00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - Sugammadex binds to certain drugs that affect neuromuscular function during anaesthesia in a...

    Correct

    • Sugammadex binds to certain drugs that affect neuromuscular function during anaesthesia in a stereospecific, non-covalent, and irreversible manner.

      It has the greatest impact on the activity of which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer: Vecuronium

      Explanation:

      Sugammadex is a modified cyclodextrin that works as an aminosteroid neuromuscular blocking (nmb) reversal agent. By encapsulating each molecule in the plasma, it rapidly reverses rocuronium and, to a lesser extent, vecuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade. Consequently, a  concentration gradient favours the movement of these nmb agents away from the neuromuscular junction.  Pancuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade at low levels has also been reversed.

      By inhibiting voltage-dependent calcium channels at the neuromuscular junction, antibiotics in the aminoglycoside group potentiate neuromuscular blocking agents. This can be reversed by giving calcium but not neostigmine or sugammadex.

      Sugammadex will not reverse the effects of mivacurium, which belongs to the benzylisoquinolinium class of drugs.

      A phase II or desensitisation block occurs when the motor end-plate becomes less sensitive to acetylcholine as a result of an overdose or repeated administration of suxamethonium. The use of neostigmine has been shown to be effective in reversing this weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The tip of a pulmonary artery flotation catheter becomes wedged when threaded through...

    Incorrect

    • The tip of a pulmonary artery flotation catheter becomes wedged when threaded through the chambers of the heart and the pulmonary artery.

      Which of the following options best describes the sequence of pressures measured at the catheter's tip during its passage through a normal patient's pulmonary artery?

      Your Answer: 8-12 mmHg, 12-25 mmHg, 2-25 mmHg and 0-12 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 0-12 mmHg, 2-25 mmHg, 12-25 mmHg and 8-12 mmHg

      Explanation:

      The tricuspid valve allows the tip of a pulmonary artery catheter to pass through the right atrium and into the right ventricle.

      The balloon will be inflated before crossing the pulmonary valve and entering the pulmonary artery, where it will eventually wedge or occlude the artery, providing an indirect measure of left atrial pressure.

      0-12 mmHg in the right atrium
      2-25 mmHg in the right ventricle
      12-25 mmHg in the pulmonary artery
      8-12 mmHg is the occlusion pressure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      55.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old soldier is shot in the abdomen. He has multiple injuries, including...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old soldier is shot in the abdomen. He has multiple injuries, including a major disruption to the abdominal aorta. The bleeding is torrential and needs to be controlled by placing a vascular clamp immediately inferior to the diaphragm.

      During this manoeuvre, which vessel may be injured?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior phrenic arteries

      Explanation:

      The inferior phrenic nerves are at the highest risk of damage as they are the first branches of the abdominal aorta. The potential space at the level of the diaphragmatic hiatus is a potentially useful site for aortic occlusion. However, leaving the clamp applied for more than 10 -15 minutes usually leads to poor outcomes.

      The superior phrenic artery branches from the thoracic aorta.

      The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.

      The branches of the abdominal aorta (with their vertebra level) are:
      1. Inferior phrenic arteries: T12 (upper border)
      2. Coeliac artery: T12
      3. Superior mesenteric artery: L1
      4. Middle suprarenal arteries: L1
      5. Renal arteries: Between L1 and L2
      6. Gonadal arteries: L2 (in males, it is the testicular artery, and in females, the ovarian artery)
      7. Inferior mesenteric artery: L3
      8. Median sacral artery: L4
      9. Lumbar arteries: Between L1 and L4

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of...

    Correct

    • The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of electrical safety is:

      Your Answer: A floating circuit is equipment applied to patient that is isolated from all its other parts

      Explanation:

      There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

      Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

      Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

      Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

      Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

      Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

      Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except ...

    Correct

    • All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except

      Your Answer: Potency is directly related to lipid solubility

      Explanation:

      The potency of local anaesthetics is directly proportional to lipid solubility because they need to penetrate the lipid-soluble membrane to enter the cell.

      Protein binding has a direct relationship with the duration of action because the higher the ability of the drug to bind with membrane protein, the higher is the duration of action.

      Higher the pKa of a drug, slower the onset of action. Because a drug with higher pKa will be more ionized than the one with lower pKa at a given pH. Local anaesthetics are weak bases, and unionized form diffuses more rapidly across the nerve membrane than the protonated form. As a result drugs with higher pKa will be more ionized will diffuse less across the nerve membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      66.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is the longest-acting anti-arrhythmic drug. It possesses the action of all classes of antiarrhythmic drugs (Sodium channel blockade, Beta blockade, Potassium channel blockade, and Calcium channel blockade). Due to this property, it has the widest anti-arrhythmic spectrum and thus can be used in both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia.

      Adenosine is shortest acting anti-arrhythmic drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - If a patient is to be placed under general anaesthesia using total intravenous...

    Incorrect

    • If a patient is to be placed under general anaesthesia using total intravenous technique with target-controlled infusions of propofol and remifentanil, what safety precaution is the most vital in this a scenario?

      Your Answer: One-way valve on the intravenous port when a multi-lumen connector is used

      Correct Answer: Cannula access site clearly visible and regularly checked

      Explanation:

      According to the Safe Anaesthesia Liaison Group, the most important factor to consider the cannula access, and if the patient is properly receiving the total intravenous anaesthesia. The cannula access must be regularly checked for kinks, leaks and disconnections.

      Below are the safety precautions and policies to be followed for total intravenous anaesthesia among children and adults:

      When administering TIVA, a non-return valve must be used on any intravenous fluid line;
      When using equipment, it is essential that clinical staff know its limitations and uses;
      Sites of intravenous infusions should be visible so they may be monitored for disconnection, leaks or perivenous infusion into the subcutaneous tissues; and,
      Organisations must give preference to clearly labelled intravenous connectors and valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      638.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic effects of Benzodiazepines?

      Your Answer: Delta

      Correct Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      59.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What structure is most posterior at the porta hepatis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What structure is most posterior at the porta hepatis?

      Your Answer: Common bile duct

      Correct Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      The structures in the porta hepatis from anterior to posterior are:

      The ducts: Most anterior are the left and right hepatic ducts.

      The arteries: Next are the left and right hepatic arteries

      The veins: Next is the portal vein

      The epiploic foramen of Winslow lies most posterior at the porta hepatis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      53.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant hepatic failure in halothane administration?

      Your Answer: Prior history of post-anaesthetic jaundice

      Correct Answer: Multiple exposure

      Explanation:

      Hepatotoxicity due to halothane administration is relatively common and is a major factor in its rapidly declining use. Type 1 hepatotoxicity has an incidence of 20% to 30%. A comprehensive report in 1969 demonstrated an incidence of type 2 hepatotoxicity (hepatitis) of 1 case per 6000 to 20000 cases, with fatal cases occurring approximately once in 35000 patients following a single exposure to the anaesthetic. This incidence of fatal cases increases to approximately 1 in 1000 patients following multiple exposures. Following this study was a large-scale review in the United Kingdom, which showed similar results. To put this into perspective, there is only a single case of hepatotoxicity confirmed after the administration of desflurane and 2 cases per 1 million after enflurane. By the 1970s, halothane was the most common cause of drug-induced liver failure.

      Halothane-induced hepatotoxicity has a female to male ratio of two to one. Younger patients are less likely to be affected; 80% of the cases are typically in patients 40 years or older. Other risk factors include obesity and underlying liver dysfunction. Medications such as phenobarbital, alcohol, and isoniazid may play a role in affecting CYP2E1 metabolism, increasing one’s risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - According to the statements given which one is most correct concerning the spinal...

    Correct

    • According to the statements given which one is most correct concerning the spinal cord?

      Your Answer: There are 31 pairs of spinal roots

      Explanation:

      The cylindrical structure(spine), starts from the foramen magnum in medulla oblongata at the skull’s base. Its length varies in gender with men having 45cm and women having up to 43 cm. The spine contains 31 pairs of spinal nerves, named according to the spinal region:
      – 8 cervical nerve pairs ( C1-C8)
      – 12 thoracic nerve pairs ( T1-T12)
      – 5 lumbar nerve pairs (L1-L5)
      – 5 sacral nerves (S1-S5) and
      – 1 coccygeal nerve pair.
      These spinal nerves are classified as the peripheral nervous system though they branch from the spinal cord and central nervous system. They interact directly with the spinal cord to modulate the motor and sensory information from the peripheral’s region. As the nerves emerges form the spinal cords they are known as rootlets. They join to form nerve roots, and depending on their position, we have anterior nerve roots and posterior.

      The spinal cord is supplied by two posterior and one anterior spinal arteries which anastomoses caudally, at the conus medullaris.

      The anterior spinal artery supplies the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord and medulla. Disruption of the anterior spinal artery supply is characterised by ischaemia or infarction of motor tracts (corticospinal) and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion.

      The posterior spinal arteries supply the posterior columns (posterior third of the spinal cord). Infarction of the posterior columns results in the loss of proprioceptive, vibration and two-point discrimination.

      The spinal cord normally ends at the level of L1 or L2 in an adult and L3 in a newborn.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve passes through which anatomic structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve passes through which anatomic structure?

      Your Answer: Stylomastoid foramen

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen ovale. Other structures that pass through this foramen are the accessory meningeal artery, and occasionally, the lesser petrosal nerve.

      These are the structures that pass through the other openings in the cranial fossa:

      Foramen rotundum – Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve

      Foramen lacerum – Greater petrosal nerve, traversed by the internal carotid artery

      Superior orbital fissure – Oculomotor nerve; trochlear nerve; lacrimal, frontal and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve; abducens nerve, superior ophthalmic vein

      Stylomastoid foramen – facial nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old woman gives a two-week history of fatigue, muscle cramps, and paraesthesia...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman gives a two-week history of fatigue, muscle cramps, and paraesthesia of her fingers and toes. She has low serum calcium and low serum parathyroid hormone levels on investigations.

      She appears slightly confused, likely due to hypocalcaemia, and cannot give a full account of her past medical history, but can recall that she recently was admitted to the hospital.

      What is the most likely cause of her hypoparathyroidism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is injury or removing the parathyroid glands. They can be injured accidentally during surgery to remove the thyroid as they are located posterior to the thyroid gland.

      A result of both low parathyroid hormone and low calcium is likely to mean that the parathyroid glands are not responding to hypocalcaemia. The hypocalcaemia can cause confusion, and the stay in the hospital is likely to refer to her surgery.

      While a parathyroid adenoma is fairly common and can cause hypoparathyroidism, it much more likely causes hyperparathyroidism.

      Chronic kidney disease is likely to cause hypocalcaemia, which would increase parathyroid hormone production in an attempt to increase calcium levels, causing hyperparathyroidism. Vitamin D is activated by the kidneys and then binds to calcium to be absorbed in the terminal ileum so that a deficiency would cause hyperparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department. She complains of increased shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department. She complains of increased shortness of breath and wheezing over the last 48 hours. On examination, she is found to have tachycardia, tachypnoea, and oxygen saturation at 91% on air. She admits to a previous medical history of asthma, diagnosed 4 years ago. She requires further investigations for diagnosis.

      Which of the following is true about the assessment of a patient with symptomatic asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen saturations of 91% on air would be an indication for performing arterial blood gases

      Explanation:

      A patient presenting with symptomatic asthma should be assessed for severity to determine appropriate management options. Indications of acute severe asthma are:

      Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR): 33-50% best/predicted
      Respiratory rate: ≥25/min
      Heart rate: ≥110/min
      Inability to finish a complete sentence in a single breath.

      Oxygen saturation should be measured. Any measurement of an oxygen saturation of 92% or less, either on air or on oxygen, indicates severe, life threatening asthma, and requires an arterial blood gas (ABG) to detect normo- or hypercarbia.

      A chest x-ray would not be routine as it will not provide any relevant information. It is only required in specific cases, including:
      Diagnosis of a subcutaneous emphysema
      Indications of a unilateral pneumothorax
      Indications of a lobar collapse of consolidation
      Treatment-resistance life-threatening asthma
      If mechanical ventilation is indicated

      A peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can provide relevant information to help distinguish between acute, moderate, severe and life threatening asthma. However, it is not necessary as other parameters exist that can also help make the same distinction.

      An ECG is indicated in this case as the patient has tachycardia and tachypnoea which are indicative of acute severe asthma. The ECG would indicate if arrhythmia is also present which would suggest life-threatening asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The immediate physiological response to massive perioperative blood loss is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The immediate physiological response to massive perioperative blood loss is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stimulation of baroreceptors in carotid sinus and aortic arch

      Explanation:

      With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:

      1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
      2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
      3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
      4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
      5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.

      A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
      6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
      7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)

      Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
      8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
      9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
      10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
      Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old man presents with bilateral buttock claudication that spreads down the thigh...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with bilateral buttock claudication that spreads down the thigh and erectile dysfunction in a vascular clinic.

      The left femoral pulse is not palpable on examination, and the right is weakly palpable. Leriche syndrome is diagnosed as the blood flow at the abdominal aortic bifurcation is blocked due to atherosclerosis. He is prepared for aortoiliac bypass surgery.

      Which vertebral level will you find the affected artery that requires bypassing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta into common iliac arteries occurs at the level of L4. The bifurcation is a common site for atherosclerotic plaques as it is an area of high turbulence.

      Leriche Syndrome is an aortoiliac occlusive disease and affects the distal abdominal aorta, iliac arteries, and femoropopliteal vessels. It has a triad of symptoms:
      1. Claudication (cramping lower extremities pain that is reproducible by exercise)
      2. Impotence (reduced penile arterial flow)
      3. Absent/weak femoral pulses (hallmark)

      T12 – aorta enters the diaphragm with the thoracic duct and azygous veins

      L2 – testicular or ovarian arteries branch off the aorta

      L3 – inferior mesenteric artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause

      Explanation:

      Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.

      During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.

      The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.

      Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 73-year-old man, presents with abdominal pain, constipation and blood on defecation. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man, presents with abdominal pain, constipation and blood on defecation. He is diagnosed with a distal sigmoid colon carcinoma.

      Which artery is most likely to provide its blood supply?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the hindgut, which includes the sigmoid colon.

      Note that during high anterior resection of distal sigmoid colon tumours, the inferior mesenteric artery is ligated, interrupting blood supply.

      The branches of the internal iliac artery, particularly the middle rectal branch, are essential in retaining vascularity of the rectal stump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Regarding the treatment of bladder cancer, a study concerned with the usage of...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the treatment of bladder cancer, a study concerned with the usage of a combined or monotherapy was conducted. A forest plot was used for the visual representation of the data.

      Which of the following is true regarding forest plots?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Forest plots can present data from multiple studies

      Explanation:

      Being the part of a meta analysis, forest plots are more valued as evidence then randomised control trials.

      The notion that forest plots can only be used if the results are substantial is not true. They are good indicators of the significance of the data. If the diamond intersects the central line, the data is rendered significant. It also aggregates means and confidence intervals from studies conducted in the past which makes the study much more reliable as errors associated with individual studies tend to have less of an impact in this way.

      The suggestion that forest plots are primarily used for qualitative data is factually incorrect. Forest plots require numerical values to function.

      All in all, forest plots help us in determining whether or not there is a significant trend in that particular field of study.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

      Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The spinal cord in a neonate terminates at the lower border of: ...

    Incorrect

    • The spinal cord in a neonate terminates at the lower border of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord and the vertebral canal are as long as each other in early fetal life. The length of the cord increases faster than the growth of the vertebrae during development. By the time of birth, the spinal cord is at the level of the lower border of the 3rd lumbar vertebra, compared to its original position at the level of the 2nd coccygeal vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A double blind placebo control clinical trial is done. Which of these is...

    Incorrect

    • A double blind placebo control clinical trial is done. Which of these is correct about it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment does not know which treatment the patient has been given

      Explanation:

      A ‘double blind crossover study’ happens when every patient receive both treatments.

      It is incorrect to say that only half of the patients do not know which treatment they receive because in a double blind placebo control clinical trial ALL of the patients are blind to their treatment choice .

      If some of the patients are not treated, they would be aware that they were not being treated and it could not be considered a blind trial.

      In a double blind placebo control clinical trial both the clinician and the patient are blind to the treatment choice. The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment, therefore, does not know which treatment the patient has been given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following can be evaluated by the Delphi method? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can be evaluated by the Delphi method?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Expert consensus

      Explanation:

      The Delphi method relies on expert consensus. This method kicks off with an open ended questionnaire and uses its responses as a survey instrument for the next round in which each of the participants is asked to rate the items that the investigators have summarized on the basis of the data collected in the first round. Any disagreement is further discussed in phases to come on the basis of information obtained from previous phases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Regarding the basal metabolic rate (BMR), one of the following is correct. ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the basal metabolic rate (BMR), one of the following is correct.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is the single largest component of energy expenditure

      Explanation:

      BMR is lower in females than males.

      It decreases with increasing age.

      There is an increase in BMR with increased muscle (i.e. lean tissue)

      BMR is increased in stress and illness. There is also an catabolic state in these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A caudal anaesthetic block is planned for a 3-year-old girl presenting for inguinal...

    Incorrect

    • A caudal anaesthetic block is planned for a 3-year-old girl presenting for inguinal hernia repair. Choose the best answer that explains why the caudal epidural space is accessed via the sacral hiatus.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The failure of fusion of the laminae of S4 and S5 provides a suitable point of entry

      Explanation:

      The sacral hiatus is shaped by incomplete midline fusion of the posterior elements of the distal portion of S4 and S5. This inverted U shaped space is covered by the posterior aspect of the sacrococcygeal membrane and is an important landmark in caudal anaesthetic block. Distal most portion of the dural sac and the sacral hiatus usually terminate between levels S1 and S3. The dural sac ends at the level of S2 in adults and S3 in children.

      An equilateral triangle is formed between the apex of the sacral hiatus and the posterior superior iliac spines. This triangle is used to determine the location of the sacral hiatus during caudal anaesthetic block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the paediatric airway? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the paediatric airway?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The larynx is more anterior than in an adult

      Explanation:

      In the neonatal stage, the tongue is usually large and comes to the normal size at the age of 1 year. The vocal cords lie inverse C4 and as it reaches the grown-up position inverse C5/6 by the age of 4 (not 1 year).

      Due to the immature cricoid cartilage, the larynx lies more anterior in newborn children. That’s why the cricoid ring is the narrowest part of the paediatric respiratory tract, while in the adults the tightest portion of the respiratory route is vocal cords. The epiglottis is generally expansive and slants at a point of 45 degrees to the laryngeal opening.

      The carina is the ridge of the cartilage in the trachea at the level of T2 in newborn (T4 in adults), that separates the openings of right and left main bronchi.

      Neonates have a comparatively low number of alveoli and then this number gradually increases to a most extreme by the age of 8 (not 3 years).

      Neonates are obligatory nose breathers and any hindrance can cause respiratory issues (e.g., choanal atresia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Following are some examples of induction agents. Which one has the longest elimination...

    Incorrect

    • Following are some examples of induction agents. Which one has the longest elimination half-life?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiopental

      Explanation:

      Thiopental has the longest elimination half-life of 6-15 hours.

      Elimination half-life of other drugs are given as:
      – Propofol: 5-12 h
      – Methohexitone: 3-5 h
      – Ketamine: 2 h
      – Etomidate: 1-4 h

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You've been summoned to the paediatric ward after a 4-year-old child was discovered...

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to the paediatric ward after a 4-year-old child was discovered 'collapsed' in bed.

      The child had been admitted the day before with febrile convulsions and was scheduled to be discharged. It is safe to approach the child.

      What should your first life-saving action be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apply a gentle stimulus and ask the child if they are alright

      Explanation:

      Paediatric life support differs from adult life support in that hypoxia is the primary cause of deterioration.

      After checking for danger, the child should be given a gentle stimulus (such as holding the head and shaking the arm) and asked, Are you alright? according to current advanced paediatric life support (APLS) guidelines. Safety, Stimulate, Shout is a phrase that is frequently remembered. Any airway assessment should be preceded by these actions.

      Although the algorithm includes five rescue breaths, they are performed after the airway assessment.

      It is not recommended to ask parents to leave unless they are obstructing the resuscitation. A team member should be with them at all times to explain what is going on and answer any questions they may have.

      CPR should not begin until the child has been properly assessed and rescue breaths have been administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 76-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his left groin. Upon examination, his doctor is able to diagnose a direct inguinal hernia. There are many structures present in the inguinal canal.

      Where is the ilioinguinal nerve located in relation to the spermatic cord?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior to the spermatic cord

      Explanation:

      The answer is anterior to the spermatic cord.

      The inguinal canal in men contains the ilioinguinal nerve, the genitofemoral nerve and the spermatic cord.

      The ilioinguinal nerve arises of the L1 nerve root with the Iliohypogastric nerve, before entering the inguinal canal from the side, through the muscles of the abdomen, travelling superficial to the spermatic cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A study aimed at assessing a novel proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in aged...

    Incorrect

    • A study aimed at assessing a novel proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in aged patients taking aspirin. The new PPI is prescribed to 120 patients and the already prevalent PPI is given to the 240 members of the control group. In the next 5 years, the instances of upper GI bleed reported in the experimental and control group were 24 and 60 respectively.

      What is the value of absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (24/120)-(60/240)

      ARR= 0.2-0.25

      ARR= 0.05 (Numerical Value)

      ARR= 5%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - An 80-year old lady has a background history of a previous myocardial infarction...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year old lady has a background history of a previous myocardial infarction which has left permanent damage to her heart's conduction system. The part of the conduction system with the highest velocities is damaged, and this has resulted in desynchronisation of the ventricles. The part of the heart that conducts the fastest is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres

      Explanation:

      The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.

      This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
      At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.

      The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.

      Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - During the design phase of a study, which among the given is aimed...

    Incorrect

    • During the design phase of a study, which among the given is aimed at addressing confounding factors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Randomisation

      Explanation:

      Randomisation allows for performance of experimental trials in a random order. Using this method gives us control over the confounding variables that are not supposed to be held constant.

      For an instance, by employing randomisation we get to control biological differences among individual human beings during experimental trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Your manager asks you to inform patients that are suffering from a chronic...

    Incorrect

    • Your manager asks you to inform patients that are suffering from a chronic pain about a trial that is going to be conducted in order to determine the efficacy of a novel analgesic. What phase is the trial currently in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase 2

      Explanation:

      Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.

      Phase 1 is associated with assessing whether a drug is safe to use or not. The process is extensive and can take up to several months. It also involves healthy participants (less than 100) that are paid to take part in the study. The side effects upon increasing dosage are also addressed by the study. The effects the drug has on humans including how its absorbed, metabolized and excreted are studied. Approximately 70% of the drugs pass this phase.

      Phase 2 trials involve patients that are suffering from the disease under study and are associated with determining the efficiency and the optimum dosage of the drug.

      Phase 3 also assesses the efficacy but at a higher scale with larger population sample.

      Phase 4 trials are involved with the long term effects and side effects of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - One of the causes of increased pulse pressure is when the aorta becomes...

    Incorrect

    • One of the causes of increased pulse pressure is when the aorta becomes less compliant because of age-related changes. Another cause of increased pulse pressure is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Impaired ventricular relaxation reduces diastolic filling and therefore preload.

      Decreased blood volume decreases preload due to reduced venous return.

      Heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction and therefore stroke volume.

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure (is increased by stroke volume) = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume
      Aortic stenosis would decrease stroke volume as end systolic volume would increase.
      This is because of an increase in afterload, an increase in resistance that the heart must pump against due to a hard stenotic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Work is underway to devise a new breast cancer screen testing method that...

    Incorrect

    • Work is underway to devise a new breast cancer screen testing method that doesn’t involve mammography which is in contrast to the prevailing standard. The initial numbers look promising and are indicating that the new testing method is better able to pick up early stage cancer. There, however, is not substantial difference in survival rates.

      Which of the following term can be used to describe this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lead-time bias

      Explanation:

      Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.

      Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.

      Not publishing the results of a valid study just because they are negative or uninteresting can be termed as publication bias.

      When information gathering is ill suited with respect to time i.e. collecting the data regarding a fatal disease many years after the death of its patients, it is termed as Late – look bias.

      The case in point is an instance of lead time bias when upon comparing two tests, one is able to detect the condition earlier than the other but the overall outcome doesn’t change. There is a possibility that this will make the survival rates for the newer test look more promising.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which of the following statements about the central venous pressure (CVP) waveform is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the central venous pressure (CVP) waveform is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Third degree heart block causes canon A waves

      Explanation:

      The central venous pressure (CVP) waveform depicts changes of pressure within the right atrium. Different parts of the waveform are:

      A wave: which represents atrial contraction. It is synonymous with the P wave seen during an ECG. It is often eliminated in the presence of atrial fibrillation, and increased tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension.

      C wave: which represents right ventricle contraction at the point where the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium. It is synonymous with the QRS complex seen on ECG.

      X descent: which represents relaxation of the atrial diastole and a decrease in atrial pressure, due to the downward movement of the right ventricle as it contracts. It is synonymous with the point before the T wave on ECG.

      V wave: which represents an increase in atrial pressure just before the opening of the tricuspid valve. It is synonymous with the point after the T wave on ECG. It is increased in the background of a tricuspid regurgitation.

      Y descent: which represents the emptying of the atrium as the tricuspid valve opens to allow for blood flow into the ventricle in early diastole.

      Canon waves: which refer to large waves present on the trace that do not correspond to the A, V or C waves. They usually occur in a background of complete heart blocks or junctional arrythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which of these anaesthetics has the best chance of preventing HPV (hypoxic pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these anaesthetics has the best chance of preventing HPV (hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desflurane 2 MAC

      Explanation:

      Resistance pulmonary arteries constrict in response to alveolar and airway hypoxia, diverting blood to better-oxygenated alveoli.

      In atelectasis, pneumonia, asthma, and adult respiratory distress syndrome, hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction optimises O2 uptake. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction helps maintain systemic oxygenation during single-lung anaesthesia.

      A redox-based O2 sensor within pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells is involved in hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. The production of reactive oxygen species by smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery varies in proportion to PaO2. Hypoxic removal of these redox second messengers inhibits voltage-gated potassium channels, depolarizing smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery.

      L-type calcium channels are activated by depolarization, which raises cytosolic calcium and causes hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Some anaesthetics suppress this response, increasing the risk of further deterioration in ventilation perfusion mismatch.

      Agents that inhibit HPV are ether, halothane, and desflurane (>1.6 MAC).
      Agents with no effect on HPV include thiopentone, fentanyl, desflurane (1MAC), isoflurane (<1.5MAC), sevoflurane(1MAC), and propofol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the left kidney. He will be operated on, and as part of the surgery, the left renal artery has to be located and dissected.

      Which of the following vertebral levels gives rise to this artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      The renal arteries branch from the abdominal aorta just below the origin of the superior mesenteric artery. The right renal artery is higher and longer than the left renal artery. The left renal artery passes behind the left renal vein, the body of the pancreas, and the splenic vein.

      The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:

      T10 – oesophageal opening in the diaphragm

      T12 – Coeliac trunk, aortic hiatus in the diaphragm

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is type ____? ...

    Incorrect

    • A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is type ____?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV

      Explanation:

      Type I – immediate hypersensitivity reaction

      Examples are: Atopy, urticaria, Anaphylaxis, Asthma( IgE mediated).

      Type II – Antibody mediated cytotoxic reaction

      Examples are: Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Thrombocytopenia( IgM or IgG mediated).

      Type III – Immune complex mediated reaction

      Examples are: Serum sickness,SLE – IgG., Farmers lungs, rheumatoid arthritis

      Type IV – Delayed hypersensitivity reaction

      Examples are: Contact dermatitis, drug allergies.

      Type V – Autoimmune

      Graves’
      Myasthenia – IgM or IgG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - The prospects of setting up a health facility to help patients with ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • The prospects of setting up a health facility to help patients with ischaemic heart disease in a remote area are under consideration and you have been asked to look into it.

      What's the crucial factor in finding out the amount of resources needed to go ahead with the idea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Both incidence and prevalence are indicators of the disease frequency. While incidence tells us about the number of cases reported per population in a provided time period, prevalence is the factor you should be vigilant about as it tells us about the total number of cases that have been reported in a population at a particular point of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 75-year-old man, visits his general practitioner. He complains of changes to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man, visits his general practitioner. He complains of changes to his bowel habit and unexpected weight loss in the last 6 months. He is scheduled for a colonoscopy and biopsy where he is diagnosed with a transverse colon malignancy.

      The transverse colon is one of many organs tethered to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity by a double fold of the peritoneum.

      Which of the listed organs is also tethered to the peritoneum in a similar way?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The stomach

      Explanation:

      The peritoneal cavity is made up of the omentum, the ligaments and the mesentery.

      The section of the peritoneum responsible for tethering organs to the posterior abdominal wall is the mesentery.

      These tethered organs are classified as intraperitoneal, and these include the stomach, spleen, liver, first and fourth parts of the duodenum, jejunum, ileum, transverse, and sigmoid colon.

      Retroperitoneal organs are located posterior to the peritoneum and include: the rest of the duodenum, the ascending colon, the descending colon, the middle third of the rectum, and the remainder of the pancreas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A survey aimed at finding out mean glucose level in individuals that took...

    Incorrect

    • A survey aimed at finding out mean glucose level in individuals that took antipsychotics medicines was conducted. The results were as follows:

      Mean Value: 7mmol/L

      Standard Deviation: 6mmol/L

      Sample Size: 9

      Standard Error: 2mmol/L

      For a confidence interval of 95%, which of the option presents the correct range up to the nearest value?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3-11 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Key Point: While finding out confidence intervals, standard errors are used. Standard error and Standard deviation are two distinct entities and should not be confused.

      For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:

      Multiply the standard error by 3.

      Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.

      Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.

      The range turns out to be 1-13 mmol/L.

      For a confidence interval of 68%, multiply the standard error with 1 and repeat the process. The range found for this interval is 3-11 mmol/L.

      For a 95% confidence interval. Standard Error is multiplied by 1.96 which gives us the limit ranging from 3.08 to 10.92 mmol/L which could be approximated to 3-11 mmol/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - With a 10-day history of severe vomiting, a 71-year-old man with a gastric...

    Incorrect

    • With a 10-day history of severe vomiting, a 71-year-old man with a gastric outlet obstruction is admitted to the surgical ward.

      The serum biochemical results listed below are available:

      Sodium 128 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 2.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Chloride 50 mmol/L (95-107)
      Urea 12 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Creatinine 180 µmol/L (60-110)

      Which of the following do you think you are most likely to encounter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The standard base excess will be higher than actual base excess

      Explanation:

      Hydrochloric acid is lost when you vomit for a long time (HCl). As a result, the following can be expected, in varying degrees of severity:

      Hypokalaemia
      Hypochloraemia
      Increased bicarbonate to compensate for chloride loss and metabolic alkalosis

      The alkalosis causes potassium to move from the intracellular to the extracellular compartment at first. Long-term vomiting and dehydration cause potassium to be excreted by the kidneys in order to conserve sodium. Dehydration can cause urea and creatinine levels to rise.

      The actual base excess is always greater than the standard base excess.

      The actual base excess (BE) is a measurement of a base’s contribution to a blood gas picture’s metabolic component. It’s the amount of base that needs to be added to a blood sample to bring the pH back to 7.4 after the respiratory component of a blood gas picture has been corrected (PaCO2 of 40 mmHg or 5.3 kPa). The BE has a normal range of +2 to 2. A large positive BE indicates a severe metabolic alkalosis, while a large negative BE indicates a severe metabolic acidosis. As a result, the actual BE in vitro is unaffected by CO2.

      In vivo, however, standard BE is not independent of pCO2 because blood with haemoglobin acts as a better buffer than total ECF.

      As a result, it is impossible to tell the difference between compensating for a respiratory disorder and compensating for the presence of a primary metabolic disorder.

      The differences between in vitro and in vivo behaviour can be mostly eliminated if the BE is calculated for a haemoglobin concentration of 50 g/L (the ‘effective’ or virtual value of Hb if it was distributed throughout the extracellular space) rather than the actual haemoglobin. Because haemoglobin has a lower buffering capacity, the standard BE is higher than the actual BE. It reflects the BE better in the extracellular space rather than just the intravascular compartment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result...

    Incorrect

    • Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result in an inaccurate blood pressure reading, including the damping of an arterial waveform.

      How does a damped arterial waveform affect blood pressure measurements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The systolic pressure is lower and the diastolic pressure higher with the same mean

      Explanation:

      Damping is the reduction of energy in a system achieved by reducing the amplitude of oscillations. It is necessary to some degree to prevent wave overshoots.

      Critical damping usually causes the system to be slow, so optimal damping is normally applied to provide a balance between speed and distortion.

      Damping can cause errors if excessive (overdamping) or inadequate (Underdamping). The amount of damping in a system can be determined using the damping coefficient (D), where:

      Undamped: 0
      Critically damped: 1
      Optimally damped: 0.64

      An overdamped system will cause an artificial decrease in the systolic blood pressure, and an artificial increase in the diastolic blood pressure.

      An underdamped system will cause an artificial increase in systolic blood pressure and an artificial decrease in diastolic blood pressure.

      Damping can be caused by a number of factors affecting different parts of the system, including:

      The tubing/cannula: The presence of air bubbles, increased blood viscosity or formation of blood clots.
      The diaphragm/tubing: Increased malleability/compliance
      The tubing: Presence of kinks, narrowing or too many ports of injection.

      The answer here is a damped system will have a low systolic pressure, a high diastolic pressure with a normal mean pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - The following are pairs of neurotransmitters with their corresponding synthesising enzymes.

    Which pair...

    Incorrect

    • The following are pairs of neurotransmitters with their corresponding synthesising enzymes.

      Which pair is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glutamic acid decarboxylase and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

      Explanation:

      Glutamic acid decarboxylase is responsible for the catalyses of glutamate to gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

      Catechol-o-methyl transferase catalyses the degradation and inactivation of dopamine into 3-methoxytyramine, epinephrine into metanephrine, and norepinephrine into normetanephrine and vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA).

      Monoamine oxidase catalyses the oxidation of norepinephrine to vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA) and serotonin to 5-hydeoxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA).

      Cholinesterase functions to catalyse the split of acetylcholine into choline and acetic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of these statements is false relating to the posterior cerebral artery? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these statements is false relating to the posterior cerebral artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is connected to the circle of Willis via the superior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior cerebral arteries are the terminal branches of the basilar artery and are connected to the circle of Willis via the posterior communicating artery. The posterior cerebral artery supplies the visual areas of the cerebral cortex and other structures in the visual pathway.

      The posterior cerebral artery is separated from the superior cerebellar artery near its origin by the oculomotor nerve (3rd cranial nerve) and, lateral to the midbrain, by the trochlear nerve.

      PCA strokes will primarily cause a visual field loss or homonymous hemianopia to the opposite side. This large occipital or PCA stroke causes people to be “blind” on one side of the visual field. This is the most common symptom of a large occipital lesion or PCA stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A graph is created to show the exponential relationship between bacterial growth (y-axis)...

    Incorrect

    • A graph is created to show the exponential relationship between bacterial growth (y-axis) and time (x-axis).

      Which of the following statements is most true about this kind of exponential relationship?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: y = ex

      Explanation:

      The relationship between bacterial growth and time is a tear-away exponential. The mathematical relationship between y and x in this case is:

      y = ex

      Where: the power is x, and the base is e.

      Euler’s number (e) is a mathematical constant that is the base for all logarithms occurring naturally. Its value is 2.718.

      The statement X increasing with an increase in Y is proportional to Y refers to the change in y in terms of x when considering any exponential relationship.

      This is not a build-up exponential, and that is mathematically stated as y = 1-e-kt.

      The negative x axis being a horizontal asymptote and the y intercept being 0, 1 are examples of tearaway exponentials , but do not describe an exponential process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sympathomimetic effects work mainly through ?1 but also ? receptors

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline acts as a sympathomimetic effect via alpha as well as a beta receptor. However, they have weak ?2 action.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - What structure is most critical in providing support for the duodenojejunal flexure? ...

    Incorrect

    • What structure is most critical in providing support for the duodenojejunal flexure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ligament of Treitz

      Explanation:

      The duodenojejunal flexure is the point where the duodenum becomes the jejunum.

      The ligament of Treitz, which arises from the right crus of diaphragm, provides suspension for support.

      Between the ileum and the caecum is the ligament of Treves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - An 82-year old male has shortness of breath which is made worse when...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year old male has shortness of breath which is made worse when he lies down but investigations have revealed a normal ejection fraction. Why might this be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He has diastolic dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Decreased stroke volume causes decreased ejection fraction which results in diastolic dysfunction.
      Ejection fraction is not a useful measure in someone with diastolic dysfunction because stroke volume may be reduced whilst end-diastolic volume may be reduced.
      Diastolic dysfunction may arise with reduced heart compliance.

      Ejection fraction measures of the proportion of blood leaving the ventricles with each beat and is calculated as follows:
      Stroke volume / end-diastolic volume.

      A healthy ejection fraction is usually taken as 60% (based on a stroke volume of 70ml and end-diastolic volume of 120ml).

      Respiratory inspiration causes a decreased pressure in the thoracic cavity, which in turn causes more blood to flow into the atrium.

      Sitting up decreases venous because of the action of gravity on blood in the venous system.
      Hypotension also decreases venous return.
      A less compliant aorta, like in aortic stenosis increases end systolic left ventricular volume which decreases stroke volume.

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output.
      Increased vascular resistance impedes the flow of blood back to the heart.

      Increased venous return increases end diastolic LV volume as there is more blood returning to the ventricles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - What can you see within the tunica media of a blood vessel on...

    Incorrect

    • What can you see within the tunica media of a blood vessel on examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      The blood vessel well is divided into 3 parts, namely:

      The tunica intima, which is the deepest layer. It contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions

      The tunica media, primarily consisting of the involuntary smooth muscle fibres, laid out in spiral layers with elastic fibres and connective tissue.

      The tunica adventitia, which is the most superficial layer. It consists of the vasa vasorum, fibroblast and collagen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - The spinal cord tracts that transmits the sensations of pain, crude temperature, and...

    Incorrect

    • The spinal cord tracts that transmits the sensations of pain, crude temperature, and light touch is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinothalamic

      Explanation:

      Dorsal column (ascending tract) – Proprioception, vibration, discriminative

      Spinocerebellar (ascending tract) – Subconscious muscle position and tone

      Corticospinal (descending tract) – Voluntary muscle

      Rubrospinal (descending tract) – Flexor muscle tone

      Vestibulospinal (descending tract) – Reflexes and muscle tone

      Reticulospinal(descending tract) – Voluntary movements, head position.-

      Autonomic – Descending tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - The statement that best describes temperature management is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The statement that best describes temperature management is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gauge thermometers use coils of different metals with different co-efficients of expansion which either tighten or relax with changes in temperature

      Explanation:

      There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

      Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

      Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

      Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

      Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

      Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - At a pH of 7, pure water has an hydrogen ion concentration of?...

    Incorrect

    • At a pH of 7, pure water has an hydrogen ion concentration of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100 nanomol/L

      Explanation:

      pH is the negative log to the base 10 of hydrogen ion concentration:

      So, what power produces the answer?

      pH = – log10 [H+]

      Making [H+] the subject:

      [H+] = 10-pH

      Substituting, [H+] = 10-7

      One nanomole = 1 x 10-9 or 0.000000001

      10-7 = 1x 0.0000001 or 10 x 0.00000001 or 100 x 0.000000001

      100 nanomole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Which statement is true about the autonomic nervous system? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true about the autonomic nervous system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Preganglionic synapse utilise Acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter in both parasympathetic and sympathetic systems

      Explanation:

      With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

      1. It is not under voluntary control
      2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
      3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.

      With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
      1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
      ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
      2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.

      Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.

      The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.

      There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
      Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
      However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.

      The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.

      There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.

      Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.

      The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.

      The cranial outflow consists of
      1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
      2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
      3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
      4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreas

      The sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.

      The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
      Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.

      Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
      There are:
      M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
      M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
      M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
      M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
      M5 = brain

      The lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - The solutions that contains the most sodium is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The solutions that contains the most sodium is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3500 mL 0.9% N saline

      Explanation:

      Sodium concentration for different fluids
      3% N saline 513 mmol/L
      5% N saline 856 mmol/L
      0.9% N saline 154 mmol/L
      Hartmann’s solution 131 mmol/L
      0.45% N saline with 5% glucose 77 mmol/L

      This means that:

      500 mL 5% N saline contains 428 mmol of sodium
      1000 mL 3% N saline contains 513 mmol of sodium
      3500 mL 0.9% N saline contains 539 mmol of sodium
      4000 mL Hartmann’s contains 524 mmol of sodium
      6000 mL 0.45% N saline with 5% glucose contains 462 mmol of sodium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Regarding pre-eclampsia with warning signs, which of the following laboratory tests is the...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding pre-eclampsia with warning signs, which of the following laboratory tests is the most appropriate to establish a platelet dysfunction or disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Platelet count

      Explanation:

      Decreased platelet concentrations with eclampsia were described as early as 1922 by Stancke. The platelet count is routinely measured in women with any form of gestational hypertension. The frequency and intensity of thrombocytopenia vary and are dependent on the severity and duration of the preeclampsia syndrome and the frequency with which platelet counts are performed.

      Overt thrombocytopenia defined by a platelet count < 100,000/microliter - indicates severe disease. In general, the lower the platelet count, the higher the rates of maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. In most cases, delivery is advisable because thrombocytopenia usually continues to worsen. After delivery, the platelet count may continue to decline for the first day or so. It then usually increases progressively to reach a normal level within 3-5 days. In some instances with HELLP syndrome, the platelet count continues to fall after delivery. If these do not reach a nadir until 48 to 72 hours, then preeclampsia syndrome may be incorrectly attributed to one of the thrombotic microangiopathies. The following are other severe features associated with preeclampsia: Proteinuria: >/= 300 mg/24 hours; or urine protein: creatinine ratio >/= 0.3; or dipstick 1+

      Renal insufficiency: serum creatinine > 1.1 mg/dL or doubling of creatinine in the absence of other renal disease

      Impaired liver function: two times elevated AST/ALT or unexplained right upper quadrant pain or epigastric pain unresponsive to medications

      Pulmonary oedema

      Cerebral or visual symptoms: headache, visual disturbances

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Which of the following is true about Calcium? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about Calcium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Only 1% of total body Calcium is found in the plasma

      Explanation:

      Only 1 percent of the calcium in the human body is found in the plasma where it performs the most critical functions.

      Out of this 1 percent, approximately 15% is complexed calcium bound to organic and inorganic anions, 40% is bound to albumin, and the remaining 45% circulates as free ionized calcium.

      The Chvostek sign is a clinical finding associated with hypocalcaemia, or low levels of calcium in the blood. This clinical sign refers to a twitch of the facial muscles that occurs when gently tapping an individual’s cheek, in front of the ear.

      Prolonged QT interval are associated with hypocalcaemia as reported in multiple studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A patient in the post-anaesthesia care unit was put on ephedrine for episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in the post-anaesthesia care unit was put on ephedrine for episodes of hypotension. Initial bolus doses were effective and the patient became normotensive, until, a few hours later, there was a noticeable drop in the blood pressure despite administration of another dose of ephedrine.

      Which of the following best explains the situation above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tachyphylaxis

      Explanation:

      When responsiveness diminishes rapidly after administration of a drug, the response is said to be subject to tachyphylaxis. This may be due to frequent or continuous exposure to agonists, which often results in short-term diminution of the receptor response.

      Many mechanisms may be responsible, such as blocking access of G protein to activated receptor, or receptor molecules internalized by endocytosis to prevent exposure to extracellular molecules.

      Tolerance occurs when larger doses are required to produce the same effect. This may be due to changes in receptor number or function due to exposure to the drug.

      Desensitization refers to the common situation where the biological response to a drug diminishes when it is given continuously or repeatedly. It is a chronic loss of response, occurring over a longer period than tachyphylaxis. It may be possible to restore the response by increasing the dose (or concentration) of the drug but, in some cases, the tissues may become completely refractory to its effect.

      Drug dependence is defined as a psychic and physical state of the person characterized by behavioural and other responses resulting in compulsions to take a drug, on a continuous or periodic basis in order to experience its psychic effect and at times to avoid the discomfort of its absence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 26-year-old doctor has recently been diagnosed with lung cancer. He would like...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old doctor has recently been diagnosed with lung cancer. He would like to find out his survival time for the condition.

      Which statistical method is used to predict survival rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kaplan-Meier estimator

      Explanation:

      The Weibull distribution are used to describe various types of observed failures of the components. it is used in reliability and survival analysis.

      Regression Analysis is used to measure the relationship between among two or more variable. It determines the effect of independent variables on the dependent variables.

      Student t-test is one of the most commonly used method to test the hypothesis. It determines the significant difference between the means of two different groups.

      A time series is a collection of observations of well-defined data obtained at regular interval of time.

      Kaplan-Meier estimator is used to estimate the survival function from lifetime data. It can be derived from maximum likelihood estimation of hazard function. It is most likely used to measure the fraction of patient’s life for a certain amount of time after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (3/5) 60%
Physiology And Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (1/4) 25%
Clinical Measurement (1/1) 100%
Pathophysiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed