size of the abdomen, limbs and head, and the liquor volume (amniotic fluid index) could be evaluated.

      If asymmetrical growth restriction was detected via ultrasound examination, further evaluations such as cardiotocography (CTG) and umbilical arterial wave form analysis by Doppler could be initiated.

      Additionally, foetal movement counting could then be commenced and evaluation of foetal lung maturity by amniocentesis could be considered.

      If the ultrasound was normal (no evidence of asymmetrical growth restriction, normal amniotic fluid), repeat ultrasound should be performed after two weeks to evaluate the foetal growth.

      If normal growth is observed on the repeat ultrasound, the estimated due date can be calculated (assuming normal foetal growth around the 50th percentile for the population).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 27 - A 26-year-old woman came in with a two-year history of amenorrhea and excessive...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman came in with a two-year history of amenorrhea and excessive facial hair growth. She had previously given birth to two children. FSH, LH, Prolactin, and oestrogen levels in the blood are all normal. The amount of testosterone in the blood is somewhat higher.
      More than 12 tiny cysts can be seen on a transvaginal pelvic ultrasonography.


      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      This patient has experienced polycystic ovarian syndrome-like symptoms.
      At least two out of three of the following criteria must be met to diagnose polycystic ovarian syndrome:
      1- Hyperandrogenism suggesting an excess of androgens e.g. excess hair growth, acne etc.
      2- Menstrual irregularities e.g. dysmenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, and amenorrhea.
      3-The ovaries are polycystic if one ovary has 12 or more follicles or if the size of one or both ovaries has risen.

      Low FSH, LH, and pituitary hormones are typically associated with hypothalamic dysfunction, however this is not the case here.
      Similarly, with premature ovarian failure, FSH/LH levels rise while oestrogen levels decrease.

      All of the other choices are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old female went to a contraception clinic because she does not want...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female went to a contraception clinic because she does not want to conceive for the next 2 years. She also has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic pain. Imaging revealed fibroids. What is the best method of contraception for the patient in this case?

      Your Answer: COCP

      Correct Answer: IUS

      Explanation:

      IUS or Intra Uterine System/Device releases progestin. The progestin thickens the cervix, preventing the sperm from penetrating the cervix, and it also causes the uterine lining to become thinner, preventing any implantation. IUS may also prevent excessive bleeding and can help women with fibroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      18.2
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old menopausal woman complained of regular hot flushes that interfered with her...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old menopausal woman complained of regular hot flushes that interfered with her sleep and job. She had a ten-year history of oestrogen-dependent breast cancer.

      What is the most effective treatment for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cyclical oestrogen and progesterone

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine is an SSRI used for hot flushes in women with contraindication for hormonal therapy.

      Hormonal or other pharmacotherapy is usually needed for women with bothersome hot flashes. For most women with moderate to very severe hot flashes and no contraindications, we suggest MHT. Women with an intact uterus need both oestrogen and a progestin, while those who have undergone hysterectomy can receive oestrogen only. For women interested in MHT, the first step is to determine the potential risks for the specific individual.

      The majority of perimenopausal and recently menopausal women are good candidates for short-term hormone therapy for symptom relief. However, for women with a history of breast cancer, coronary heart disease (CHD), a previous venous thromboembolic event (VTE) or stroke, or those at moderate or high risk for these complications, alternatives to hormone therapy should be suggested. For women with moderate to severe hot flashes who are not candidates for hormone therapy based upon their breast cancer, CHD, or VTE risk and for those who choose not to take MHT, we suggest nonhormonal agents. The agents most commonly used include SSRIs, serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), antiepileptics, and centrally acting drugs.

      Black Cohosh is found to be no more significant than placebo.
      Long-term use of mefenamic acid is controversial and not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - A 36-year-old woman arrived at the clinic complaining of stomach discomfort and vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman arrived at the clinic complaining of stomach discomfort and vaginal bleeding. A pregnancy test in the urine came back positive. An ultrasonography of the right fallopian tube revealed a gestational sac.

      Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for the ailment you've just read about?

      Your Answer: Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

      Explanation:

      An ectopic pregnancy is definitely present in this patient. An extrauterine pregnancy is referred to as an ectopic pregnancy. The fallopian tube accounts for 96% of ectopic pregnancies, but other sites include the cervical, interstitial (also called cornual; a pregnancy located in the proximal segment of the fallopian tube that is embedded within the muscular wall of the uterus), hysterotomy (caesarean) scar, intramural, ovarian, or abdominal. Furthermore, multiple gestations may be heterotopic in rare situations (including both a uterine and extrauterine pregnancy). Diabetes mellitus is not considered a risk factor for the development of an ectopic pregnancy.

      Risk factors for ectopic pregnancy are summarized below:
      High Risk: (Risk factors & Odds ratio)
      Previous ectopic pregnancy 2.7 to 8.3
      Previous tubal surgery 2.1 to 21
      Tubal pathology 3.5 to 25
      Sterilization 5.2 to 19
      IUD – Past use 1.7 – Current use 4.2 to 16.4
      Levonorgestrel IUD 4.9
      In vitro fertilization in current pregnancy 4.0 to 9.3

      Moderate:
      Current use of oestrogen/progestin oral contraceptives 1.7 to 4.5
      Previous sexually transmitted infections (gonorrhoea, chlamydia) 2.8 to 3.7
      Previous pelvic inflammatory disease 2.5 to 3.4
      In utero diethylstilbesterol (DES) exposure 3.7
      Smoking – Past smoker 1.5 to 2.5 – Current smoker 1.7 to 3.9
      Previous pelvic/abdominal surgery 4.0
      Previous spontaneous abortion 3.0

      Low:
      Previous medically induced abortion 2.8
      Infertility 2.1 to 2.7
      Age ≥40 years 2.9
      Vaginal douching 1.1 to 3.1
      Age at first intercourse <18 years 1.6
      Previous appendectomy 1.6

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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Gynaecology (10/30) 33%
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