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Question 1
Correct
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Out of the following, which artery is NOT a branch of the hepatic artery?
Your Answer: Pancreatic artery
Explanation:The common hepatic artery arises from the celiac artery and has the following branches:
1. hepatic artery proper that branches into –
a. cystic artery to supply the gallbladder
b. left and right hepatic arteries to supply the liver
2. gastroduodenal artery that branches into
a. right gastroepiploic artery
b. superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
3. right gastric arteryThe pancreatic artery is a branch of the splenic artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Correct
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All of the following statements are true about blood clotting except:
Your Answer: Administration of aprotinin during liver transplantation surgery prolongs survival
Explanation:Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
Minor role in clotting
Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
Factor 12 activates Factor 11
Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 102. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
In tissue damage:
Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 103. Common pathway
Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.4. Fibrinolysis
Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following derived SI units is correctly expressed as their base units?
Your Answer: Volt: m2.kg.s-3.A-1
Explanation:The following units are derived SI units of measurement.
Energy or work: kg.m2.s-2
The Joule (J) is the energy transferred to an object when a force of one newton acts on that object in the direction of its motion through a distance of one meter or N.m.Power: kg.m2.s-3
The Watt (W) = rate of transfer of energy or Joule per second J/s.Force: kg.m.s-2
One Newton (N) which is the international unit of measure for force = 1 kilogram meter per second squared. 1 Newton of force is the force required to accelerate an object with a mass of 1 kilogram 1 meter per second per second.Volt: kg.m2.s-3.A-1
The volt (V) is defined as the potential difference across a conductor when a current of one ampere dissipates one watt of power or W/A.Pressure: kg.m-1.s-2
A pascal (Pa) is force per unit area or N/m2. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following, at a given PaO2, increases the oxygen content of arterial blood?
Your Answer: Hypercarbia
Correct Answer: A reduced erythrocyte 2,3-diphosphoglycerate level
Explanation:The oxygen content of arterial blood can be calculated by the following equation:
(10 x haemoglobin x SaO2 x 1.34) + (PaO2 x 0.0225).
This is the sum of the oxygen bound to haemoglobin and the oxygen dissolved in the plasma.Oxygen content x cardiac output = The amount of oxygen delivered to the tissues in unit time which is known as the oxygen flux.
Any factor that increases the metabolic demand will encourage oxygen offloading from the haemoglobin in the tissues and this causes the oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) to shift to the right. This subsequently reduced the oxygen content of arterial blood.
Conditions like fever, metabolic or respiratory acidosis lowers the oxygen content and shifts the ODC to the right.
A low level of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is usually related to an increased oxygen content as there is less offloading, and so the ODC is shifted to the left.So for a given PaO2, a high blood oxygen content is related to any factors that can shift the ODC to the left and not to the right.
A low haematocrit usually means that there is a decreased haemoglobin concentration, and therefore is associated with decreased oxygen binding to haemoglobin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium?
Your Answer: Has a bisquaternary amino-steroid structure
Correct Answer: Has a similar structure to rocuronium
Explanation:Vecuronium is used as a part of general anaesthesia to provide skeletal muscle relaxation during surgery or mechanical ventilation. It is a monoquaternary aminosteroid (not quaternary) non- depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug.
It has a structure similar to both rocuronium and pancuronium. The only difference is the substitution of specific groups on the steroid structure.
Vecuronium is not associated with the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve endings. However, Pancuronium has norepinephrine releasing the property.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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About the mechanism of action of bendroflumethiazide, Which of the following is correct?
Your Answer: Sodium-potassium-chloride symporter activator
Correct Answer: Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor
Explanation:Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor.
The thiazide sensitive sodium chloride symporter is inhibited by thiazides at the proximal portion of the distal convoluted tubule leading to increased sodium and water excretion. Increased delivery of sodium to the distal portion of the distal convoluted tubule promotes potassium loss. This is why thiazides are associated with hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used mainly in the treatment of glaucoma. They act on the proximal convoluted tubule to promote bicarbonate, sodium and potassium loss.
Sodium potassium chloride symporter is inhibited by Loop diuretics.
Epithelial sodium channels are inhibited by Amiloride.
Drugs which lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus such as lithium and demeclocycline, are Inhibitors of vasopressin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman admitted following a tonsillectomy has developed stridor with a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and obstructive movements of the chest and abdomen that is in a see-saw pattern .
Her SpO2 is 92% on 60% oxygen with pulse rate 120 beats per minute while her blood pressure is 180/90mmHg. She is repeatedly trying to remove the oxygen mask and appears anxious.
Her pharynx is suctioned and CPAP applied with 100% oxygen via a Mapleson C circuit.
Which of these is the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer: Administer intravenous propofol 0.5 mg/kg
Explanation:Continuous closure of the vocal cords resulting in partial or complete airway obstruction is called Laryngospasm. It is a reflex that helps protect against pulmonary aspiration.
Predisposing factors include: Hyperactive airway disease, Insufficient depth of anaesthesia, Inexperience of the anaesthetist, Airway irritation, Smoking, Shared airway surgery and Paediatric patients
Its primary treatment includes checking for blood or stomach aspirate in the pharynx, removing any triggering stimulation, relieving any possible supra-glottic component to airway obstruction and application of CPAP with 100% oxygen.
In this patient, all the above has been done and the next treatment of choice is the administration of a rapidly acting intravenous anaesthetic agent such as propofol (0.5 mg/kg) in increments as it has been reported to relieve laryngospasm in approximately 75% of cases. Administering suxamethonium to an awake patient would be inappropriate at this stage.
Magnesium and lidocaine are used for prevention rather than acute treatment of laryngospasm. Superior laryngeal nerve blocks have been reported to successfully treat recurrent laryngospasm but it is not the next logical step in index patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with superior vena cava obstruction. What is the number of collateral circulations that exist for alternate pathways for venous return?
Your Answer: One
Correct Answer: Four
Explanation:Superior vena cava is the main vein bringing blood back to the heart. It can get partially or completely blocked by various causes, the most common being due to malignant tumours of the mediastinum.
There are collateral pathways that form in long-standing cases with 60% or more stenosis and continue venous drainage in cases of superior vena obstruction. The collaterals are classified into four as follows:
1. The azygos-hemiazygos pathway
Azygos, hemiazygos, intercostal, and lumbar veins.2. The internal and external mammary pathway
internal mammary, superior epigastric, and inferior epigastric veins and superficial veins of the thorax.3. The lateral thoracic pathway
Lateral thoracic, thoracoepigastric, superficial circumflex, long saphenous, and femoral veins to collateralize to the IVC.4. The vertebral pathway
Innominate, vertebral, intercostal, lumbar, and sacral veins to collateralize to the azygos and internal mammary pathways. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old female has presented to her physician with complaints of a lump in her groin area. The lump is painless and is more prominent in coughing.
On examination, the lump's location is inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle. This points towards the diagnosis of femoral hernia, where part of her intestines has entered the femoral canal, causing a bulge in the femoral triangle. The femoral triangle is an anatomical region in the upper thigh.
Name the structures found in the femoral triangle, laterally to medially.Your Answer: Lymphatics, empty space, femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve
Correct Answer: Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space, lymphatics
Explanation:The femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped area found within the superomedial aspect of the anterior thigh. It is a passageway for structures to leave and enter the anterior thigh.
Superior: Inguinal ligament
Medial: Adductor longus
Lateral: Sartorius
Floor: Iliopsoas, adductor longus and pectineusThe contents include: (medial to lateral)
Femoral vein
Femoral artery-pulse palpated at the mid inguinal point
Femoral nerve
Deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Lateral cutaneous nerve
Great saphenous vein
Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Correct
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Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck?
Your Answer: Internal jugular vein
Explanation:The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.
The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
posteriorly – trapezius
roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene musclesThe contents of the posterior triangle are:
1. fat
2. lymph nodes (level V)
3. accessory nerve
4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
5. inferior belly of omohyoid
6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
7. third part of the subclavian artery
8. external jugular vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 11
Incorrect
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One of two divisions of the autonomic nervous system is the sympathetic nervous system. It is both anatomically and physiologically different from the parasympathetic nervous system.
Which best describes the anatomical layout of the sympathetic nervous system?Your Answer: Long myelinated preganglionic neurones from T1-L5 in lateral horns of grey matter of spinal cord, synapse in sympathetic ganglia (neurotransmitter - acetyl choline), short unmyelinated postganglionic neurones, synapse with effector organ (neurotransmitter - adrenaline or noradrenaline)
Correct Answer: Short myelinated preganglionic neurones from T1-L5 in lateral horns of grey matter of spinal cord, synapse in sympathetic ganglia (neurotransmitter - acetyl choline), long unmyelinated postganglionic neurones, synapse with effector organ (neurotransmitter - adrenaline or noradrenaline)
Explanation:The autonomic nervous system is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. They are anatomically and physiologically different.
The sympathetic nervous system arises from the thoracolumbar outflow (T1-L5 ) at the lateral horns of grey matter of the spinal cord. Their preganglionic neurones are usually short myelinated and synapse in ganglia lateral to the vertebral column and have acetyl choline (Ach) as the neurotransmitter. Their postganglionic neurones are longer and unmyelinated and synapse with effector organ where the neurotransmitter is either adrenaline or noradrenaline.
The outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system is craniosacral. The cranial part originates from the midbrain and medulla (cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X) and the sacral outflow is from S2, S3 and S4. Their preganglionic neurones are usually long myelinated and synapse in ganglia close to the target organ and has Ach as its neurotransmitter. The unmyelinated postganglionic neurones is shorter and they synapse with effector organ. The neurotransmitter here is also Ach.
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholinergic. Only the postganglionic parasympathetic neurons are cholinergic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Regarding renal autoregulation, which of the following best describes its process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduces the effect of changes in arterial blood pressure on renal Na+ excretion
Explanation:Two mechanisms are responsible for autoregulation of RBF and GFR: one mechanism that responds to changes in arterial pressure and another that responds to changes in [NaCl] in tubular fluid. Both regulate the tone of the afferent arteriole. The pressure-sensitive mechanism, the so-called myogenic mechanism, is related to an intrinsic property of vascular smooth muscle: the tendency to contract when stretched. Accordingly, when arterial pressure rises and the renal afferent arteriole is stretched, the smooth muscle contracts in response. Because the increase in resistance of the arteriole offsets the increase in pressure, RBF, and therefore GFR, remains constant.
The second mechanism responsible for autoregulation of GFR and RBF is the [NaCl]-dependent mechanism known as tubuloglomerular feedback. This mechanism involves a feedback loop in which a change in GFR leads to alteration in the concentration of NaCl in tubular fluid, which is sensed by the macula densa of the juxtaglomerular apparatus and converted into signals that affect afferent arteriolar resistance and thus the GFR (Fig. 33.19). For example, when the GFR increases and causes [NaCl] in tubular fluid in the loop of Henle to rise, more NaCl enters the macula densa cells in this segment (Fig. 33.20). This leads to an increase in formation and release of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and adenosine (a metabolite of ATP) by macula densa cells, which causes vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole and normalization of GFR. In contrast, when GFR and [NaCl] in tubule fluid decrease, less NaCl enters the macula densa cells, and both ATP and adenosine production and release decline. The fall in [ATP] and [adenosine] results in afferent arteriolar vasodilation, which returns GFR to normal. NO, a vasodilator produced by the macula densa, attenuates tubuloglomerular feedback, whereas angiotensin II enhances tubuloglomerular feedback. Thus the macula densa may release both vasoconstrictors (e.g., ATP and adenosine) and a vasodilator (e.g., NO) that oppose each other’s action at the level of the afferent arteriole. Production plus release of either vasoconstrictors or vasodilators ensures exquisite control over tubuloglomerular feedback.
Renal autoregulation, thus, reduces the effect of changes in arterial blood pressure on renal sodium excretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which among the given choices can be used to describe a persistent and expected level of disease in a particular population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endemic
Explanation:Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man got operated on for carotid endarterectomy for his carotid artery disease. He is recovering well post-surgery. However, on follow-up in the ward, he has hoarseness of his voice.
Which of the following explains the hoarseness?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Damage to the vagus
Explanation:During carotid endarterectomy, injury to the vagus nerve or its branches can cause hoarseness. Injury to the vagus nerve can result in adductor vocal cord paralysis. It can also cause other symptoms like dysphagia or even vocal cord immobility.
Carotid endarterectomy is the procedure to relieve an obstruction in the carotid artery by opening the artery at its origin and stripping off the atherosclerotic plaque with the intima. Because of the internal carotid artery relations, there is a risk of cranial nerve injury during the procedure involving one or more of the following nerves: CN IX, CN X (or its branch, the superior laryngeal nerve), CN XI, or CN XII.
However, only damage to the vagus would account for speech difficulties.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What can you see within the tunica media of a blood vessel on examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smooth muscle
Explanation:The blood vessel well is divided into 3 parts, namely:
The tunica intima, which is the deepest layer. It contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions
The tunica media, primarily consisting of the involuntary smooth muscle fibres, laid out in spiral layers with elastic fibres and connective tissue.
The tunica adventitia, which is the most superficial layer. It consists of the vasa vasorum, fibroblast and collagen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 77-year-old woman is scheduled for day case cataract surgery under local anaesthesia. She has no cardiac or respiratory problems. Lisinopril is being used to treat her hypertension, which is under control.
Which of the following preoperative investigations are the most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No investigations
Explanation:Because the patient has mild systemic disease, he is ASA 2 and the procedure will be performed under local anaesthesia.
The following factors should be considered when requesting preoperative investigations:
Indications derived from a preliminary clinical examination
Whether or not a general anaesthetic will be used, the possibility of asymptomatic abnormalities, and the scope of the surgery.No special investigations are needed if the patient has no history of significant systemic disease and no abnormal findings on examination during the nurse-led assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 17
Incorrect
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When an inotrope is given to the body, it has the following effects on the cardiovascular system:
The automaticity of the sino-atrial node increases
Lusitropy is accelerated
Dromotropy is increased
Chronotropy is increased
Inotropy increases
There is increased excitability of the conducting system
The most probably mechanism of action of this compound is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase in intracellular calcium influenced by a conformational change of a Gs protein
Explanation:A beta-1 adrenoreceptor agonist is most likely the ligand that causes increased automaticity, increased chronotropy, increased excitability, and increased inotropy on the sino-atrial node. However, alpha-1 adrenoreceptor effects may cause an increase in systemic vascular resistance. Noradrenaline, adrenaline, dopamine, and ephedrine are examples of drugs with mixed alpha and beta effects.
Adrenaline, noradrenaline, dopamine, dopexamine, dobutamine, ephedrine, and isoprenaline are examples of drugs that have some beta-1 activity. The beta-1 receptor is a G protein-coupled metabotropic receptor. When the beta-1 agonist binds to the cell surface membrane, it causes a conformational change in the Gs unit, which triggers a cAMP-dependent pathway and a calcium influx into the cell.
Catecholamines also help to relax the heart muscle (positive lusitropy). Dromotropy is the ability to increase the atrioventricular (AV) node’s conduction velocity.
Inodilators cause an increase in intracellular calcium as a result of phosphodiesterase III (PDIII) inhibition. Milrinone, enoximone, and amrinone are some examples. Positive inotropy is caused by increased calcium entry into the myocytes. Lusitropy is also increased by phosphodiesterase inhibitors. Increased cAMP inhibits myosin light chain kinase, resulting in reduced phosphorylation of vascular smooth muscle myosin, lowering systemic and pulmonary vascular resistance.
The mechanism of action of alpha-1 adrenoreceptor agonists is an increase in intracellular calcium caused by an increase in inositol triphosphate (IP3). IP3 is a second messenger that causes an increase in systemic vascular resistance by stimulating the influx of Ca2+ into smooth muscle cells. Reflex bradycardia can occur as a result of the subsequent increase in blood pressure. Phenylephrine and metaraminol are examples of pure alpha-1 agonists.
Levosimendin is a novel inotrope that makes myocytes more sensitive to intracellular Ca2+. It causes a positive inotropy without changing heart rate or oxygen consumption significantly.
The Na-K-ATPase membrane pump in the myocardium is inhibited by digoxin. This inhibition promotes sodium-calcium exchange, resulting in an increase in intracellular Ca2+ and increased contraction force. The parasympathetic effects of digoxin on the AV node result in bradycardia. Systemic vascular resistance will not be affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Standard error of the mean can be defined as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Standard deviation / square root (number of patients)
Explanation:The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
SEM = SD / square root (n)
where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Concerning the intercostal nerves, which one of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Each is connected to a ganglion of the sympathetic trunk
Explanation:The intercostal nerves arise from the ventral rami of the first 11 thoracic spinal nerves. they course along the costal groove on the lower margin of the rib.
The twelfth intercoastal nerve is called the subcostal nerve. This is because it is below the 12th rib.
Each intercostal nerve is connected to a ganglion of the sympathetic trunk from which it carries preganglionic and postganglionic fibres that innervate blood vessels, sweat glands, and muscles.
The lateral and medial pectoral nerves innervates pectoralis major muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 26-year old man is admitted to the high dependency unit following an external fixation of a pelvic fracture sustained in a road traffic accident earlier in the day. Additionally, he has stable L2/L4 vertebral fractures but no other injuries.
He is a known intravenous drug abuser currently on 200 mg heroin per day. He has been admitted for observations postop and pain control. He has regular paracetamol and NSAIDs prescribed.
Which is the most appropriate postoperative pain regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PCA morphine alone with background infusion
Explanation:With a history of drug abuse, the patient is likely dependent on and tolerant to opioids. He is also likely to experience significant pain from his injuries. Providing adequate pain relief with regular paracetamol and NSAIDs in combination with a pure opioid agonist while at the same time avoiding occurrence of acute withdrawal syndrome is the goal.
Administering a baseline dose of opioid corresponding to the patient’s usual opioid use plus an opioid dose required to address the level of pain the patient experience can help prevent opioid withdrawal. The best approach is by empowering the patient to use patient controlled analgesia (PCA). The infusion rate, bolus dose and lock-out time are adjusted accordingly. Using PCA helps in avoiding staff/patient confrontations about dose and dosing interval.
2.5 mg heroin is equivalent to 3.3 mg morphine. This patient is usually on 200 mg of heroin per 24 hours. The equivalent dose of morphine is 80 × 3.3 =254 mg per 24 hours (11 mg/hour).
Epidural or spinal opioids might be the best choice for providing a systemic dose of opioids when patients are in remission to avoid withdrawal. Lumbar vertebral fractures is a contraindication to this route of analgesia.
The long half life of Oral methadone make titration to response difficult. Also, absorption of methadone by the gastrointestinal tract is variable. It is therefore NOT the best choice for acute pain management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 68-year old man, is admitted in hospital. He is scheduled to undergo a femoro-popliteal bypass graft, for which he has been administered a spinal-epidural anaesthetic. Intrathecal heavy bupivacaine (0.5%) was injected at L3-4 with good effect. On insertion of the epidural catheter, he remained asymptomatic.
During surgery, 5000 I.U. of IV heparin was given. The surgery is successful and required no epidural top-ups.
Six hours later, he complains of a severe back pain with weakness in his lower limbs.
What is the most important first step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A full neurological examination to establish the nature of the problem
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is a spinal epidural haematoma, a neurological emergency. A full examination must be carried out to determine the nature of the neurological problem before conducting any investigations or imaging.
The effects of spinal anaesthesia should have worn off by this time point, and the severe back pain is a red flag.
The patient will also require an urgent neurological team referral as a spinal epidural haematoma requires immediate evacuation for spinal decompression. Analgesics may be prescribed for pain management.
Heparin would have been fully metabolised and so a reversal is unnecessary.
A spinal epidural haematoma is a pooling of blood in the epidural space, which can cause compression of the spinal cord. Its presenting symptoms are:
Usually begins with severe backpain and percussion tenderness
Cauda equina syndrome
Paralysis of the lower extremities.
If infected, a fever occurs in 66% of cases
Lower limb weakness developing after stopping an epidural infusion or weakness of the lower limbs which does not resolve within four hours of cessation of infusion of epidural local anaesthetic
Meningism. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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The main action of atrial natriuretic peptide is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vasodilation
Explanation:Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
degraded by endopeptidases.It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A patient visits the radiology department for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan (MRI). The presence of metal implants must be ruled out prior to the scan.
In a strong magnetic field, which of the following metals is the safest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chromium
Explanation:Ferromagnetism is the property of a substance that is magnetically attracted and can be magnetised indefinitely. A material is said to be paramagnetic if it is attracted to a magnetic field. A substance is said to be diamagnetic if it is repelled by a magnetic field.
Cobalt, iron, gadolinium, neodymium, and nickel are ferromagnetic.
Gadolinium is a ferromagnetic rare earth metal that is ferromagnetic below 20 degrees Celsius (its Curie temperature). MRI scans are enhanced with gadolinium-based contrast media.
When ferromagnetic materials are exposed to a magnetic field, they can cause a variety of issues like magnetic field interactions, heating, and image artefacts.
Titanium, lead, chromium, copper, aluminium, silver, gold, and tin are non ferromagnetic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The equipment used for patient monitoring in theatre and intensive care settings have electrical safety requirements for the protection of hospital staff and patients.
Of the different classes of electrical equipment listed, which is least likely to cause a patient to suffer a microshock?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: II (CF)
Explanation:Microshock refers to ventricular fibrillation caused by miniscule amounts of currents or voltages (100-150 microamperes) passing through the myocardial tissue from external cables arising from electrical components within the cardiac muscle, for example, pacemaker electrodes or saline filled venous catheters.
The risk of shock changes with the construction of electrical equipment in question. The main classes of electrical equipment include: I: Appliances have a protective earth connected to an outer casing which prevents live elements from coming in contact with conductive elements. A fault in this equipment class will result in live elements coming in contact with the outer casing and allowing electrical flow into the protective earth. This triggers the protective fuse to disconnect the electric supply to the appliance.
II: These appliances have reinforced insulation. In the event of a fault which causes the first layer of insulation to fail, the second layer is able to prevent contact of live elements with outer casing.
III: These appliances have no insulation to provide safety, and rely solely on the use of separated extra low voltage source (SELV) which limits voltage to 25V AC or 60V DC allowing for a person to come in contact with it without risk of a shock under normal dry conditions. Under wet conditions, voltage supply should be lowered to reduce risk of shock. These devices have no risk of macroshocks, but some risk of microshocks.
Class I and II electrical appliances are further divided into subtypes developed to limit current leakage in the event of a singular fault:
B (body): Upper limit of current leakage is 500 µA. This current can cause skin tingling and microshocks, but is not sufficient to cause injury.
BF (body floating): These appliances have an isolating capacitor or transformer which separate the secondary circuit from the protective earth. The upper limit of current leakage is the same as type B.
CF (cardiac floating): Upper limit of leakage current during a singular fault is 50 microamps. It is least likely to result in a microshock -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to perform an inhalational induction because he is otherwise medically fit.
Which of the following is the most important factor in deciding which volatile anaesthetic agents to use?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The low blood:gas solubility of sevoflurane
Explanation:The ideal volatile agent for a day case surgery inhalational induction should have the following characteristics:
It has a pleasant scent that is not overpowering.
Breathing difficulties, coughing, or laryngeal spasm are not caused by this substance.
The action has a quick onset and a quick reversal.The blood:gas partition coefficient is a physicochemical property of a volatile agent that determines the onset and offset of anaesthesia. The greater an agent’s insolubility in plasma, the faster its alveolar concentration rises.
The blood gas partition coefficients of the most commonly used volatile anaesthetic agents are as follows:
Halothane 2.3
Desflurane 0.45
Sevoflurane 0.6
Nitrous oxide 0.47
Isoflurane 1.4Although halothane has a pleasant odour, it has a slower offset than sevoflurane.
Sevoflurane also has a pleasant odour and is less likely than desflurane to cause airway irritation and breath-holding.
The choice of agent for inhalational induction is unaffected by potency/lipid solubility measures such as the oil: gas partition coefficient and MAC.
In this case, an agent’s saturated vapour pressure is irrelevant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per second, what is the estimated wavelength produced if the frequency of a generated ultrasound is 10 megahertz?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.15 millimetre
Explanation:Wavelength can be computed as follows:
Wavelength = velocity/frequency
In the given problem, the values stated are:
Frequency = 10 x 10^6
Velocity = 1540 meters per secondWavelength = 1540/(10×10^6)
Wavelength = 1540/10,000,000 meters
Wavelength = 0.15 millimetres -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A new proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is being evaluated in elderly patients who are taking aspiring. Study designed has 120 patients receiving the PPI, while a control group of 240 individuals is given the standard PPI. Over a span of 6 years, 24 of the group receiving the new PPI had an upper GI bleed compared to 60 individuals who received the standard PPI.
How would you calculate the absolute risk reduction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5%
Explanation:Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate)
Experimental event rate = 24 / 120 = 0.2
Control event rate = 60 / 240 = 0.25
Absolute risk reduction = 0.25 – 0.2 = 0.05 = 5% reduction
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the percentage of values that lie within 3 standard deviations of the mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 99.70%
Explanation:99.7% of the values within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:
1. Multiply the standard error by 3.
2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.
3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.
For a confidence interval of 68%, multiply the standard error with 1 and repeat the process. For a 95% confidence interval, Standard Error is multiplied by 1.96 to get the interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Regarding the anatomical relations of the scalenus muscles, which of these is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The trunks of the brachial plexus emerge from the lateral border of scalenus anterior
Explanation:The ascending cervical artery lies media the phrenic nerve on scalenus anterior and can easily be mistaken for the phrenic nerve at operation.
The phrenic nerve passes across scalenus anterior and medius inferiorly.
The subclavian artery is separated from the vein by the scalenus anterior.
The brachiocephalic vein is formed at the medial border of scalenus anterior by the subclavian vein and the internal jugular vein.
Emerging from the lateral border of scalenus anterior are the trunks of the brachial plexus .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A double blind placebo control clinical trial is done. Which of these is correct about it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment does not know which treatment the patient has been given
Explanation:A ‘double blind crossover study’ happens when every patient receive both treatments.
It is incorrect to say that only half of the patients do not know which treatment they receive because in a double blind placebo control clinical trial ALL of the patients are blind to their treatment choice .
If some of the patients are not treated, they would be aware that they were not being treated and it could not be considered a blind trial.
In a double blind placebo control clinical trial both the clinician and the patient are blind to the treatment choice. The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment, therefore, does not know which treatment the patient has been given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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