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  • Question 1 - A 30-year old lady was admitted to the general surgical ward after a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old lady was admitted to the general surgical ward after a diagnosis of perforation of the first part of the duodenum that resulted from a long standing ulcer. If this perforation led to the expulsion of the gastric content that resulted to the erosion of an artery found in this part of the duodenum (the posterior of the first part of the duodenum). Which of the following arteries is this most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal

      Explanation:

      The proximal part of the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery. This artery is found descending behind the first part of the duodenum after branching from the hepatic artery. If gastric content was to be expelled in the posterior portion of the first part of the duodenum, then this artery would be most likely to be damaged. The common hepatic artery and the left gastric artery are branches of the coeliac trunk that are found superior to the duodenum. The proper hepatic artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery also found superior to the duodenum. The superior mesenteric artery is found behind the pancreas as a branch of the aorta that is at the bottom of the L1 level. The right gastric artery arises above the pylorus from the proper hepatic artery and supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach. The intestinal arteries supply the ileum and the jejunum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A previously healthy 40-year-old housewife suddenly complains of a headache and loses consciousness....

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 40-year-old housewife suddenly complains of a headache and loses consciousness. A CT scan reveals subarachnoid haemorrhage. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Ruptured berry aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Saccular aneurysms, also known as berry aneurysms, appear as a round outpouching and are the most common form of cerebral aneurysm. They are a congenital intracranial defect, and haemorrhage can occur at any age, but is most common between the ages of 40-65 years. A second rupture (rebleeding) sometimes occurs, most often within about 7 days of the first bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it...

    Correct

    • What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it emerges from the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer: Extension of the thigh would be the action most affected

      Explanation:

      As the inferior gluteal nerve emerges from the greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis muscle, it divides into branches and enters the gluteus maximus muscle which extends the femur and bends the thigh in line with the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral...

    Correct

    • In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral artery located?

      Your Answer: Lateral compartment

      Explanation:

      The femoral sheath also known as the crural sheath is made up of three compartments; lateral, intermediate and the medial. The femoral artery is contained in the lateral compartment of the femoral sheath while the femoral vein is in the intermediate compartment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm...

    Incorrect

    • An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. The patient, however, does not complain of any symptoms. Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery is rarely symptomatic because its territory is supplied by branches of the:

      Your Answer: Ileocolic artery

      Correct Answer: Middle colic artery

      Explanation:

      The transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery which is a branch from the superior mesenteric artery. If the inferior mesenteric artery was occluded, branches from the middle colic may go to the marginal artery which supplies the descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum.. Ileocolic and right colic arteries also branch from the superior mesenteric artery that supply the colon but the middle colic, which serves the more distal part of the colon is the better answer. The gastroduodenal artery branches off the common hepatic artery, which supplies part of the duodenum, pancreas and stomach. The splenic artery supplies the spleen, pancreas and curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A CT-scan of the lung shows a tumour crossing the minor (horizontal) fissure....

    Incorrect

    • A CT-scan of the lung shows a tumour crossing the minor (horizontal) fissure. This fissure separates:

      Your Answer: The lower lobe from both the middle and upper lobes

      Correct Answer: The middle lobe from the upper lobe

      Explanation:

      The horizontal fissure separates the upper lobe from the middle lobe. The oblique fissure on the other hand separates the lower lobe from both the middle and upper lobes. The lingula is found only on the left lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An old man presented with atrophy of the thenar eminence despite the sensation...

    Correct

    • An old man presented with atrophy of the thenar eminence despite the sensation over it still being intact. What is the injured nerve in this case?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Atrophy of the thenar muscles means injury to the motor supply of these muscles. The nerve that sends innervation to it is the median nerve. But the median nerve does not provide sensory innervation to the overlying skin so sensation is spared.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A neurotransmitter of the nigrostriatal pathway is: ...

    Correct

    • A neurotransmitter of the nigrostriatal pathway is:

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Dopamine acts as a neurotransmitter in the brain, activating dopamine receptors. It is also a neurohormone released from the hypothalamus. It plays an important role in the reward system. It is believed that dopamine provides a teaching signal to parts of the brain responsible for acquiring new motor sequences (behaviours), by activation of dopamine neurons when an unexpected reward is presented. Loss of dopamine neurones in the nigrostriatal pathway causes Parkinson’s disease. In the frontal lobes, dopamine controls the flow of information from other areas of the brain, and thus, dopamine disorders in this region can cause a decline in neurocognitive functions, especially memory, attention and problem solving. Reduced dopamine concentrations in the prefrontal cortex are thought to contribute to attention-deficit disorder and some symptoms of schizophrenia. Dopamine is also the primary neuroendocrine regulator of the secretion of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland. Dopamine is also commonly associated with the pleasure system of the brain. This plays a key role in understanding the mechanism of action of drugs (such as cocaine and the amphetamines), which seem to be directly or indirectly related to the increase of dopamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following will be affected by a lesion in the posterior...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will be affected by a lesion in the posterior column-medial lemniscus system?

      Your Answer: Fine touch

      Explanation:

      The posterior column–medial lemniscus (PCML) pathway is a sensory pathway that transmits fine touch and conscious proprioceptive information from the body to the brain. As the posterior columns are also known as dorsal columns, the pathway is also called the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system or DCML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45 year old female had a stroke and was diagnosed with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old female had a stroke and was diagnosed with a homonymous hemianopsia. Which of the following structures was likely affected?

      Your Answer: Optic nerve

      Correct Answer: Optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Hemianopia or hemianopsia, is the loss of vision of half of the eye or loss of half the visual field. Homonymous hemianopia is the loss of vision or blindness on half of the same side of both eyes (visual field) – either both lefts of the eyes or both rights of the eyes. This condition is mainly caused by cerebrovascular accidents like a stroke that affects the optic radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular teeth and bone:

      Your Answer: Buccal nerve

      Correct Answer: Inferior alveolar nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior alveolar nerve (sometimes called the inferior dental nerve) is a branch of the mandibular nerve, which is itself the third branch of the trigeminal nerve. The inferior alveolar nerves supply sensation to the lower teeth of the mandible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient gives a history of dull discomfort in her abdomen associated with...

    Correct

    • A patient gives a history of dull discomfort in her abdomen associated with pain that she points to be on her right shoulder and right scapula. The following organs are most likely to be source of her pain:

      Your Answer: Liver, duodenum and gallbladder

      Explanation:

      Referred pain is felt at a point away from the source of the pain or the unpleasant sensation. It arises when a nerve is damaged or compressed at a point but the pain is felt at another site that is the territory of that nerve. Common abdominal causes of referred pain to the shoulder and the shoulder blade are the liver, duodenum and gall bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The left lateral pterygoid muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. When...

    Correct

    • The left lateral pterygoid muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible towards which direction?

      Your Answer: Laterally, to the right

      Explanation:

      The lateral pterygoid or external pterygoid is a muscle of mastication with two heads. It lies superiorly to the medial pterygoid. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible laterally and to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that: ...

    Correct

    • A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that:

      Your Answer: It only occurs during voluntary movements

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar disease leads to intention tremors, which is absent at rest and appears at the onset of voluntary movements. In comparison, Parkinson’s tremor is present at rest. Frequency of tremor is a less reliable means to differentiate between the two as the oscillation amplitude of the tremor is not constant throughout a voluntary action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The following joint has an anastomotic circulation that is provided by branches of...

    Correct

    • The following joint has an anastomotic circulation that is provided by branches of the brachial artery:

      Your Answer: Elbow joint

      Explanation:

      The arterial anastomoses of the elbow joint is contributed by branches of the brachial artery and the Profunda brachii artery. The brachial artery gives off the superior ulnar collateral artery and the inferior collateral artery. On the other hand, the Profunda brachii gives off the radial and medial recurrent arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are asked to help a junior medical student studying anatomy to identify...

    Correct

    • You are asked to help a junior medical student studying anatomy to identify the left lung. Which of the following features found only in the left lung will you use the identify it?

      Your Answer: Cardiac notch

      Explanation:

      Oblique fissure: is found on both the left and the right lungs. It separates the upper from the lower lobes in both lungs and the middle lobe from the lower lobe in the right lung(which has three lobes.)

      The superior lobar bronchus is found in both lungs.

      Cardiac notch: found only on the left lung.

      Horizontal fissure: a deep groove separating the middle lobe from the upper lobe of the right lung is absent on the left lung.

      Diaphragmatic surface: refers to the part of the lung, both the left and the right, that is in contact with the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is a large artery that runs immediately posterior to...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a large artery that runs immediately posterior to the stomach?

      Your Answer: Splenic

      Explanation:

      The splenic artery is the large artery that would be found running off the posterior wall of the stomach. It is a branch of the coeliac trunk and sends off branches to the pancreas before reaching the spleen. The gastroduodenal artery on the other hand is found inferior to the stomach, posterior to the first portion of the duodenum. The left gastroepiploic artery runs from the left to the right of the greater curvature of the stomach. The common hepatic artery runs on the superior aspect of the lesser curvature of the stomach, and is a branch of the coeliac trunk. The superior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta just below the junction of the coeliac trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A machine worker fractured the medial epicondyle of his right humerus resulting in...

    Incorrect

    • A machine worker fractured the medial epicondyle of his right humerus resulting in damage to an artery running with the ulnar nerve posterior to the medial epicondyle. The artery injured is the?

      Your Answer: Middle collateral

      Correct Answer: Superior ulnar collateral

      Explanation:

      The superior ulnar collateral artery runs posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus, accompanied by the ulnar nerve. This artery arises from the brachial artery near the middle of the arm and ends under the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle by anastomosing with two arteries: the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Identify which of the following muscles acts on two joints? ...

    Incorrect

    • Identify which of the following muscles acts on two joints?

      Your Answer: Vastus medialis

      Correct Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The sartorius muscle, the longest muscle in the body, is one of the two jointed or biarticular muscles. It originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and part of the notch between the anterior superior iliac spine and anterior inferior iliac spine and crosses both the hip joint and the knee joint. At the hip joint the sartorius flexes and rotates the thigh at the hip joint and flexes the leg at the knee joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The prostatic plexus of nerves contains nerve fibres that innervate penile tissue allowing...

    Incorrect

    • The prostatic plexus of nerves contains nerve fibres that innervate penile tissue allowing for erection. From which of the following nerves do these fibres originate?

      Your Answer: Pudendal

      Correct Answer: Pelvic splanchnics

      Explanation:

      Pelvic splanchnic nerves are examples of the parasympathetic nerves that innervate the smooth muscle and glands of the pelvic viscera. They are also the nerves contributing fibres to the prostatic plexus which innervate penile erectile tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 46 -year old patient diagnosed with chronic rhinosinusitis, was to undergo surgery...

    Correct

    • A 46 -year old patient diagnosed with chronic rhinosinusitis, was to undergo surgery to improve drainage from his frontal sinus to the nose. Which is a route that one would take to enter into the frontal sinus through the nasal cavity?

      Your Answer: Middle meatus

      Explanation:

      The middle meatus is a nasal passageway located inferior to the middle concha and superior to the inferior concha. On the superior aspect of this meatus is a bulge produced by the middle ethmoidal cells known as the bulla ethmoidalis. Below this bulge is a curved fissure, the hiatus semilunaris, which is also bordered inferiorly by the edge of the uncinate process of the ethmoid. It is through this curved fissure, hiatus semilunaris, that the middle meatus communicates with the frontal sinus. It first forms a communication with a curved passage way known as the infundibulum. The infundibulum anteriorly communicates with the anterior ethmoidal cells and continues upward as the frontonasal duct into the frontal sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of...

    Correct

    • The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of the spinal cord?

      Your Answer: C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1

      Explanation:

      THE correct answer is A. The posterior cord derives its fibres from the spinal nerves C5,C6,C7,C8,T1. This cord is formed from the fusion of the posterior divisions of the upper, lower, and middle trunks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery...

    Correct

    • In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery that has the same name. Which of the following listed veins doesn't run parallel to the artery of the same name?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric vein don’t run in tandem because the vein is part of the portal venous system-draining into the splenic vein which drains into the hepatic portal vein. The inferior mesenteric artery is a branch of the descending aorta at the level of L3. The inferior mesenteric vein and artery, however, drain the same region i.e. the descending and sigmoid colon and rectum.

      Superior epigastric vessels course together and are the continuation of the internal thoracic artery and vein.

      Superficial circumflex iliac vessels course together in the superficial fat of the abdominal wall.

      Superior rectal vessels are the terminal ends of the inferior mesenteric vessels, located on the posterior surface of the rectum.

      The ileocolic artery and vein are branches off the superior mesenteric vessels. Both course in the mesentery, supplying/draining the caecum, appendix, terminal portion of the ileum. The inferior epigastric vessels run together.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - During an operation to repair an aortic coarctation in a neonate, a surgeon...

    Incorrect

    • During an operation to repair an aortic coarctation in a neonate, a surgeon accidentally cuts the first aortic intercostal arteries as he mobilised the descending aorta. Which one of the following structure might be deprived of its primary source of blood supply following this injury?

      Your Answer: First anterior intercostal space

      Correct Answer: Right bronchus

      Explanation:

      The right bronchus is supplied by one right bronchial artery that may branch from one of the left bronchial arteries or from the right 3rd posterior intercostal artery (this is the first intercostal artery that arises from the aorta). Damage to this artery might stop blood supply to the main bronchus. Intercostal arteries that go to the first and the second interspaces originate from the highest intercostal artery such that blood supply to either of these spaces would not be interfered with.

      The left bronchus receives blood from 2 left bronchial arteries which are direct branches from the descending aorta.

      Fibrous pericardium is the sac that contains the heart. Its blood supply is not a major concern.

      Visceral pericardium receives its blood supply from the coronary vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Gastrocnemius, semimembranosus and semitendinosus together with which other muscle form the boundaries of...

    Correct

    • Gastrocnemius, semimembranosus and semitendinosus together with which other muscle form the boundaries of the popliteal fossa?

      Your Answer: Biceps femoris

      Explanation:

      The popliteal fossa is located at the back of the knee. It is bounded laterally by the biceps femoris above and the plantaris and lateral head of the gastrocnemius below and medially by the semitendinosus and semimembranosus above and by the medial head of the gastrocnemius below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which...

    Correct

    • A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which is the LEAST likely place to find the testis?

      Your Answer: Perineum

      Explanation:

      Embryologically the testes are retroperitoneal structures in the posterior abdominal wall, attached to the anterolateral abdominal wall by the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum ‘pulls’ the testes through the deep inguinal ring, inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring and over the pelvic brim. The gubernaculum is preceded by the processus vaginalis that is derived from the peritoneum anterior to the testes. The processus vaginalis pushes the muscle and fascial layers. These eventually make up the canal and the spermatic cord, into the scrotum. The gubernaculum persists as the scrotal ligament while part of the processus vaginalis remains as a bursa-like sac i.e. the tunica vaginalis testes. The testes therefore could be caught in any one of these places along its path of descending. The testes are never in the perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The middle meningeal artery is the largest among the arteries that supplies that...

    Correct

    • The middle meningeal artery is the largest among the arteries that supplies that dura mater of the brain. The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the?

      Your Answer: Maxillary artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supply the meninges.

      The middle meningeal artery is a large arterial branch of the maxillary artery which is a terminal branch of the external carotid artery. Upon originating, the middle meningeal artery passes through the foramen spinosum. In the skull, it courses in the middle cranial fossa where it provides several branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - During an exploratory laparotomy in a 22 year-old man shot in the abdomen,...

    Correct

    • During an exploratory laparotomy in a 22 year-old man shot in the abdomen, the operating doctor discovers the large bowel is perforated. Which of the following characteristics of the bowel enabled the surgeon to identify it as the large bowel?

      Your Answer: Epiploic appendages

      Explanation:

      The large intestine doesn’t have a continuous layer of longitudinal muscle. Instead, it has three strips of longitudinal muscle called taenia coli. The large intestine is covered with omental appendages that are fat filled. It is also folded into sacculations called haustrations. Serosa is a general term for the outermost coat or serous layer of a visceral structure that lies in the body cavities of the abdomen or thorax.

      Complete circular folds are only found in the small intestine.

      Valvulae conniventes or valves of Kerckring are the circular folds which are large valvular flaps projecting into the lumen of the small bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect: ...

    Correct

    • Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect:

      Your Answer: Initiation of abduction of the humerus

      Explanation:

      This muscle arises from the medial two-thirds of the supraspinatus fossa and from the supraspinatus fascia. It is inserted into the highest impression on the greater tubercle of the humerus after passing over the upper part of the shoulder joint. It works with the deltoid to raise the arm from the side of the trunk and initiate abduction. It also assists in fixation of the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Choose the most correct answer regarding the common peroneal nerve. ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the most correct answer regarding the common peroneal nerve.

      Your Answer: While part of the sciatic nerve, it innervates nothing in the posterior thigh

      Correct Answer: It gives rise to the nerve that supplies the anterior compartment leg muscles

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal nerve divides beneath the peroneus longus muscle and gives off articular and lateral sural cutaneous nerves which supply muscular branches to the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg which are the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum, peroneus tertius and extensor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      21.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Abdomen (6/7) 86%
Anatomy (17/26) 65%
Neurology (4/4) 100%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (3/5) 60%
Thorax (1/3) 33%
Upper Limb (4/5) 80%
Physiology (3/3) 100%
Head & Neck (3/5) 60%
Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Passmed