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Question 1
Incorrect
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The physiological properties of a fast glycolytic (fast twitch) muscle fibre are characterised by which of the following?
Your Answer: High myoglobin
Correct Answer: Synthesis of ATP is brought about by anaerobic respiration
Explanation:Muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry is used to divide the biochemical classification into two groups: type 1 and type II.
Type I (slow twitch) muscle fibres rely on aerobic glycolytic and aerobic oxidative metabolism to function. They have a lot of mitochondria, a good blood supply, a lot of myoglobin, and they don’t get tired easily.
Because they contain more motor units, Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibres are thicker. They are more easily fatigued, but produce powerful bursts. The capillary networks and mitochondria are less dense in these white muscle fibres than in type I fibres. They have a low myoglobin content as well.
Muscle fibres of type II (fast twitch) are divided into three types:
Type IIa – aerobic/oxidative metabolism is used.
Type IIb – anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism is used by these fibres.When compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac and smooth muscle twitch at a slower rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic antibiotic?
Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of bacteriostatic drugs?Your Answer: Peptidoglycan cross-linking inhibition
Correct Answer: Protein synthesis inhibition
Explanation:Cell membrane pore formation, Bacterial DNA damage, Peptidoglycan cross-linking inhibition, and peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitor are always lethal and such mechanisms are possible only in bactericidal drugs. But Protein synthesis inhibition would only prevent cell replication or cell growth and is responsible for bacteriostatic effects of the drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?
Your Answer: Phentolamine
Explanation:The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.
The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.
Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.
Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.
Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.
A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.
Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).
A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate?
Your Answer: Is an antacid
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Sucralfate is an octasulfate of glucose to which Al(OH)3 has been added. It undergoes extensive cross-linking in an acidic environment and forms a polymer which adheres to the ulcer base for up to 6 hours and protects it from further erosion. Since it is not systemically absorbed it is virtually devoid of side effects. However, it may cause constipation in about 2% of cases due to the Aluminium component in it.
Sucralfate does not have antibacterial action against Helicobacter pylori. However, Bismuth has antibacterial action due to its oligodynamic effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of daptomycin?
Your Answer: Interferes with the outer membrane of gram positive bacteria resulting in cell death
Explanation:Daptomycin alters the curvature of the membrane, which creates holes that leak ions. This causes rapid depolarization, resulting in loss of membrane potential. Thus it interferes with the outer membrane of gram-positive bacteria resulting in cell death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache, photophobia, fever, and confusion. She is treated empirically with antibiotics. Which of the following represents the correct mechanism of action of the most commonly used first-line antibiotic class?
Your Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Explanation:Based on the presenting symptoms, this is the case of bacterial meningitis. The treatment of choice for bacterial meningitis is a cephalosporin. Cephalosporin acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not used in the treatment of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?
Your Answer: Atropine
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:The neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.
The main features are:
– Elevated creatinine kinase
– Hyperthermia and tachycardia
– Altered mental state
– Increased white cell count
– Insidious onset over 1-3 days
– Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
– Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)Management is supportive of ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs.
Since Olanzapine is a potential cause of NMS it is not a treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It is observed that the train-of-four count is two after two hours, with no further doses of the muscle relaxant.
What is most likely reason for this?Your Answer: Suxamethonium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency
Correct Answer: Mivacurium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency
Explanation:Mivacurium is metabolised primarily by plasma cholinesterase at an In vitro rate of about 70% that of succinylcholine. Mivacurium is contraindicated in patients with genetic and acquired plasma cholinesterase deficiencies.
The clearance of atracurium is by Hoffman degradation and ester hydrolysis in the plasma and is independent of both hepatic and renal function.
Rocuronium is eliminated primarily by the liver after metabolises to a less active metabolite, 17-desacetyl-rocuronium. Its duration of action is not affected much by renal impairment.
Vecuronium undergoes hepatic metabolism into 3-desacetyl-vecuronium which has 50-80% the activity of the parent drug. It undergoes biliary (40%) and renal excretion (30%). The aminoglycoside antibiotics possess additional neuromuscular blocking activity. The potency of gentamicin > streptomycin > amikacin. Calcium can be used to reverse the muscle weakness produced by gentamicin but not neostigmine. When vecuronium and gentamycin are given together the effect on neuromuscular blockade is synergistic.
Significant residual neuromuscular block 2 hours after the administration of these drugs is unlikely In this scenario.
Any recovery from neuromuscular blockade with suxamethonium in a patient with deficiency of plasma cholinesterase demonstrate four twitches on a train of four count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are false regarding tetracyclines except:
Your Answer: Bind to the 50S subunit
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits (not 50s) which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
They penetrate macrophages and are thus a drug of choice for treating infections due to intracellular organisms.
Tetracycline does not inhibit transpeptidation. Meanwhile, it is chloramphenicol which is responsible for inhibiting transpeptidation.
Tetracycline can get deposited in growing bone and teeth due to its calcium-binding effect and thus causes dental discoloration and dental hypoplasia. Due to this reason, they should be avoided in pregnant or lactating mothers.
Simultaneous administration of aluminium hydroxide can impede the absorption of tetracyclines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 2-year old male is admitted to the surgery ward for repair of an inguinal hernia. He weighs 10 kg. To provide post-operative analgesia, levobupivacaine was administered into the epidural space.
Given the information above, what is the most appropriate dose for the hernia repair?Your Answer: 0.25% 7.5 ml
Explanation:Caudal analgesia using bupivacaine is a widely employed technique for achieving both intraoperative and early postoperative pain relief. 0.5 ml/kg of 0.25% plain bupivacaine is favoured by many practitioners who employ this fixed scheme for procedures involving sacral dermatomes (circumcision, hypospadias repair) as well as lower thoracic dermatomes (orchidopexy). However, there are other dosing regimens for caudal blocks with variable analgesic success rates: These include 0.75 ml/kg, 1.0 ml/kg and 1.25 ml/kg.
A study indicated that plain bupivacaine 0.25% at a dose of 0.75 ml/kg compared to a dose of 0.5 ml/kg when administered for herniotomies provided improved quality of caudal analgesia with a low side effects profile. There were consistently more patients with favourable objective pain scale (OPS) scores at all timelines, increased the time to the analgesic request with similar postoperative consumption of paracetamol in the group of patients who received 0.75 ml/kg of 0.25% bupivacaine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following is correct about the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition
Explanation:Cephalosporin belongs to a family of beta-lactam antibiotics. All ?-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place i.e. they inhibit bacterial cell wall formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation and curettage. Her medical history revealed that she was maintained on levodopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurses administered ondansetron 4 mg and dexamethasone 8 mg prior to transfer from the operating room to the recovery room. However, an additional antiemetic agent is warranted.
Which of the following agents should be prescribed to the patient?Your Answer: Cyclizine 50 mg IV
Explanation:The Beers criteria, a US set of criteria for good prescribing in the older patient, preclude the use of metoclopramide in Parkinson’s disease. The Adverse Reactions Register of the UK Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) for the years 1967 to 1982 contained 479 reports of extrapyramidal reactions in which metoclopramide was the suspected drug; 455 were for dystonic-dyskinetic reactions, 20 for parkinsonism and four for tardive dyskinesia. Effects can occur within days of initiation of treatment and may take months to wear off.
Other antiemetics are available, such as cyclizine (Valoid), domperidone and ondansetron, which would be more appropriate to use in those with Parkinson’s disease.
Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative with histamine H1 receptor antagonist and anticholinergic activity. It is used for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, (particularly opioid-induced vomiting), vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.
Prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic known to cause tardive dyskinesia, tremor and parkinsonian symptoms and is therefore likely to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease. Prochlorperazine is not favoured for older patients because of the increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack (TIA).
Droperidol and phenothiazine are also potent antagonists on D2 receptors and must also be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Substitution at different positions of the barbituric ring give rise to different pharmacologic properties.
Substitution with and at which specific site of the ring affects lipid solubility the most?Your Answer: Aromatic group at position 5
Correct Answer: Sulphur atom at position 2
Explanation:Barbiturates are derived from barbituric acid, which itself is nondepressant, but appropriate side-chain substitutions result in CNS depressant activity that varies in potency and duration with carbon chain length, branching, and saturation.
Oxybarbiturates retain an oxygen atom on number 2-carbon atom of the barbituric acid ring.
Thiobarbiturates replace this oxygen atom with a sulphur atom, which confers greater lipid solubility. Generally speaking, a substitution such as sulphuration that increases lipid solubility is associated with greater hypnotic potency and more rapid onset, but shorter duration of action.
Addition of a methyl group to the nitrogen atom of the barbituric acid ring, as with oxybarbiturate methohexital, also results in a compound with a short duration of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced or consumed. They consist of weak acids and their conjugate bases. Buffers are also present in our bodies, and they are known as physiologic buffers.
Which of these is the most effective buffer in the blood?Your Answer: Bicarbonate
Explanation:The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).
Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.
The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to perform an inhalational induction because he is otherwise medically fit.
Which of the following is the most important factor in deciding which volatile anaesthetic agents to use?Your Answer: The low blood:gas solubility of sevoflurane
Explanation:The ideal volatile agent for a day case surgery inhalational induction should have the following characteristics:
It has a pleasant scent that is not overpowering.
Breathing difficulties, coughing, or laryngeal spasm are not caused by this substance.
The action has a quick onset and a quick reversal.The blood:gas partition coefficient is a physicochemical property of a volatile agent that determines the onset and offset of anaesthesia. The greater an agent’s insolubility in plasma, the faster its alveolar concentration rises.
The blood gas partition coefficients of the most commonly used volatile anaesthetic agents are as follows:
Halothane 2.3
Desflurane 0.45
Sevoflurane 0.6
Nitrous oxide 0.47
Isoflurane 1.4Although halothane has a pleasant odour, it has a slower offset than sevoflurane.
Sevoflurane also has a pleasant odour and is less likely than desflurane to cause airway irritation and breath-holding.
The choice of agent for inhalational induction is unaffected by potency/lipid solubility measures such as the oil: gas partition coefficient and MAC.
In this case, an agent’s saturated vapour pressure is irrelevant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child?
Your Answer: 5 ml
Explanation:Bupivacaine is used to decrease sensation in a specific area. It is injected around a nerve that supplies the area, or into the spinal canal’s epidural space.
The maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child is 5 ml
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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A patient in the post-anaesthesia care unit was put on ephedrine for episodes of hypotension. Initial bolus doses were effective and the patient became normotensive, until, a few hours later, there was a noticeable drop in the blood pressure despite administration of another dose of ephedrine.
Which of the following best explains the situation above?Your Answer: Tachyphylaxis
Explanation:When responsiveness diminishes rapidly after administration of a drug, the response is said to be subject to tachyphylaxis. This may be due to frequent or continuous exposure to agonists, which often results in short-term diminution of the receptor response.
Many mechanisms may be responsible, such as blocking access of G protein to activated receptor, or receptor molecules internalized by endocytosis to prevent exposure to extracellular molecules.
Tolerance occurs when larger doses are required to produce the same effect. This may be due to changes in receptor number or function due to exposure to the drug.
Desensitization refers to the common situation where the biological response to a drug diminishes when it is given continuously or repeatedly. It is a chronic loss of response, occurring over a longer period than tachyphylaxis. It may be possible to restore the response by increasing the dose (or concentration) of the drug but, in some cases, the tissues may become completely refractory to its effect.
Drug dependence is defined as a psychic and physical state of the person characterized by behavioural and other responses resulting in compulsions to take a drug, on a continuous or periodic basis in order to experience its psychic effect and at times to avoid the discomfort of its absence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: Is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline
Correct Answer: Urine output decreases due to inhibition of proximal tubule Na+ reabsorption
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of Dopamine dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline
Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An acidic drug with a pKA of 4.3 is injected intravenously into a patient.
At a normal physiological pH, the approximate ratio of ionised to unionised forms of this drug in the plasma is?Your Answer: 100:01:00
Correct Answer: 1000:01:00
Explanation:The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.
To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of an ACID, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.
pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])
or
pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised]).Hence, if the pKa − pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.
In this example:
7.4 = 4.3 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
7.4 − 4.3 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
log 3.1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:
y = antilog x = 10x
Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, 1 = 10, 2 =100, 3 = 1000, and 4 = 10,000.
If you want to find the antilogarithm of 3.1, for a number between 3 and 4, the antilogarithm will return a value between 1000 and 10,000. The ratio is 1:1 if pKa = pH, that is, pH pKa = log 0. (50 percent ionised and unionised).
According to the above value, there is only one unionised molecule for every approximately 1000 (1259) ionised molecules of this drug in plasma, implying that this drug is largely ionised in plasma (99.99 percent ).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil?
Your Answer: Relaxes the sphincter of Oddi
Correct Answer: Is less lipid soluble than fentanyl
Explanation:Alfentanil is less lipid-soluble than fentanyl and thus is less permeable to the membrane making it less potent.
Alfentanil is a phenylpiperidine opioid analgesic with rapid onset and shorter duration of action.
Alfentanil has less volume of distribution due to its high plasma protein binding (92%)
It can cause respiratory depression and can cause sedation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Correct
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Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane?
Your Answer: Less biodegradation
Explanation:Approximately 20% of halothane and 0.02% desflurane undergo hepatic biotransformation. Desflurane, halothane, and isoflurane are metabolised in the liver by cytochrome p450 to trifluoroacetate. Through an immunological mechanism involving trifluoroacetyl hapten formation, trifluoroacetate is thought to be responsible for hepatotoxicity.
Potency of inhaled anaesthetic agents is measured using the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC). The MAC of halothane is 0.74% while that of desflurane is 6.3%. The potency can also be compared using the oil: gas partition coefficient (224 and 18.7 for halothane and desflurane respectively).
Onset of action of volatile agents depends on the blood:gas partition coefficient. A lower blood:gas partition coefficient and insolubility in blood means faster onset and offset of action. The blood gas coefficient for halothane is 2.4 while that of desflurane is 0.42. Desflurane is less soluble than halothane in blood. Halothane has a pungent smell that can irritate the airway which limits its use for a gaseous induction especially in paediatric anaesthesia. desflurane is not pungent.
Desfluranes boiling point is only slightly above normal room temperature (22.8°C) making it extremely volatile while the boiling point of halothane is approximately 50.2°C.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male for emergency appendicectomy. The patient weight was 70 kg and a failed intubation indicated immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade.
Which of the following is the correct dose of sugammadex for this patient?Your Answer: 280 mg
Correct Answer: 1120 mg
Explanation:Sugammadex is used for immediate reversal of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade.
It is used at a dose of 16 mg/kg.Since the patient in the question is 70 kg, the required dose of sugammadex can be calculated as:
16×70 = 1120 mg.Sugammadex selectively binds rocuronium or vecuronium, thereby reversing their neuromuscular blocking action. Due to its 1:1 binding of rocuronium or vecuronium, it can reverse any depth of neuromuscular block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding enantiomers?
Your Answer: Naturally occurring drugs are mostly racemic mixtures
Correct Answer: Desflurane is a chiral compound
Explanation:A compound that contains an asymmetric centre (chiral atom or chiral centre) and thus can occur in two non-superimposable mirror-image forms (enantiomers) are called chiral compounds.
Desflurane, Halothane, and isoflurane are chiral compounds but Sevoflurane is not a chiral compound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Correct
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Which of the following statement is true about Loop diuretics?
Your Answer: Are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure
Explanation:Loop diuretics act by causing inhibition of Na+ K+ 2Cl– symporter present at the luminal membrane of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid, furosemide, piretanide, tripamide, and mersalyl are the important members of this group
The main use of loop diuretics is to remove the oedema fluid in renal, hepatic, or cardiac diseases. Thus they are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure. These can be administered i.v. for prompt relief of acute pulmonary oedema (due to vasodilatory action).
Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, alkalosis, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricemia, and dyslipidaemia are seen with both thiazides as well as loop diuretics
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?
Your Answer: Inhibits Glucagon secretion in the pancreas
Explanation:Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas. It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Correct
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A caudal epidural block is planned for a 6-year-old child scheduled for an inguinoscrotal hernia repair under general anaesthesia. The weight of the child is 20kg.
The most important safety aspect the anaesthetist must keep in mind while performing the block is?Your Answer: Limiting the bupivacaine dose to no more than 40 mg
Explanation:Choosing an appropriate dose of local anaesthetic to reduce the chance of toxicity is the most important safety aspect in performing a caudal block.
The caudal will have to be inserted following induction of anaesthesia as performing it in an awake child is not a viable option.
The patient is placed in the lateral position and the sacral hiatus is identified. Under strict asepsis, a needle ( usually a 21-23FG needle) is advanced at an angle of approximately 55-65° to the coronal plane at the apex of the sacrococcygeal membrane. When there is loss of resistance, thats the endpoint. The needle must first be aspirated before anaesthetic agent is injected because there is a risk (1 in 2000) of perforating the dura or vascular puncture.
Alternatively, a 22-gauge plastic cannula can be used. Following perforation of the sacrococcygeal membrane, the stilette is removed and only the blunter plastic cannula is advanced. This reduces the risk of intravascular perforation.
Eliciting an appropriate end motor response at an appropriate current strength when the caudal and epidural spaces are stimulated helps in improving the efficacy and safety of neural blockade. A 22G insulated needle is advanced in the caudal canal until a pop is felt. If the needle is placed correctly, an anal sphincter contractions (S2 to S4) is seen when an electrical stimulation of 1-10 mA is applied.
The application of ultrasound guidance in identification of the caudal epidural space has been shown to prevent inadvertent dural puncture and to increase the safety and efficacy of the block in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except:
Your Answer: Is an NMDA agonist
Correct Answer: Maintains carbon dioxide reactivity
Explanation:Nitrous oxide increases cerebral blood flow by direct cerebral stimulation and tends to elevate intracranial pressure (ICP)
It increases the cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen consumption (CMRO2)
It is not an NMDA agonist as it antagonizes NMDA receptors.
Cerebral autoregulation is impaired with the use of nitrous oxide but when used with propofol, it is maintained.
Carbon dioxide reactivity is not affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements below would best describe the receptor response to an opioid mu receptor agonist such as fentanyl?
Your Answer: The relationship between the dose and response plotted graphically is sigmoid
Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:Agonists activate the receptor as a direct result of binding to it with a characteristic affinity. Moreover, intrinsic activity of an agonist to its receptor determines the ability to create a maximal response.
Responses to low doses of a drug usually increase in direct proportion to dose. As doses increase, however, the response increment diminishes; finally, doses may be reached at which no further increase in response can be achieved. The relationship formed between the dose and response when plotted graphically is hyperbolic. This also shows that even at low receptor occupancy, a maximal response may be produced.
Antagonists bind to receptors in the same affinity as agonists, but they have no intrinsic efficacy. They do not activate generation of signal. Instead, they interfere with the ability of the agonist to activate the receptor.
Partial agonists are similar to full agonists in that they have similar affinity to the target receptor, but they produce a lower response than full agonists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
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A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty for a fractured neck of the femur. Spinal anaesthesia using 10 mg of IV ketamine to aid positioning was decided to be used. This resulting block extended to T8 and she required boluses of metaraminol for hypotension.
She became profoundly hypertensive and had multiple ventricular ectopic beats on ECG following positioning in theatre.
Which of the following is the cause for this?Your Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:Ketamine is primarily used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia. It induces dissociative anaesthesia. But it is contraindicated in cardiovascular diseases such as unstable angina or poorly controlled hypertension.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) are primarily used as antidepressants which is important for the management of depression. These are second-line drugs next to SSRI. They work by competitively preventing re-uptake of amines (noradrenaline and serotonin) from the synaptic cleft so increasing their concentration. But TCA overdoses are toxic and have cardiovascular effects, central effects, and anticholinergics effects. Cardiovascular effects like prolonged QT and widened QRS at lower doses progressing to ventricular arrhythmias and refractory hypotension at higher doses can be life-threatening. When used in the perioperative period, it can lead to increased sensitivity to circulating catecholamines therefore care is needed perioperatively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
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All the following statements are false regarding carbamazepine except
Your Answer: Blocks T-type calcium channels
Correct Answer: Has neurotoxic side effects
Explanation:Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, and Valproate act by inhibiting the sodium channels when these are open. These drugs also prolong the inactivated stage of these channels (Sodium channels are refractory to stimulation till these reach the closed/ resting phase from inactivated phase)
Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for partial seizures and trigeminal neuralgia
It can have neurotoxic side effects. Major neurotoxic effects include dizziness, headache, ataxia, vertigo, and diplopia
After single oral doses of carbamazepine, the absorption is fairly complete and the elimination half-life is about 35 hours (range 18 to 65 hours). During multiple dosing, the half-life is decreased to 10-20 hours, probably due to autoinduction of the oxidative metabolism of the drug.
It is metabolized in liver into active metabolite, carbamazepine-10,11-epoxide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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