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Question 1
Incorrect
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A lactating mother has developed a breast abscess. Which organism is the most common?
Your Answer: Strep faecalis
Correct Answer: Staph aureus
Explanation:Staph aureus is the most common causative organism of skin and soft tissue infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Consider you are looking after a male baby in neonatal unit. Case chart shows that his mother has been abusing intravenous drugs until late this pregnancy.
You will not discharge this baby home after delivery in all of the following conditions except?Your Answer: Suspected baby neglect
Correct Answer: Weight loss greater than two percent of birth weight
Explanation:If a mother has been abusing drugs during antenatal period, there are some contraindications to discharge her baby home. These conditions includes:
– excessive weight loss, which is greater than ten percent of birth weigh
– suspected baby neglect or abuse
– suspected domestic violence
– a court order preventing baby from being discharged home or if there is requirement for further assessment of withdrawal symptoms.A 2-3 percentages weight loss during the early neonatal period is considered to be a normal finding and is therefore not considered as a contraindication to discharge the baby home.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old woman visits a gynaecological clinic for a check-up. A cervical screening test is performed by the doctor. HPV Type Non-16/18 is detected in her cervical cytology. Squamous cells and other abnormalities were found to be absent in the reflex liquid-based cytology.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?Your Answer: Discuss the case with gynaecologist
Correct Answer: Repeat Cervical screening test in 12 months
Explanation:A cervical screening test was performed on this patient, and the result revealed the presence of the Human Papilloma Virus Type non-16/18. Reflex liquid base cytology was conducted, but no further abnormalities were seen. In this case, the patient should be offered a 12-month repeat cervical screening cytology. If the patient’s repeated cervical screening cytology after 12 months revealed LSIL, she should be referred for a colposcopy.
If HPV is discovered at 12 months, regardless of the LBC result, some women may be at higher risk of having high-grade abnormalities and should be referred to colposcopy. These include:
– women 2 or more years overdue for screening at the time of the initial screen
– women who identify as being of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander
– women aged 50 years or older.Summary of recommended actions based on the level of risk
Intermediate danger:
– HPV non-16/18 positive, intermediate risk (with negative or low-grade cytology)
If feasible, repeat the HPV test after 12 months.
A three-to-six-month delay would be acceptable. Delays of longer than six months are discouraged.
Follow up HPV test – HPV non 16/18 (possible high grade cytology or high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) – Treated as Higher risk.High-risk:
HPV non-16/18 positive on follow-up HPV test (with negative or low-grade cytology)
Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.If your patient is: 2 years or more past due for screening at the time of the initial screening, and identifies as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander aged 50 or older, they may be at higher risk and should be referred to a professional at once for additional evaluation.
HPV 16/18 positive with any of the following non–16/18 positive: a glandular anomaly in high-grade cytology high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) cancer. Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.
Currently, several colposcopy facilities are experiencing strong demand and extended wait times. If you are concerned that your patient will be delayed, you should call the specialist or clinic to which your patient has been referred.
On the Cure Test Pathway, wherever possible, continue testing as planned. A woman who has been treated for HSIL (CIN2/3) should have a 12-month follow-up co-test and annual tests after that. She can resume standard 5-yearly screening after receiving two consecutive negative co-tests. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 10 day old infant present with signs of disseminated Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) infection. Her mother had her first episode of HSV three weeks prior to delivery. The infant was treated with antivirals upon clinical suspicion. What is the case fatality rate of infants who develop disseminated HSV despite treatment?
Your Answer: 5%
Correct Answer: 30%
Explanation:Congenital Herpes Simplex Virus infection may cause high levels of morbidity and mortality in neonates. Risk of infection with HSV 1 and 2 is highest within 6 weeks of delivery and is transferred to the neonate via maternal secretions at birth. Affected babies can present as skin manifestations, CNS infection, or disseminated infection, which carries an 85% risk of mortality if left untreated. Treatment with high dose antivirals such as acyclovir can help decrease the case mortality rate to 30% in cases of disseminated infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal head during labour?
Your Answer: Pubic arch
Correct Answer: Ischial Spine
Explanation:The ischial spines and palpable through the vagina and are used as landmarks to assess the decent of the fetal head from the cervix. It also serves as a landmark for giving the pudendal block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The posterior scrotal artery is a branch of which artery?
Your Answer: Ilioinguinal
Correct Answer: Internal Pudendal
Explanation:The posterior scrotal artery is a terminal branch of the perineal artery which is a branch of the internal pudendal artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the average volume of blood loss during the menstrual cycle?
Your Answer: 80-85ml
Correct Answer: 35-40ml
Explanation:Normal menstrual blood loss is about 40-45 ml. More than 80 ml per period is defined as heavy menstrual bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 8
Correct
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A couple present to the fertility clinic after failing to conceive despite trying for 2.5 years. The semen analysis shows azoospermia. You perform a full examination of the male partner which reveals Height 192cm, BMI 20.5, small testes and scant facial hair. You decide to organise karyotyping. What is the result likely to show?
Your Answer: 47XXY
Explanation:Klinefelter syndrome is associated with testicular atrophy, eunuchoid body shape, tall, long extremities, female hair distribution and gynaecomastia. It is a common cause of hypogonadism seen during fertility workup.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A patient is attending for medical abortion. She is 15 weeks gestation. She has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate regarding antibiotic prophylaxis?
Your Answer: Stat dose metronidazole 800mg orally at time of abortion
Correct Answer: Stat Azithromycin 1g and metronidazole 800 mg orally at time of abortion
Explanation:If the patient has a negative Chlamydia screen then a stat dose of metronidazole monotherapy is appropriate. You do not know this patients Chlamydia status and therefore dual therapy with metronidazole + doxycycline or azithromycin is appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that she was previously an intravenous drug abuser. There were unremarkable first-trimester investigations, except for her chronic Hepatitis B infection.
All of the following statements is considered true regarding Hepatitis B infection during pregnancy, except:Your Answer: Woman with a high viral load in the third trimester should be offered antiviral therapy
Correct Answer: A Screening for HBV is not recommended for a pregnant woman with previous vaccination
Explanation:The principal screening test for detecting maternal HBV infection is the serologic identification of HBsAg. Screening should be performed in each pregnancy, regardless of previous HBV vaccination or previous negative HBsAg test results.
A test for HBsAg should be ordered at the first prenatal visit. Women with unknown HBsAg status or with new or continuing risk factors for HBV infection (e.g., injection drug use or a sexually transmitted infection) should be screened at the time of admission to a hospital or other delivery setting.
Interventions to prevent perinatal transmission of HBV infection include screening all pregnant women for HBV, vaccinating infants born to HBV-negative mothers within 24 hours of birth, and completing the HBV vaccination series in infants by age 18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 34-year-old woman presents with a two-year history of secondary infertility.
She has a three year old child who was fathered by the same partner. This first child was conceived spontaneously and delivered normally following a short labour.
Her medical history includes irregular menstrual cycles, with periods occurring every three to four months.
A pelvic ultrasound reveals 15-20 small cysts (4- 6 mm in diameter) in each ovary.
Semen analysis, of her partner, shows a sperm count of ten million per mL, with 50% motility and 30% abnormal forms.
Which one of the following is the best next step to treat her infertility?Your Answer: Treatment with metformin.
Explanation:The clinical diagnosis of polycystic ovaries (PCO) is confirmed by the ultrasound. Therefore, the best next step to treat this woman’s infertility is to start treatment with metformin (correct answer). Patients with polycystic ovaries, frequently develop insulin resistance and metformin has been shown to be beneficial in this situation. Metformin treatment corrects any metabolic abnormalities and decreases insulin resistance resulting in a return of normal ovulatory menstrual cycles and a rapid improvement in fertility.
Additional treatment with clomiphene citrate may be required in some patients but gonadotrophin therapy is no longer commonly used.
Clomiphene citrate could also have been recommended as a possible next treatment option since the available data indicate that both clomiphene and metformin are equally effective.
Laparoscopic ovarian drilling has been used previously to treat polycystic ovaries; however, it is only used nowadays when all other treatment methods have been ineffective.
Similarly, gonadotrophin therapy or in vitro fertilisation would not be the best next step to treat the infertility and they are used when other treatment options have not provided the required results.
Even though changes in the semen analysis have been noted since the first pregnancy was achieved, these are not likely to be the cause of the secondary infertility, particularly because the current semen analysis is not significantly abnormal. Therefore, it is unlikely that donor insemination would be needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her pregnancy. Pap smear reveals that she has HSIL. What is the next best step in management?
Your Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:Pregnant women with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) on cervical cytology should be evaluated with colposcopy. Principles of management of pregnant women include the following:
– An immediate diagnostic excisional procedure should NOT be performed.
– When colposcopy is performed during pregnancy:
– Endocervical sampling with a curette and endometrial sampling should NOT be performed, as there is a risk of disturbing the pregnancy; however, the endocervical canal may be sampled gently with a cytobrush.
– Cervical biopsy should be performed only if a lesion is present that appears to be high grade or suspicious for cancer.
– If the examination is unsatisfactory, repeating the colposcopy after 6 to 12 weeks should allow visualization of the entire squamocolumnar junction.There is no indication for inducing abortion or performing a hysterectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following ultrasound findings form part of the Rotterdam criteria for diagnosis of PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome) ?
Your Answer: Increased ovarian volume >10cm3
Explanation:The Rotterdam criteria for the diagnosis of PCOS is based on a score of two out of the three criteria:
1) Oligo or anovulation
2) Hyperandrogenism – clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone)
3) on ultrasound – contain 12 or more follicles measuring 2 to 9 mm in diameter and/or have an increased volume of 10 cm3 or greater. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 14
Incorrect
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All of the following complications can be found in a pregnant patient with a bicornuate uterus, except?
Your Answer: Abnormal fetal lie
Correct Answer: Polyhydramnios
Explanation:Women with a bicornuate uterus are at increased risk of recurrent abortions, premature birth, fetal malpositioning, placenta previa and retained products of placenta leading to post partum haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes the muscles assessed by urodynamic testing?
Your Answer: Detrusor, levator ani and abdominal muscles
Correct Answer: Detrusor and urethral sphincter muscles
Explanation:Urodynamics is a broad term that comprises cytometry, urethral pressure measurement, leak point pressure, pressure flow studies, EMG and videourodynamics. They assess the function of the bladder and urethra as a functional unit. This may provide information such as the site of bladder outlet obstruction, overactivity of the detrusor and sphincter weakness. In muscular terms the detrusor and sphincter muscles are being assessed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Mifepristone when used for management of abortion works via what mechanism?
Your Answer: Anti-oestrogen
Correct Answer: Anti-progestogen
Explanation:Mifepristone is a prostaglandin antagonist. It acts as a competitive inhibitor of the receptor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Among the statements given below which one is correct regarding shoulder dystocia?
Your Answer: Oxytocin augmentation reduces the risk of shoulder dystocia
Correct Answer: Erb palsy is common fetal injury
Explanation:Shoulder dystocia occurs when the bisacromial diameter, which is the breadth of the shoulders, exceed the diameter of pelvic inlet. This typically results in a bony impaction of the anterior shoulder against the maternal symphysis pubis, instead of an arrest at the pelvic inlet. Brachial plexus palsies including Erb’s palsy is the most common foetal injury associated with shoulder dystocia.
It is not hyper-extension but the hyper-flexion of maternal legs tightly on her abdomen, called as McRoberts manoeuvre, which facilitates delivery during shoulder dystocia. This technique is effective as it increases the mobility of sacroiliac joint during pregnancy, which allows the rotation of pelvis and thereby facilitating the release of fetal shoulder.
If this manoeuvre does not succeed, another technique called suprapubic pressure is done where an assistant applies pressure on the lower abdomen and gently pulls the delivered head. This technique is useful in about 42% of cases with shoulder dystocia.Maternal diabetes mellitus and foetal macrosomia both are a risk factor for shoulder dystocia.
Administration of epidural anaesthesia during labour increases the possibility of shoulder dystocia.
Risk of shoulder dystocia may increase with Oxytocin augmentation also.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which one of the following features is associated with Turner's syndrome?
Your Answer: Normal height
Correct Answer: Primary amenorrhea
Explanation:Turner syndrome patients present with primary amenorrhea. These ladies have non functional or streak ovaries and they cant conceive. Their genetic traits is 45X. They have a shielded chest, webbed neck and low height. These patients suffer from primary amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old lady comes to your office with vaginal bleeding 7 hours after sexual intercourse. She hasn't had a menstrual period in over a year. A year ago, she had a normal pap smear. She has no other symptoms and appears to be in good condition.
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this woman's postcoital bleeding?Your Answer: Cervical cancer
Correct Answer: Vaginal atrophy
Explanation:Vaginal atrophy (thinning of vaginal tissue): Oestrogen helps to keep this tissue healthy. After menopause, low oestrogen levels can cause your vaginal walls to become thin, dry, and inflamed. That often leads to bleeding after sex.
Vaginal atrophy is the most common cause of post menopausal vaginal bleeding.
With a normal pap smear a year ago, this patient is unlikely to develop cervical cancer.
Cervical ectropions are not common in post-menopausal women.
Endometrial cancer and cervical polyps are possible causes of postcoital bleeding, however, they are not as common as vaginal atrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Correct
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?
Your Answer: pubic crest
Correct Answer: pubic arch
Explanation:Pelvic Outlet Boundaries Anteriorly: Pubic arch Laterally: Ischial tuberosities Posterolaterally: Inferior margin of the sacrotuberous ligament Posteriorly: Tip of the coccyx Note: The pelvis outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Oxytocin binds to what receptor type?
Your Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
Correct Answer: G-protein-coupled receptors
Explanation:Oxytocin binds to the G protein coupled receptors that triggers the IP3 mechanism leading to an elevated intracellular calcium ion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman complains of a greenish foul smelling discharge from her left nipple. She has experienced the same case before. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Breast abscess
Correct Answer: Duct ectasia
Explanation:Mammary duct ectasia occurs when the lactiferous duct becomes blocked or clogged. This is the most common cause of greenish discharge. Mammary duct ectasia can mimic breast cancer. It is a disorder of peri- or post-menopausal age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her gestation.
This is considered as the best time for which one of the following?Your Answer: Rubella screen
Correct Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:Between 18-20 weeks of gestation is the best time to perform an ultrasound for the identification of any physical or anatomical abnormalities including neural tube defects.
Maternal serum screening for Down syndrome is best performed between 15-17 weeks of pregnancy and this screening includes analysis of alpha fetoprotein, estriol, and beta-HCG in maternal blood. Conducting tests on accurate dates is necessary to obtain reliable results.
Amniocentesis which is very accurate for the diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies including Down syndrome, is best performed between 16-18 weeks of gestation and it carries a risk of 1 in 200 for miscarriage. Rh negative women will need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).
Chorionic villus sampling is best performed between 10-12 weeks of gestation and carries a 1 in 100 risk of miscarriage, this test is also very much accurate for diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies. Rh negative women need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).
It is best to perform rubella screen before conception than during pregnancy, this is because rubella vaccine is not recommended to be given to a pregnant mother as its a live vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You explain that additional testing is necessary because of the woman's increased risk of congenital anomalies in which system?
Your Answer: Tracheoesophageal
Correct Answer: Urinary
Explanation:Bicornuate uterus is associated with an increased chance of urinary tract anomalies. Urinary tract anomalies were present in about 23.6% of cases of bicornuate uterus patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 26
Correct
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With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle does DNA replication occur?
Your Answer: Interphase
Explanation:DNA replication occurs during S phase but that isn’t one of the options. Remember Interphase comprises G1,S and G2 phases!
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been ongoing for twelve months. She states that she has been thinking about starting a family and was wondering if ovulation induction therapy was an option for her.
Which one of the following would be most valuable in predicting a poor response to ovulation induction therapy?Your Answer: Serum thyroxine.
Correct Answer: Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
Explanation:The tests listed can all be performed during the work-up of a woman with secondary amenorrhoea. They are useful in that they cam diagnosis the most likely cause for the amenorrhoea as well as guide the treatment required if the patient wanted to become pregnant. Of these, the hormone test best able to predict a poor response to ovulation-induction therapy is the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) assay. If there are high levels of FSH, most of the ovulation-induction therapies are ineffective, although the rare spontaneous pregnancy can occur.
To maximise the chance of pregnancy in patients with elevated FSH levels, the most effective technique is an ovum donation from a young woman. The ovum would be fertilised in the laboratory and transferred to the uterus of the woman with the high FSH level after administering hormonal preparation of her uterus.
If the FSH level is normal, ovulation-induction therapy is usually effective. For these patients, correction of thyroid function will be necessary if the thyroid function is not normal. Dopamine agonist therapy is indicated if the prolactin level is elevated. Clomiphene or gonadotrophin therapy can be used where the luteinising and oestradiol levels are low, normal, or minimally elevated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Correct
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Fetal immunoglobulin production begins at what gestation?
Your Answer: Week 6
Correct Answer: Week 10
Explanation:Fetal production of immunoglobulin begins early on, at about 10 weeks gestation with the production of IgM antibodies. Maternal IgG, which is a key component of fetal immunity, is passed on to the foetus through the placenta from 12 weeks of gestation. Secretory IgA is not produced until after birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before 24 weeks gestation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has not been proven to have any significant benefits
Explanation:Routine ultrasonography at around 18-22 weeks gestation has become the standard of care in many communities. Acceptance is based on many factors, including patient preference, medical-legal pressure, and the perceived benefit by physicians. However, rigorous testing has found little scientific benefit for, or harm from, routine screening ultrasonography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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