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  • Question 1 - A 68-year old female is brought to the Emergency Room for abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A 68-year old female is brought to the Emergency Room for abdominal pain. Medical history revealed that she is on long-term warfarin therapy for deep vein thrombosis.

      Upon further investigation, the patient is hypotensive at 80/60 mmHg, and an abdominal mass is palpable on the umbilical area. An initial diagnosis of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is made. Moreover, blood tests show an international normalised ratio (INR) of 4.2.

      Which of the following products should be initially transfused or administered to the patient to reverse the anticoagulation?

      Your Answer: Prothrombin complex

      Explanation:

      Warfarin prevents reductive metabolism of the inactive vitamin K epoxide back to its active hydroquinone form. Thus, warfarin inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors: X, IX, VII, II (prothrombin), and of the anticoagulants protein C and protein S. The therapeutic range for oral anticoagulant therapy is defined in terms of an international normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the prothrombin time ratio (patient prothrombin time/mean of normal prothrombin time for lab)ISI, where the ISI exponent refers to the International Sensitivity Index and is dependent on the specific reagents and instruments used for the determination. A prolonged INR is widely used as an indication of integrity of the coagulation system in liver disease and other disorders, it has been validated only in patients in steady state on chronic warfarin therapy.

      Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) is used to replace congenital or acquired vitamin-K deficiency warfarin-induced anticoagulant effect, particularly in the emergent setting.

      Intravenous vitamin K has a slower onset of action compared to PCC, but is useful for long term therapy.

      Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) prepared from freshly donated blood is the usual source of the vitamin K-dependent factors and is the only source of factor V. The factors needed, however, are found in small quantities compared to PCC.

      Cryoprecipitate is indicated for hypofibrinogenemia/dysfibrinogenemia, von Willebrand disease, haemophilia A, factor XIII deficiency, and management of bleeding related to thrombolytic therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times.

    Which mechanism...

    Correct

    • During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times.

      Which mechanism is the most important for increased blood flow?

      Your Answer: Local autoregulation

      Explanation:

      Skeletal muscle blood flow is in the range of 1-4 ml/min per 100 g when at rest. Blood flow can reach 50-100 ml/min per 100 g during exercise. With maximal vasodilation, blood flow can increase 20 to 50 times.

      The adrenal medulla releases catecholamines and increases neural sympathetic activity during exercise. Normally, alpha-1 and alpha-2 would cause vasoconstriction in the muscle groups being used, but vasodilatory metabolites override these effects, resulting in a so-called functional sympathectomy. Local hypoxia and hypercarbia, nitric oxide, K+ ions, adenosine, and lactate are some of the stimuli that cause vasodilation.

      However, the splanchnic and cutaneous circulations, which supply inactive muscles, vasoconstrict.

      Sympathetic cholinergic innervation of skeletal muscle arteries is found in some species (such as cats and dogs, but not humans). Vasodilation is induced by stimulating smooth muscle beta-2 adrenoreceptors, but at rest, the alpha-adrenoreceptor effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline predominate. During exercise, the skeletal muscle pump promotes venous emptying, but it does not necessarily increase blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis?

      Your Answer: The circle surrounds the stalk of the pituitary gland

      Correct Answer: Majority of blood passing through the vessels mix together

      Explanation:

      There is minimum mixing of blood passing through the vessels.

      The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries. It lies in the subarachnoid space within the basal cisterns that surround the optic chiasma and infundibulum.

      Each half of the circle is formed by:
      1. Anterior communicating artery
      2. Anterior cerebral artery
      3. Internal carotid artery
      4. Posterior communicating artery
      5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar artery

      The circle and its branches supply; the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - All of the following statements about pH electrode are incorrect except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements about pH electrode are incorrect except:

      Your Answer: A semi-permeable membrane reduces protein contamination

      Explanation:

      Pulse oximeters combine the principles of oximetry and plethysmography to noninvasively measure oxygen saturation in arterial blood. A sensor containing two or three light emitting diodes and a photodiode is placed across a perfused body part, commonly a finger, to be transilluminated. Oximetry depends on oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin, and their ability to absorb the beams of light produced by the light emitting diodes: red light at 660 nm and infrared light at 960 nm.

      The isosbestic point is the point wherein two different substances absorb light to the same extent. For oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin, the points are at 590 nm and 805 nm. These are considered reference points where light absorption is independent of the degree of saturation.

      Non-constant absorption of light is often due to the presence of an arterial pulsation, whilst constant absorption of light is seen in non-pulsatile tissues.

      Most pulse oximeters are inaccurate at low SpO2, but is accurate at +/- 2% within the range of 70% to 100% SpO2. All pulse oximeters demonstrate a delay in between changes in SaO2 and SpO2, and display average readings every 10 to 20 seconds, hence they are unable to detect acute desaturation episodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A new intravenous neuromuscular blocking agent has been developed. It has a hepatic...

    Correct

    • A new intravenous neuromuscular blocking agent has been developed. It has a hepatic extraction ratio of 0.25 and three quaternary nitrogen atoms in its structure. It has been discovered that it has a half-life of fifteen minutes in healthy volunteers.

      Which of the following elimination mechanisms is the most likely to explain this pharmacological behaviour?

      Your Answer: It is filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules

      Explanation:

      The neuromuscular blocking agent is likely to be filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules due to an exclusion process.

      Neuromuscular blocking agents that contain one or more quaternary nitrogen atoms are polar and ionised. As a result, the molecules have low lipid solubility, low membrane diffusion capacity, and low distribution volume.

      It’s unlikely that a compound with three quaternary nitrogen atoms is an ester. Its high polarity would prevent molecules from moving quickly into tissues.

      When drugs have a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.3), the venous and arterial drug concentrations are nearly identical. The liver is not the primary site of drug metabolism.

      Therefore:

      Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on clearance.
      Protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion are all very sensitive to changes in clearance.
      When taken orally, there is no first-pass metabolism.

      There is no reason for the lungs to eliminate any neuromuscular blocking agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with an ectopic pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with an ectopic pregnancy that has ruptured.

      The following is a description of the clinical examination:

      Anxious
      Capillary refill time of 3 seconds
      Cool peripheries
      Pulse 120 beats per minute
      Blood pressure 120/95 mmHg
      Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute.

      Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%

      Explanation:

      The following is the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock:

      Class I haemorrhage:
      It has blood loss up to 15%. There is very less tachycardia, and no changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure. Usually, fluid replacement is not required.

      Class II haemorrhage:
      It has 15-30% blood loss, equivalent to 750 – 1500 ml. There is tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure. Patient may be frightened, hostile and anxious. It can be stabilised by crystalloid and blood transfusion.

      Class III haemorrhage:
      There is 30-40% blood loss. It portrays inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, altered mental state and fall in systolic pressure. It requires blood transfusion.

      Class IV haemorrhage:
      There is > 40% blood volume loss. It is a preterminal event, and the patient will die in minutes. It portrays tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and pulse pressure, altered mental state, and cold clammy skin. There is need for rapid transfusion and surgical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Bioelectric potentials that have been measured have an optimum bandwidth and typical frequency.

    For...

    Correct

    • Bioelectric potentials that have been measured have an optimum bandwidth and typical frequency.

      For a standard 12-lead ECG, which of the following bandwidth and voltage combinations is the best?

      Your Answer: Bandwidth 0.05-150 Hz, voltage 100-4000 microvolts

      Explanation:

      The potential difference (amplitude) and bandwidth frequencies of bioelectric signals are typical.

      These are the following:

      ECG: A bandwidth of 0.5-50 Hz is usually sufficient in monitoring mode, but a typical diagnostic bandwidth is 0.05-150 Hz (up to 200 Hz) with a typical voltage range of 0.1-4 millivolts (100-4000 microvolts).
      EEG has a frequency range of 0.5-100 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5-100 microvolts.
      EMG has a frequency range of 0.5 to 350 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5 to 30 millivolts.

      Prior to display, these small signals will need to be amplified and processed further.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In the adrenal gland: ...

    Correct

    • In the adrenal gland:

      Your Answer: Catecholamine release is mediated by cholinergic nicotinic transmission

      Explanation:

      The adrenal (suprarenal) gland is composed of two main parts: the adrenal cortex, which is the largest and outer part of the gland, and the adrenal medulla. The adrenal cortex consists of three zones: 1. Zona glomerulosa (outermost layer) is responsible for the production of mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which regulates blood pressure and electrolyte balance. 2. Zona fasciculata (middle layer) is responsible for the production of glucocorticoids, predominantly cortisol, which increases blood sugar levels via gluconeogenesis, suppresses the immune system, and aids in metabolism. It also produces 11-deoxycorticosterone and corticosterone in addition to cortisol. 3. Zona reticularis (innermost layer) is responsible for the production of gonadocorticoids, mainly dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), which serves as the starting material for many other important hormones produced by the adrenal gland, such as oestrogen, progesterone, testosterone, and cortisol. It is also responsible for administering these hormones to the reproductive regions of the body.

      The adrenal medulla majorly secretes epinephrine (adrenaline), and norepinephrine in small quantity. Both hormones have similar functions and initiate the flight or fight response.

      Catecholamine is mediated by cholinergic nicotinic transmission through changes in sympathetic nervous system (T5 – T11), being increased during stress and hypoglycaemia.

      Blood supply to the adrenal gland is by these three arteries: superior suprarenal arteries, middle suprarenal artery and inferior suprarenal artery. Venous drainage is via the suprarenal vein to the left renal vein or directly to the inferior vena cava on the right side. There is no portal (venous) system between cortex and medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A radical neck dissection is being performed. The ENT surgeon wishes to expose...

    Correct

    • A radical neck dissection is being performed. The ENT surgeon wishes to expose the external carotid artery fully. He inserts a self-retaining retractor close to the origin of the external carotid artery.

      What structure lies posterolaterally to the external carotid at this point?

      Your Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      External carotid artery originates at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage. It ascends and lies anterior to the internal carotid arteries and posterior to the posterior belly of the digastric muscle and stylohyoid muscle.

      The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
      Anterior surface:
      1. Superior thyroid artery (first branch)
      2. Lingual artery
      3. Facial artery
      Medial branch
      4. Ascending pharyngeal artery
      Posterior branches
      5. Occipital artery
      6. Posterior auricular artery
      Terminal branches
      7. Maxillary artery
      8. Superficial temporal artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the Wrights Respirometer? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the Wrights Respirometer?

      Your Answer: Measures the minute volume to within an accuracy of +/- 10%

      Explanation:

      A Wrights Respirometer measures the volume of air exhaled over the course of one minute of normal breathing

      It is unidirectional and measures tidal volume and minute volume of gas flow in one direction. It is placed at the expiratory side (lower pressure than inspiratory side therefore lower chances of gas leaks)

      Slits are arranged such that incoming gas will rotate the vane at a rate of 150 revolutions per litre of flowing gas

      The Wright respirometer tends to over-read at high flow rates and under-read at low flows because of mechanical causes like friction and inertia and the accumulation of water vapour

      The ideal flow for accurate readings is 2 L/min for the respirometer. The respirometer reads the tidal volume and minute volume with a ±5–10% accuracy within the range of 4–24 L/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old man has suffered a myocardial infarction. He has a heart rate...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has suffered a myocardial infarction. He has a heart rate of 40 beats per minute currently.
      Your senior attending explains that the slow heart rate is due to the damage to the conduction pathways between the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes. His ventricles are being paced by the AV node alone.

      What artery supplies the AV node in the majority of patients?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The AV node has an intrinsic firing rate of 40-60 beats per minute which is clinically significant in cases of damage to the conducting pathways as patients continue to have a ventricular rate of 40-60. Patients who have an AV node supplied by the right coronary are said to be right dominant. The remaining 10% are left dominant and supplied by the left circumflex.

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.

      The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

      The left main coronary artery branches into:
      1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
      The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
      2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

      The right coronary artery branches into:
      1. Right marginal artery
      2. Posterior descending artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding chest tube insertion, which of the following measurements is utilized when selecting...

    Correct

    • Regarding chest tube insertion, which of the following measurements is utilized when selecting a chest tube drain?

      Your Answer: External circumference (mm)

      Explanation:

      Selection of a chest drain will depend on the external circumference.

      A cannula, whether intravenous or intra-arterial, are classified according to standard wire gauge, which refers to the number of wires that can fit into the same hole. If a cannula is labelled 22G, then 22 wires will fit into the standard size hole.

      A more popular measurement than SWG nowadays is cross sectional area.

      When the concern for selecting equipment is the rate of flow, then it is important to consider the diameter and the radius of a parallel sided tube. These, however, are not routinely considered when comparing sizes of a cannula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal...

    Correct

    • Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal Alveolar Concentration (MAC)?

      Your Answer: Isoflurane

      Explanation:

      The clinical potency of the anaesthetic agent is measured using minimal alveolar concentration(MAC).

      MAC and oil: gas partition coefficient is inversely related. Anaesthetic agent Oil/gas partition coefficient and Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is given respectively as

      Desflurane 18 6
      Isoflurane 90 1.2
      Nitrous oxide 1.4 104
      Sevoflurane 53.4 2
      Xenon 1.9 71

      With these data, we can conclude Isoflurane is the most potent with the highest oil/gas partition coefficient of 90 and the lowest MAC of 1.2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output...

    Correct

    • Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?

      Your Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause

      Explanation:

      Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.

      During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.

      The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.

      Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)?

      Your Answer: Sympathomimetic effects work mainly through ?1 but also ? receptors

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline acts as a sympathomimetic effect via alpha as well as a beta receptor. However, they have weak ?2 action.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is...

    Correct

    • The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is heterocyclic, small structural changes can alter its pharmacological activity (structure function relationship).

      Which of the following modifications to the molecule has the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the barbiturate derivative?

      Your Answer: Sulphur at C2

      Explanation:

      Barbituric acid is the barbiturates’ pharmacologically inactive precursor. A pyrimidine heterocyclic nucleus is formed by the condensation of urea and malonic acid. Its pharmacological activity can be influenced by minor structural changes (structure function relationship).

      The duration of action and potency as a sedative are influenced by the length of the side chains at C5. Barbiturates with three carbon atoms in their chain last longer than those with two. Anticonvulsant properties are enhanced by branched chains.

      The addition of a methyl group at N1 causes a faster onset/offset of action, but it also causes excitatory phenomena (twitching/lower convulsive threshold).

      The addition of oxygen and sulphur to C2 increases the molecule’s lipid solubility and thus its potency. Thiopentone (thiobarbiturate) has sulphur groups at C2, making it 20-200 times more lipid soluble than oxybarbiturates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - While inspecting the caecum, what structure will be identified at the point at...

    Correct

    • While inspecting the caecum, what structure will be identified at the point at which all the taeniae coli converge?

      Your Answer: Appendix base

      Explanation:

      The taeniae coli are the three outer muscular bands of the cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, and descending colon.

      The taeniae coli converge at the base of the appendix in the cecum where they form a complete longitudinal layer. In the ascending and descending colon, the bands are located anteriorly, posteromedially, and posterolateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An otherwise fit 7-year-old boy for an elective tonsillectomy is seen holding a...

    Correct

    • An otherwise fit 7-year-old boy for an elective tonsillectomy is seen holding a bottle of sugared orange squash at anaesthetic assessment . He appears to have consumed 120 mL of the bottle's contents.

      What is the minimal safe fasting time prior to proceeding with a general anaesthetic in this patient?

      Your Answer: 1 hour

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion (TCI) of propofol in paediatric patients?

      Your Answer: Kataria

      Explanation:

      Marsh (adult) model, when used with children caused over-estimation of plasma concentration. To address this issue Kataria et al developed a three-compartmental model for propofol in children. The pharmacokinetic models used by Target controlled infusion (TCI) systems are used to calculate the relative sizes of the central (vascular), vessel-rich peripheral, and vessel-poor peripheral compartments. The relative volumes of these compartments are different in young children when compared to adults.

      Kataria, therefore, is the correct option as described above.

      The Maitre model is a three-compartmental model for alfentanil TCI.

      The Marsh model describes a propofol TCI model for adults

      The Minto model applies to TCI remifentanil.

      The Schnider model is also an adult model for propofol that incorporates age and lean body mass as covariates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - When nitrous oxide is stored in cylinders at room temperature, it is a...

    Correct

    • When nitrous oxide is stored in cylinders at room temperature, it is a gas.
      Which of its property is responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Critical temperature

      Explanation:

      The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied no matter how much pressure is applied is its critical temperature. The critical temperature of nitrous oxide is 36.5°C

      The minimum pressure that causes liquefaction is the critical pressure of that gas.

      The Poynting effect refers to the phenomenon where mixing of liquid nitrous oxide at low pressure with oxygen at high pressure (in Entonox) leads to formation of gas of nitrous oxide.

      There is no relevance of molecular weight to this question. it does not change with phase of a substance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - When there is a relation between two variables due to the existence of...

    Correct

    • When there is a relation between two variables due to the existence of a confounding factor, this association is termed as:

      Your Answer: Indirect

      Explanation:

      When the association among any two classes of object is defined by the presence of a third entity it is termed as indirect association. For an instance, the age of the employee may affect the rate of pay, which would have implications on job satisfaction. So, in this example, an indirect relationship between age and job satisfaction exists due to a third party i.e. rate of pay.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was around a recent cut on his right forearm. He was prescribed a short course of antibiotics and after 5 days again presented with progressive fatigue, headaches, and fevers.
      On clinical examination:
      Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
      Respiratory rate: 22 per minute
      Heart rate: 100 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 105/76 mmHg
      Temperature: 38.2 degree Celsius

      On physical examination, a dramatic increase in the area of erythema was noted.
      Blood culture was done in the patient and indicated the presence of bacterium containing beta-lactamase. Which of the following antibiotics was likely prescribed to the patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone group of antibiotics, and doxycycline and minocycline are tetracyclines. So, they are not affected by beta-lactamase.
      However, amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic and beta-lactamase cleaves the beta-lactam ring present in amoxicillin. This results in the breakdown of the antibiotic and thus the area of erythema dramatically increased.
      Co-amoxiclav contains amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which protects amoxicillin from beta-lactamase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Campylobacter is which type of bacteria? ...

    Correct

    • Campylobacter is which type of bacteria?

      Your Answer: sdgsdf

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter is the commonest bacterial cause of infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The majority of cases are caused by the Gram-negative bacillus Campylobacter jejuni which is spread by the faecal-oral route. The incubation period is 1-6 days.

      Features include a prodrome phase with headaches and malaise, then diarrhoea occurs which is often bloody.
      There is often abdominal pain which may mimic appendicitis.

      It is usually self-limiting but treatment is warranted if the infection is severe or the infection occurs in an immunocompromised patient.
      Severe infection comprises of high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day or symptoms last for more than one week.
      This management would include antibiotics and the first-line antibiotic is clarithromycin.
      Ciprofloxacin is an alternative but there are strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin which can be frequently isolated.

      Complications include:
      1.Guillain-Barre syndrome may follow Campylobacter
      2. Jejuniinfections
      3. Reactive arthritis
      4. Septicaemia, endocarditis, arthritis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - All of the statements describing the blood brain barrier are false EXCEPT:...

    Correct

    • All of the statements describing the blood brain barrier are false EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Inflammation alters its permeability

      Explanation:

      The blood brain barrier (BBB) consists of the ultrafiltration barrier in the choroid plexus and the barrier around cerebral capillaries. The barrier is made by endothelial cells which line the interior of all blood vessels. In the capillaries that form the blood–brain barrier, endothelial cells are wedged extremely close to each other, forming so-called tight junctions.

      Outside of the BBB lies the hypothalamus, third and fourth ventricles and the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).

      Water, oxygen and carbon dioxide cross the BBB freely but glucose is controlled. The ability of chemicals to cross the barrier is proportional to their lipid solubility, not their water solubility. It’s ability to cross is inversely proportional to their molecular size and charge.

      In neonates, the BBB is less effective than in adults. This is why there is increased passage of opioids and bile salts (kernicterus) into the neonatal brain.

      In meningitis, the effectiveness and permeability of the BBB is affected, and as a result, this effect helps the passage of antibiotics which would otherwise not normally be able to cross.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit. He has suffered...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit. He has suffered a heroin overdose and requires intubation and ventilatory support.

      What would be his predicted total static compliance (lung and chest wall) measurements.

      Your Answer: 100 ml/cmH2O

      Explanation:

      Static lung compliance refers to the change in volume within the lung per given change in unit pressure. It is usually measured when air flow is absent, such as during pauses in inhalation and exhalation.

      It is a combination of:

      Chest wall compliance: normal value is 200 mL/cmH2O
      Lung tissue compliance: normal value is 200 mL/ cmH2O

      It is represented mathematically as:

      1/Crs = 1/Cl + 1/Ccw

      Where,

      Crs = total compliance of the respiratory system
      Cl = compliance of the lung
      Ccw = compliance of the chest wall

      Therefore in this case:

      1/Crs = 1/200 + 1/200

      1/Crs = 0.005 + 0.005 = 0.01

      1/Ct = 0.01

      Rearranging equation gives:

      Ct = 1/0.01 = 100 mL/cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 63-year-old woman, is admitted into hospital. She has undergone a thoracoscopic sympathectomy.

    To...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman, is admitted into hospital. She has undergone a thoracoscopic sympathectomy.

      To enable ease of access during surgery, her right arm has been abducted.

      On examination, immediately after surgery, she is noted to have lost the ability to abduct her right arm, with the presence a weak lateral rotation in the same arm. She has also lost sensation in the outer aspect of the lower deltoid area of the skin.

      Her symptoms are as a result of injury to a nerve during surgery. What nerve is it?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      The axillary nerve arises from spinal roots C5-C6. It has both sensory and motor functions:

      Sensory: Provides innervation to the skin over the lower deltoid area

      Motor: Provides innervation to the teres minor (responsible for stabilisation of glenohumeral joint and external rotation of shoulder joint) and deltoid muscles (responsible for abduction of arms glenohumeral joint).

      Injury to the axillary nerve will result in the patient being unable to abduct the arm beyond 15 degrees and a loss of sensory feeling over lower deltoid area.

      These symptoms could also be a result of over-abduction of the arm (>90°) which would cause the head of the humerus to become dislocated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.

    Which of the following...

    Correct

    • In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.

      Which of the following membrane phospholipid metabolism products is most likely to cause NSAID-induced bronchospasm in asthmatic patients who are predisposed to it?

      Your Answer: Leukotrienes

      Explanation:

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) cause bronchospasm, rhinorrhoea, and nasal obstruction in some asthma patients.

      The inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1) appears to be the cause of NSAID-induced reactions. This activates the lipoxygenase pathway, which increases the release of cysteinyl leukotrienes (Cys-LTs), which causes bronchospasm and nasal obstruction.

      The following changes in arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism have been observed in NSAID-intolerant asthmatic patients:

      Prostaglandin E2 production is low, possibly due to a lack of Cox-2 regulation.
      An increase in leukotriene-C4 synthase expression and
      A decrease in the production of metabolites (lipoxins) released by AA’s transcellular metabolism.

      Phospholipase A produces membrane phospholipids, which are converted to arachidonic acid.

      TXA2 causes vasoconstriction as well as platelet aggregation and adhesion.

      PGI2 causes vasodilation and a reduction in platelet adhesion.

      PGE2 is involved in parturition initiation and maintenance, as well as thermoregulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is the longest-acting anti-arrhythmic drug. It possesses the action of all classes of antiarrhythmic drugs (Sodium channel blockade, Beta blockade, Potassium channel blockade, and Calcium channel blockade). Due to this property, it has the widest anti-arrhythmic spectrum and thus can be used in both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia.

      Adenosine is shortest acting anti-arrhythmic drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which one is true with respect to the first rib? ...

    Correct

    • Which one is true with respect to the first rib?

      Your Answer: Scalenus anterior is inserted onto the scalene tubercle

      Explanation:

      Specific knowledge of the anatomical relationship is required to address this examination question.

      The first rib is small and thick and contains a single facet that articulates at the costovertebral joint. It consist of a head, neck and shaft but a discrete angle is deficit. Along the side the shaft is indented with a groove for the subclavian artery and the lower brachial plexus trunk. Front to the scalene tubercle is a space for the subclavian vein.

      The first rib has the scalenus front muscle joined to the scalene tubercle, isolating the subclavian vein (anteriorly) from the subclavian artery (posteriorly). This anatomical relationship is of major significance with respect to subclavian vein cannulation.

      The 1st rib has the following relationships:

      superior: lower trunk of the brachial plexus, subclavian vessels, clavicle.

      inferior: intercostal vessels and nerves

      posterior and inferior: pleura

      anterior: sympathetic trunk (over neck)

      superior intercostal artery, ventral T1 nerve root

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following statements is true about data analysed from a new...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true about data analysed from a new drug trial?

      Your Answer: The data could be evaluated using the chi square test

      Explanation:

      The data is ideal for chi square test evaluation as it will help determine if observed outcomes are in line with expected outcomes, and also if results are significant or due to chance.

      The student’s t test is not ideal as it requires comparison of means from different populations, rather than proportions.

      Pearson’s coefficient of linear regression is not ideal as it requires the plotting of a linear regression.

      The numbers should be analysed before determining if there are any statistical conclusions that can be drawn from the population.

      Statistical analysis is always required to determine the performance of any treatment during a clinical drug trial. Conclusions cannot be drawn simply by looking at the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      5.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathophysiology (4/4) 100%
Physiology (3/3) 100%
Anatomy (5/6) 83%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology (9/9) 100%
Clinical Measurement (2/2) 100%
Statistical Methods (2/2) 100%
Physiology And Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Passmed