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Question 1
Incorrect
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Mutation in RB can lead to the formation of which cancer?
Your Answer: Colorectal carcinoma
Correct Answer: Retinoblastoma
Explanation:Patients with a history of autosomal dominant familial retinoblastoma have at least one mutated copy of the RB gene. This predisposes the patient to develop retinoblastoma in one or both the eyes. Patients with a family history should be screened properly so that it can be detected and treated as early as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of:
Your Answer: K+
Correct Answer: Na+
Explanation:Initial depolarization of the cardiac muscle results from opening of the sodium voltage gated channels. This results in the influx of sodium and an increase in the membrane potential towards threshold. Potassium efflux results in repolarization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which afferent information is carried by the dorsal column?
Your Answer: Non discriminative touch
Correct Answer: Proprioception/ discriminative touch
Explanation:The posterior grey column (dorsal column) is responsible for carrying the sensation of proprioception, two-point discrimination, and vibration to the nucleus proprius, situated anterior to the substantia gelatinosa throughout the spinal cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an example of a ketone body?
Your Answer: Malonyl CoA
Correct Answer: Acetoacetate
Explanation:Ketone bodies are three water-soluble molecules (acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate, and their spontaneous breakdown product, acetone) that are produced by the liver from fatty acids during periods of low food intake (fasting), carbohydrate restrictive diets, starvation, prolonged intense exercise, alcoholism or in untreated (or inadequately treated) type 1 diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolism
- Physiology
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Question 5
Correct
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Which heart sounds are matched correctly?
Your Answer: All of the above
Explanation:In healthy adults, there are two normal heart sounds often described as a lub and a dub (or dup), that occur in sequence with each heartbeat. These are the first heart sound (S1) and second heart sound (S2), produced by the closing of the atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves, respectively. In addition to these normal sounds, a variety of other sounds may be present including heart murmurs, adventitious sounds, and gallop rhythms S3 and S4. S3 is thought to be caused by the oscillation of blood back and forth between the walls of the ventricles initiated by blood rushing in from the atria. The reason the third heart sound does not occur until the middle third of diastole is probably that during the early part of diastole, the ventricles are not filled sufficiently to create enough tension for reverberation. S4 when audible in an adult is called a presystolic gallop or atrial gallop. This gallop is produced by the sound of blood being forced into a stiff or hypertrophic ventricle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 6
Correct
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Where is Müllerian inhibiting substance (MIS) secreted?
Your Answer: Sertoli cells
Explanation:Müllerian inhibiting substance, also known as Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) or Müllerian-inhibiting hormone (MIH) is a glycoprotein hormone which prevents the development of the Müllerian ducts into the uterus. Its production by Sertoli cells continues during childhood in males and decreases after puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 7
Correct
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The principal enzyme of lipid digestion is:
Your Answer: Lipase
Explanation:Lipase is the principle enzyme that digest lipids. Amylase digest carbohydrates. Colipase is a co-enzyme that optimize the activity of lipase. Trypsin digest proteins and cholesterol esterase digest cholesterol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Choose the most correct missing words to complete the statement: A portion of circulating growth hormone is bound to the ____ receptor and activates the ____ pathway that mediates its effect.
Your Answer: Jak 2stat, lipolysis
Correct Answer: Growth hormone receptor (extracellular domain), jak 2stat
Explanation:The growth hormone receptor is a transmembrane protein involved in the STATs, MAPK and PI3-kinase/Akt pathways. The JAK-STAT signalling pathway is activated by different ligands, such as growth hormone, interferon and interleukin. This pathway is involved in the expression of genes associated with oncogenesis, immunity, proliferation, differentiation and apoptosis. Errors in these pathways can produce leukaemia’s and other myeloproliferative disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Activation of the cool receptor (CMR-1), causes:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Cold and Menthol receptor 1 (CMR1) is a protein that in humans is encoded by TRPM8 gene. It is an ion channel which upon activation causes the influx of Na+ and Ca++ ions into the cell that leads to the depolarization and generation of an action potential.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Question 11
Incorrect
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The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Germ cells
Explanation:Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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In meiosis, the period of prophase 1 involves:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Replicated DNA condensing to form visible chromosomes
Explanation:Prophase 1 has been divided into five different stages (laptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis). In prophase 1, chromosomes are going to condense to become visible, each chromosome will contain two chromatids that are joined at the centromere.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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The coronary arteries fill during?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diastole
Explanation:During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure due to contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the subendocardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The HIV virus:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: P24 is a core protein
Explanation:HIV is different in structure from other retroviruses. It is roughly spherical with a diameter of about 120 nm, around 60 times smaller than a red blood cell. It is composed of two copies of positive single-stranded RNA that codes for the virus’s nine genes enclosed by a conical capsid composed of 2,000 copies of the viral protein p24. The single-stranded RNA is tightly bound to nucleocapsid proteins, p7, and enzymes needed for the development of the virion such as reverse transcriptase, proteases, ribonuclease and integrase. A matrix composed of the viral protein p17 surrounds the capsid ensuring the integrity of the virion particle. Reverse transcriptase copies the viral single stranded RNA genome into a double-stranded viral DNA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Choose the correct answer: fibers in the superior cerebellar peduncle:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Are mainly ventral spinocerebellar tracts from the cerebellar nuclei to the thalamus and red nucleus
Explanation:There are three cerebellar peduncles with different connections and functions. The three are mainly, superior, middle and inferior. The superior cerebellar peduncle is also known as the “Brachium conjunctivum”. It predominantly contains efferent fibers from the cerebellar nuclei, as well as some afferents from the spinocerebellar tract. The efferent pathways include cerebellorubral, dentatothalamic, and fastigioreticular fibers. These are tracts projecting from the deep cerebellar nuclei to the thalamus and red nucleus. The middle cerebellar peduncle connects to the pontine nucleus and the dorsal spinocerebellar tracts run through the superior cerebellar peduncle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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The inverse stretch reflex causing muscle relaxation when excessive force is applied to a muscle is mediated by which sensory organ?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Golgi tendon organ
Explanation:Both the muscle spindle and Golgi tendon body are proprioceptors. The Golgi tendon reflex is a normal component of the reflex arc of the peripheral nervous system. In a Golgi tendon reflex, skeletal muscle contraction causes the antagonist muscle to simultaneously lengthen and relax. This reflex is also called the inverse myotatic reflex, because it is the inverse of the stretch reflex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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The chemosensitive area in the medulla responds to:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High hydrogen and high carbon dioxide
Explanation:The chemosensitive area in the medulla responds mainly to high pH levels and carbon dioxide levels. Baroreceptors in the carotid and aortic body respond mainly to oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressure in blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 27 year old man presents with a regular tachycardia of 190 bpm. He is healthy and has no past medical history. Blood pressure and bloods are all within normal parameters however the ECG confirms a narrow complex tachycardia. The tachycardia persists after giving IV adenosine 3mg and then 6mg. What should be the next step in management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV 12mg adenosine
Explanation:For narrow complex tachycardias with no compromise then vagal manoeuvres should be trialled first. The Valsalva manoeuvre should be the first vagal manoeuvre tried and works by increasing intra-thoracic pressure and affecting baroreceptors (pressure sensors) within the arch of the aorta. It is carried out by asking the patient to hold his/her breath while trying to exhale forcibly as if straining during a bowel movement. Adenosine, an ultra-short-acting AV nodal blocking agent, is indicated if vagal manoeuvres are not effective. Adenosine may be safely used during pregnancy. After giving 3mg of adenosine with no effect, 6mg should be tried. If this fails then 12mg should be trialled. If adenosine fails then Verapamil or a beta blocker can be used as alternatives. If the patient is hemodynamically unstable or other treatments have not been effective, synchronized electrical cardioversion may be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The ‘c’ wave in JVP corresponds more closely with……
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isovolumetric contraction
Explanation:The jugular venous pressure (JVP, sometimes referred to as jugular venous pulse) is the indirectly observed pressure over the venous system via visualization of the internal jugular vein. It can be useful in the differentiation of different forms of heart and lung disease. Classically three upward deflections (peaks) and two downward deflections (troughs) have been described:The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling.The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Selectins
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interact with carbohydrate ligands or mucin complexes on leucocytes and endothelial cells
Explanation:Selectins are involved in constitutive lymphocyte homing, and in chronic and acute inflammation processes, including post-ischemic inflammation. Each selectin has a carbohydrate recognition domain that mediates binding to specific glycans on apposing cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Eosinophils provide immunity against
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multi cellular parasites
Explanation:Eosinophils, are a variety of white blood cells and one of the immune system components responsible for combating multicellular parasites and certain infections in vertebrates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The pathway responsible for the discriminative aspect of pain, is called the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neospinothalamic tract
Explanation:The spinothalamic tract is an ascending or a sensory tract, responsible for transmission of pain and temperature. The neospinothalamic tract is responsible for fast pain or discriminative pain whereas the palaeospinothalamic tract is responsible for transmission of slow pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Cardiac myocytes contract by excitation-contraction coupling, very much like skeletal myocytes. On the other hand, calcium-induced calcium release (CICR) is a mechanism that is unique to Cardiac myocytes. The influx of calcium ions (Ca 2+) into the cell causes a 'calcium spark,' which causes more ions to be released into the cytoplasm. In CICR, which membrane protein in the sarcoplasmic reticulum is involved?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ryanodine receptor
Explanation:Cardiac myocytes contract by excitation-contraction coupling, just like skeletal myocytes. Heart myocytes, on the other hand, utilise a calcium-induced calcium release mechanism that is unique to cardiac muscle (CICR). The influx of calcium ions (Ca2+) into the cell causes a ‘calcium spark,’ which causes more ions to be released into the cytoplasm. An influx of sodium ions induces an initial depolarisation, much as it does in skeletal muscle; however, in cardiac muscle, the inflow of Ca2+ sustains the depolarisation, allowing it to remain longer. Due to potassium ion (K+) inflow, CICR causes a plateau phase in which the cells remain depolarized for a short time before repolarizing. Skeletal muscle, on the other hand, repolarizes almost instantly. The release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is required for calcium-induced calcium release (CICR). This is mostly accomplished by ryanodine receptors (RyR) on the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane; Ca2+ binds to RyR, causing additional Ca2+ to be released.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Where do the spinothalamic axons decussate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinal cord
Explanation:The second order neurons from the spinothalamic tract cross obliquely to the opposite side in the anterior grey and white commissure within one segment of the spinal cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Where in the gastrointestinal tract are Brunner glands?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:Brunner’s glands (or duodenal glands) are compound tubular submucosal glands found in that portion of the duodenum which is above the hepatopancreatic sphincter (aka sphincter of Oddi). The main function of these glands is to produce a mucus-rich alkaline secretion (containing bicarbonate) in order to:- protect the duodenum from the acidic content of chyme (which is introduced into the duodenum from the stomach);- provide an alkaline condition for the intestinal enzymes to be active, thus enabling absorption to take place; lubricate the intestinal walls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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On which chromosome is the gene for insulin located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chromosome 11
Explanation:Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, and usually, two pairs of copies of chromosome 11. It is one of the most complex, gene-rich chromosomes in the human genome, and it is associated with a number of diseases. Studies have shown they the human insulin gene is located on the short arm of chromosome 11.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Where would one normally find venous valves?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Saphenous vein
Explanation:The intima of the limb veins is folded at intervals to form venous valves that prevent retrograde flow. There are no valves present in the very small veins, the great veins, or the veins in the brain and viscera.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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The nucleus tractus solitaries is medullary nucleus that processes the following inputs except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sensory input from the semi-circular canal (CN VIII)
Explanation:Located in the brain stem is a series of purely sensory nuclei known as tractus solitaries. Inputs of the nucleus tractus solitaries include:Taste information from the facial nerve (anterior 2/3 of the tongue), glossopharyngeal nerve (posterior 1/3) and vagus nerve (small area on the epiglottis).Sensory information from the ear (auricular branch of the vagus nerve).Chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors of the general visceral afferent pathway (GVA) in the carotid body via glossopharyngeal nerve, aortic bodies, and the sinoatrial node, via the vagus nerve.Chemically and mechanically sensitive neurons of the general visceral afferent pathway (GVA) with endings located in the heart, lungs, airways, gastrointestinal system, pharynx, and liver via the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Regarding DNA cloning and sequencing, all of the following are true, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Yeast artificial chromosomes ( yacs) are vectors
Explanation:Yeast chromosomes cannot be used as a vector. All the rest are true. Vectors can be bacteria, viruses and plasmids. DNA ligase binds the DNA fragment to the host DNA after insertion. Fluorescence can be used to visualize them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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The coronary arteries supply which part of the heart’s subendocardial region exclusively in diastole?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left ventricle
Explanation:It is only during diastole that the blood flows to the subendocardial portion of the left ventricle, as the heart muscle relaxes and the coronary arteries regain their patency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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The branche(s) of the left coronary artery are
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A and b
Explanation:Posterior descending artery comes from Right coronary artery. The anterior interventricular artery is otherwise known as the anterior descending branch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Southern Blotting and DNA probes
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting
Explanation:Restriction enzymes always cut at different positions. There are different restriction endonucleases for different nucleotide sequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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What landmark divides the frontal and parietal lobes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central sulcus
Explanation:The central sulcus divides the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. It contains the motor cells for the movement function of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Free radicals are best defined by which of the following statements.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atoms or molecules with unpaired electrons
Explanation:Free radicals form when one of weak bond between electrons is broken and an uneven number of electrons remain. This means the electron is unpaired, making it chemically reactive and attempt to steal an electron from a neighbouring molecule to stabilize itself.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Myelin sheath in the CNS is produced by?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oligodendrocytes
Explanation:CNS myelin is produced by special cells called oligodendrocytes. PNS myelin is produced by Schwann cells. The two types of myelin are chemically different, but they both perform the same function — to promote efficient transmission of a nerve impulse along the axon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describe N. Meningitides?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gram negative cocci
Explanation:Neisseria meningitidis, often referred to as meningococcus, is a gram negative bacterium that can cause meningitis and other forms of meningococcal disease such as meningococcaemia, a life-threatening sepsis. The bacterium is referred to as a coccus because it is round, and more specifically, diplococcus because of its tendency to form pairs. About 10% of adults are carriers of the bacteria in their nasopharynx.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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The major factor in controlling coronary artery blood flow is considered to be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metabolites of oxygen consumption
Explanation:There is a strong relationship between myocardial blood flow and oxygen consumption. This indicates that products of metabolism may cause vasodilation of the coronary artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase in Ca, increase in phosphate
Explanation:Bone and its metabolism are regulated by several hormones, amongst which is vitamin D. It is heavily involved in the metabolism and homeostasis of calcium and phosphate through several processes. Vitamin D works in the intestine, kidney, bone and parathyroid glands to maintain levels of calcium and phosphate, promoting its absorption, bone resorption, and proper functioning of the parathyroid to maintain adequate serum calcium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Which ventral (motor) root is responsible for triceps?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C7
Explanation:Of the nerve fibers that make up the brachial plexus, C7 mainly forms the radial nerve to innervate the triceps muscle, thus innervating the shoulders, elbow, wrist and hand. C7 is responsible for the triceps reflex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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What is the average life span of red blood cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 months
Explanation:Approximately 2.4 million new erythrocytes are produced per second in human adults. The cells develop in the bone marrow and circulate for about 100–120 days (4 months) in the body before their components are recycled by macrophages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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The hyperpolarization phase of pacemaker cells is dominated by ____ current.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: K+
Explanation:The hyperpolarization phase is a continuation of the repolarization phase but the membrane potential dips below the resting membrane potential. This results due to the fact that the K+ channels take a longer time to close than the Na+ channels. Hence efflux of the K+ will result in hyperpolarization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the options are true
Explanation:All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Which enzyme hydrolyses triglycerides in lipoproteins into free fatty acids for storage in fat cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lipoprotein lipase
Explanation:Lipoprotein lipase is a water-soluble enzyme that hydrolyses triglycerides in lipoproteins, such as those found in chylomicrons and very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL), into two free fatty acids and one monoacylglycerol molecule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolism
- Physiology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Which of the following cells will degranulate and release histamine when binding to IgE?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Basophils
Explanation:Basophils have protein receptors on their cell surface that bind IgE, an immunoglobulin involved in microparasite defence and allergy. When activated, basophils degranulate to release histamine, proteoglycans (e.g. heparin and chondroitin), and proteolytic enzymes (e.g. elastase and lysophospholipase).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Which statement about X linked dominant disorders is FALSE?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heterozygous females tend to have the disease more severely than affected males.
Explanation:Women who have the affected X chromosome will be affected, but the severity will be less than that in males as they have a normal X chromosome to counter the effect of the mutated X chromosome. Affected males will pass on the defect to their daughters 100% of the time but not to their sons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs have the best gram positive cover?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glycopeptides
Explanation:Cephalosporin has a mixed coverage of gram positive and negative organisms. Aminoglycosides are active against gram negative aerobic bacteria. Quinolones mainly cover gram negative bacteria. Monobactams primarily cover infections caused by gram negative bacteria. Glycopeptides are antibiotics effective primarily against gram positive cocci.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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When one of the two copies of the autosomes has a mutation and the protein produced by the normal form of the gene cannot compensate. The affected individual has an:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant disorder
Explanation:An autosomal dominant trait will be expressed no matter the consequence. If one chromosome has a mutation the other will not be able to compensate for the mutation hence the protein formed will be mutated and will not function properly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
