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  • Question 1 - Which of the following accurately describes the extensor pollicis brevis muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following accurately describes the extensor pollicis brevis muscle?

      Your Answer: It forms part of the thenar eminence

      Correct Answer: It lies on the medial side of abductor pollicis longus

      Explanation:

      Extensor pollicis brevis is a short and slender muscle located in the posterior compartment of the forearm, extending from the posterior surface of radius to the proximal phalanx of thumb. It is one of the deep extensors of the forearm, together with supinator, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus and extensor indicis muscles.

      Extensor pollicis brevis is a deep extensor of the thumb that lies deep to extensor digitorum muscle. It sits directly medial to abductor pollicis longus and posterolateral to extensor pollicis longus muscle. Just above the wrist, extensor pollicis brevis obliquely crosses the tendons of extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi radialis longus muscles.

      Extensor pollicis brevis is innervated by posterior interosseous nerve which is a continuation of a deep branch of radial nerve (root value C7 and C8).

      Extensor pollicis brevis receives its blood supply by posterior interosseous artery and perforating branches from the anterior interosseous artery, which are the branches of common interosseous artery. The common interosseous artery arises immediately below the tuberosity of radius from the ulnar artery.

      Together with extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis is in charge of extension of the thumb in the first metacarpophalangeal joint. It also extends the thumb in the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb. This movement is important in the anatomy of the grip, as it enables letting go of an object. As it crosses the wrist, extensor pollicis brevis also participates in the extension and abduction of this joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old woman with anaphylactic reaction to peanuts, had to use her EpiPen...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman with anaphylactic reaction to peanuts, had to use her EpiPen on the way to hospital.

      What percentage of patients with anaphylactic reaction suffer a biphasic response?.

      Your Answer: 40%

      Correct Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      About 20% of patients that suffer an anaphylactic reaction suffer a biphasic response 4-6 hours after the initial response (sometimes up to 72 hours after).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with statin therapy:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with statin therapy:

      Your Answer: Interstitial lung disease

      Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects of statins include:, Headache, Epistaxis, Gastrointestinal disorders (such as constipation, flatulence, dyspepsia, nausea, and diarrhoea), Musculoskeletal and connective tissue disorders (such as myalgia, arthralgia, pain in the extremity, muscle spasms, joint swelling, and back pain), Hyperglycaemia and diabetes, Myopathy and rhabdomyolysis, Interstitial lung disease and Hepatotoxicity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - During bedside rounds, an 82-year old female in the Medicine Ward complains of...

    Incorrect

    • During bedside rounds, an 82-year old female in the Medicine Ward complains of pain and tingling of all fingers of the right hand. The attending physician is considering carpal tunnel syndrome.

      Which of the following is expected to undergo atrophy in carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer: The hypothenar eminence

      Correct Answer: The thenar eminence

      Explanation:

      Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is an entrapment neuropathy caused by compression of the median nerve as it travels through the wrist’s carpal tunnel. It is the most common nerve entrapment neuropathy, accounting for 90% of all neuropathies. Early symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome include pain, numbness, and paraesthesia’s. These symptoms typically present, with some variability, in the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and the radial half (thumb side) of the ring finger. Pain also can radiate up the affected arm. With further progression, hand weakness, decreased fine motor coordination, clumsiness, and thenar atrophy can occur.

      The muscles innervated by the median nerve can be remembered using the mnemonic ‘LOAF’:
      L– lateral two lumbricals
      O– Opponens pollicis
      A– Abductor pollicis
      F– Flexor pollicis brevis

      In the early presentation of the disease, symptoms most often present at night when lying down and are relieved during the day. With further progression of the disease, symptoms will also be present during the day, especially with certain repetitive activities, such as when drawing, typing, or playing video games. In more advanced disease, symptoms can be constant.

      Typical occupations of patients with carpal tunnel syndrome include those who use computers for extended periods of time, those who use equipment that has vibration such as construction workers, and any other occupation requiring frequent, repetitive movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - For a tachyarrhythmia caused by hypovolaemic shock, which of the following is the...

    Correct

    • For a tachyarrhythmia caused by hypovolaemic shock, which of the following is the first-line treatment:

      Your Answer: Synchronised DC shock

      Explanation:

      If there are any adverse symptoms, immediate cardioversion with synchronized DC shock is recommended. If cardioversion fails to stop the arrhythmia and the symptoms persist, amiodarone 300 mg IV over 10–20 minutes should be administered before attempting another cardioversion. The loading dosage of amiodarone is followed by a 24-hour infusion of 900 mg administered into a large vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following body location is the appropriate site to apply pressure...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following body location is the appropriate site to apply pressure when performing a carotid sinus massage?

      Your Answer: Cricoid cartilage

      Correct Answer: Thyroid cartilage

      Explanation:

      The common carotid artery runs through the neck and divides into internal and external carotid arteries on both sides near the upper thyroid cartilage. In emergency situations, carotid sinus massage is also used to diagnose or treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia.

      During the procedure, to maximize access to the carotid artery, the patient is put in a supine position with the neck extended (i.e. elevating the chin away from the chest). The carotid sinus is normally positioned inferior to the angle of the jaw, near the arterial impulse, at the level of the thyroid cartilage. For 5 to 10 seconds, pressure is administered to one carotid sinus.

      Although pulsatile pressure applied in a vigorous circular motion may be more effective, continuous pressure is preferred since it is more reproducible. If the predicted reaction is not obtained, the operation is repeated on the opposite side after a one- to two-minute wait.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The least likely feature of anaemia is: ...

    Correct

    • The least likely feature of anaemia is:

      Your Answer: Narrow pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      Non-specific signs of anaemia include:
      1. pallor of mucous membranes or nail beds (if Hb < 90 g/L),
      2. tachycardia
      3. bounding pulse
      4. wide pulse pressure
      5. flow murmurs
      6. cardiomegaly
      7. signs of congestive cardiac failure (in severe cases)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding paracetamol? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding paracetamol?

      Your Answer: Liver damage peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion.

      Explanation:

      The maximum daily dose of paracetamol in an adult is 4 grams. Doses greater than this can lead to hepatotoxicity and, less frequently, acute kidney injury. Early symptoms of paracetamol toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, and usually settle within 24 hours. Symptoms of liver damage include right subcostal pain and tenderness, and this peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion. Other signs of hepatic toxicity include encephalopathy, bleeding, hypoglycaemia, and cerebral oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the interquartile range for these numbers: 11, 4, 6, 8, 3,...

    Correct

    • What is the interquartile range for these numbers: 11, 4, 6, 8, 3, 10, 8, 10, 4, 12, 31?

      Your Answer: 7

      Explanation:

      We obtain 3, 4, 4, 6, 8, 8, 10, 11, 12, and 31, and sample size (n) = 11 when we order the data. [(n+1)/2] = median 6th value = (11+1)/2 = [(n+1)/4] represents the bottom (first) quartile. (3rd value = 4th value = (11 + 1)/4 3[(n+1)/4] for the top (third) quartile 3[(11 + 1)/4] = 9th value = 11th value = 11th value = 11th value = 11th value = 11th value = 11th value = 11th value = 11th The difference between the upper and lower quartiles is the interquartile range, which is equal to 11 minus 4 = 7.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Through which of the following anatomical structures does an indirect inguinal hernia pass?...

    Incorrect

    • Through which of the following anatomical structures does an indirect inguinal hernia pass?

      Your Answer: Internal oblique

      Correct Answer: External oblique

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernias are subdivided into direct and indirect.

      An indirect hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the internal inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. This occurs lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The hernia contents may extend into the scrotum.

      A direct inguinal hernia is protrusion of abdominal contents through the transversalis fascia within Hesselbach’s triangle. The borders of Hesselbach’s triangle are the inferior epigastric vessels superolaterally, the rectus sheath medially, and inguinal ligament inferiorly.

      The deep (internal) inguinal ring is located above and halfway between the pubic tubercle and the anterior superior iliac spine. This serves as the entrance to the inguinal canal. The superficial (external) inguinal ring lies immediately above and medial to the pubic tubercle. This triangular opening is a defect in the external oblique aponeurosis, and forms the exit of the inguinal canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      22.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (0/4) 0%
Upper Limb (0/2) 0%
General Pathology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Head And Neck (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/1) 100%
Statistics (1/1) 100%
Abdomen And Pelvis (0/1) 0%
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