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Question 1
Correct
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Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to compare efficacy and potency. Which of the following opioids has a log dose-response curve furthest to the right?
Your Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Lesser the potency of the drug, the higher the dose required to produce maximal receptor occupation. So, the least potent drug will have a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.
Based on the option given, tramadol is the least potent drug and thus higher dose is required to produce maximal opioid receptor occupation.
Thus, Tramadol is the least potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.
Note, Fentanyl is the most potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the left on the X-axis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the given statements is true about standard error of the mean?
Your Answer: Is the square root of standard deviation
Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases
Explanation:The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
SEM = SD / square root (n)
where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size
Therefore, the SEM gets smaller as the sample size (n) increases.
If we want to depict how widely scattered some measurements are, we use the standard deviation. For indicating the uncertainty around the estimate of the mean, we use the standard error of the mean. The standard error is most useful as a means of calculating a confidence interval. For a large sample, a 95% confidence interval is obtained as the values 1.96×SE either side of the mean.
A 95% confidence interval:
lower limit = mean – (1.96 * SEM)
upper limit = mean + (1.96 * SEM)
Results such as mean value are often presented along with a confidence interval. For example, in a study the mean height in a sample taken from a population is 183cm. You know that the standard error (SE) (the standard deviation of the mean) is 2cm. This gives a 95% confidence interval of 179-187cm (+/- 2 SE).
Hence, it would be wrong to say that confidence levels do not apply to standard error of the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 3
Correct
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The main site of storage of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland is?
Your Answer: Thyroglobulin
Explanation:The follicle is the functional unit of the thyroid gland. The follicular cells surround the follicle which is filled with colloid. Suspended within the colloid is the is a pro-hormone complex thyroglobulin.
The synthesis and storage of thyroid hormones is done by follicular cells and the thyroglobulin within the colloid.
Iodide ions (I−) are actively transported against a concentration gradient into the follicular cell under the influence of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). It then undergoes oxidation to active iodine catalysed by thyroid peroxidase (TPO). The synthesis of thyroglobulin is in the follicular cells and it contains up to 140 tyrosine residues. The tyrosine residues of thyroglobulin and active iodine are merged to form mono- and di-iodotyrosines (MIT and DIT). The iodinated thyroglobulin is then taken up into the colloid where it is stored and dimerised. Two DIT molecules are joined to produce thyroxine (T4) while one MIT and one DIT molecule are joined to produce tri-iodotyrosine (T3) by a process catalysed by TPO.
Thyroglobulin droplets are taken up as vesicles into follicular cells by pinocytosis. This process is stimulated by TSH. When these vesicles fuse with lysosomes, hydrolysis of the thyroglobulin molecules and subsequent release of T4 and T3 into the circulation occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?
Your Answer: ADH
Explanation:Oxytocin is structurally similar to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) and thus oxytocin can cause water intoxication (due to an ADH like action)
Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with ADH. It increases uterine contractions – the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and increases fluid reabsorption from the kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department. She complains of increased shortness of breath and wheezing over the last 48 hours. On examination, she is found to have tachycardia, tachypnoea, and oxygen saturation at 91% on air. She admits to a previous medical history of asthma, diagnosed 4 years ago. She requires further investigations for diagnosis.
Which of the following is true about the assessment of a patient with symptomatic asthma?Your Answer: Oxygen saturations of 91% on air would be an indication for performing arterial blood gases
Explanation:A patient presenting with symptomatic asthma should be assessed for severity to determine appropriate management options. Indications of acute severe asthma are:
Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR): 33-50% best/predicted
Respiratory rate: ≥25/min
Heart rate: ≥110/min
Inability to finish a complete sentence in a single breath.Oxygen saturation should be measured. Any measurement of an oxygen saturation of 92% or less, either on air or on oxygen, indicates severe, life threatening asthma, and requires an arterial blood gas (ABG) to detect normo- or hypercarbia.
A chest x-ray would not be routine as it will not provide any relevant information. It is only required in specific cases, including:
Diagnosis of a subcutaneous emphysema
Indications of a unilateral pneumothorax
Indications of a lobar collapse of consolidation
Treatment-resistance life-threatening asthma
If mechanical ventilation is indicatedA peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can provide relevant information to help distinguish between acute, moderate, severe and life threatening asthma. However, it is not necessary as other parameters exist that can also help make the same distinction.
An ECG is indicated in this case as the patient has tachycardia and tachypnoea which are indicative of acute severe asthma. The ECG would indicate if arrhythmia is also present which would suggest life-threatening asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 6
Correct
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A 72-year-old man complains of severe, central abdominal pain that radiates to the back. He has a past medical history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
A focused abdominal ultrasonography test (FAST) is performed, revealing diffuse dilatation of the abdominal aorta. The most prominent dilatation is at the bifurcation site of abdominal aorta into the iliac arteries.
What vertebra level corresponds to the site of the most prominent dilatation as evident on the FAST scan?Your Answer: L4
Explanation:The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The SI unit of measurement is kgm2s-2 in the System international d'unités (SI).
Which of the following derived units of measurement has this format?Your Answer: Pressure
Correct Answer: Energy
Explanation:The derived SI unit of force is Newton.
F = m·a (where a is acceleration)
F = 1 kg·m/s2The joule (J) is a converted unit of energy, work, or heat. When a force of one newton (N) is applied over a distance of one metre (Nm), the following amount of energy is expended:
J = 1 kg·m/s2·m =
J = 1 kg·m2/s2 or 1 kg·m2·s-2The unit of velocity is metres per second (m/s or ms-1).
The watt (W), or number of joules expended per second, is the SI unit of power:
J/s = kg·m2·s-2/s
J/s = kg·m2·s-3Pressure is measured in pascal (Pa) and is defined as force (N) per unit area (m2):
Pa = kg·m·s-2/m2
Pa = kg·m-1·s-2 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength?
Your Answer: X rays
Explanation:Electromagnetic waves are categorized according to their frequency or equivalently according to their wavelength. Visible light makes up a small part of the full electromagnetic spectrum.
Electromagnetic waves with shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies include ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma rays. Electromagnetic waves with longer wavelengths and lower frequencies include infrared light, microwaves, and radio and televisions waves.
Different electromagnetic waves according to their wavelength from shorter to longer are X-rays, ultraviolet radiations, visible light, infrared radiation, radio waves. X-ray among electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength and higher frequency with wavelengths ranging from 10*-8 to 10* -12 and corresponding frequencies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero amplitude, without overshoot?
Your Answer: Overdamping
Correct Answer: Critical damping
Explanation:A damped sine wave is a smooth, periodic oscillation with an amplitude that approaches zero as time goes to infinity. In other words, the wave gets flatter as the x-values become larger.
Critical damping is defined as the threshold between overdamping and underdamping. In the case of critical damping, the oscillator returns to the equilibrium position as quickly as possible, without oscillating, and passes it once at most.
In overdamping, the system moves slowly towards the equilibrium. An underdamped system moves quickly to equilibrium, but will oscillate about the equilibrium point as it does so.
Optimal damping has a damping coefficient of around 0.64-0.7. It maximizes frequency response, minimizes overshoot of oscillations, and minimizes phase and amplitude distortion.
In an undamped system, the amplitude of the waves that are being generated remain unchanged and constant over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?
Your Answer: Stimulates ACTH secretion
Explanation:Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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A log-dose response curve is plotted after drug A is given. The shape of this curve is sigmoid, with a maximum response of 100%.
The log-dose response curve of drug A shifts to the right with a maximum response of 100 percent when drug B is administered.
What does this mean in terms of drug B?Your Answer: Drug B has affinity for the receptor but has no intrinsic efficacy
Explanation:Drug A is a pure agonist for the receptor, with high intrinsic efficacy and affinity, according to the log-dose response curve.
Drug B, on the other hand, works as a competitive antagonist. It binds to the receptor but has no inherent efficacy. Drug A’s efficacy will not change, but its potency will be reduced.
A partial agonist is a drug with partial intrinsic efficacy and affinity for the receptor. Giving a partial agonist after a pure agonist will not increase receptor occupancy or decrease receptor activity, and thus will not affect drug A’s efficacy. The inverse agonist flumazenil can reverse all benzodiazepines.
An inverse agonist is a drug that binds to the receptor but has the opposite pharmacological effect.
A non-competitive antagonist is a drug that has affinity for a receptor but has different pharmacological effects and reduces the efficacy of an agonist for that receptor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing.
It's a non-irritating, sweet-smelling substance. It has a molecular weight of 170, a 0.6 blood:gas partition coefficient, and a 180 oil:gas partition coefficient. An oxidative pathway converts 2% of the substance to trifluoroacetic acid.
Which of the following statements best describes this agent's pharmacological profile?Your Answer: It has a lower molecular weight than isoflurane
Explanation:Because enflurane is much less soluble in blood and has a blood: gas partition coefficient of 1.8, both wash-in and wash-out should be faster.
Sevoflurane’s sweet-smelling, non-irritant nature, combined with a low blood: gas partition coefficient, would result in similar offset and onset characteristics.
Isoflurane and enflurane have a molecular weight of 184.
The oil: gas partition coefficient on a volatile agent is a measure of lipid solubility, potency, and thus MAC. Halothane has an oil: gas partition coefficient of 220 and a MAC of 0.74. One would expect the MAC to be higher with an oil gas partition coefficient of 180 (less lipid soluble).
The conversion of halothane (20%) to trifluoroacetic acid via oxidative metabolism has been linked to the development of hepatitis.
P450 2E1 converts sevoflurane to hexafluoroisopropanol, which results in the release of inorganic fluoride ions. It’s the only fluorinated volatile anaesthetic that doesn’t break down into trifluoracetic acid.
Desflurane is likely to cause airway irritation, which can lead to coughing, apnoea, and laryngospasm, despite its low blood:gas partition coefficient (0.42).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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Concerning the trachea, which of these is true?
Your Answer: In an adult is approximately 15 cm long
Explanation:In an adult, the trachea is approximately 15 cm long. It extends at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra, from the lower border of the cricoid cartilage.
The trachea terminates between T4 and T6 at the carina or bronchial bifurcation. This variation is because of changes during respiration.
The trachea has 16-20 C-shaped cartilaginous rings that maintain its patency.
The trachea is first of the 23 generations of air passages in the tracheobronchial tree (not 25), from the trachea to the alveoli..
The inferior thyroid arteries which are branches of the thyrocervical trunk, arise from the first part of the subclavian artery and supplies the trachea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Correct
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You're summoned to the emergency room, where a 39-year-old man has been admitted following a cardiac arrest. He was rescued from a river, but little else is known about him.
CPR is being performed on the patient, who has been intubated. He's received three DC shocks and is still in VF. A rectal temperature of 29.5°C is taken with a low-reading thermometer.
Which of the following statements about his resuscitation is correct?Your Answer: No further DC shocks and no drugs should be given until his core temperature is greater than 30°C
Explanation:The guidelines for the management of cardiac arrest in hypothermic patients published by the UK Resuscitation Council differ slightly from the standard algorithm.
In a patient with a core temperature of less than 30°C, do the following:
If you’re on the shockable side of the algorithm (VF/VT), you should give three DC shocks.
Further shocks are not recommended until the patient has been rewarmed to a temperature of more than 30°C because the rhythm is refractory and unlikely to change.
There should be no drugs given because they will be ineffective.In a patient with a core temperature of 30°C to 35°C, do the following:
DC shocks are used as usual.
Because they are metabolised much more slowly, the time between drug doses should be doubled.Active rewarming and protection against hyperthermia should be given to the patient.
Option e is false because there is insufficient information to determine whether resuscitation should be stopped.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning?
Your Answer: Opening of mitochondrial KATP channels
Explanation:Sevoflurane is highly fluorinated methyl isopropyl ether widely used as an inhalational anaesthetic. It is suggested that sevoflurane preconditioning occurs via the opening of mitochondrial Potassium ATP dependent channel similar to that of Ischemic Preconditioning protection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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In the Advanced Life Support algorithm, intravenous epinephrine 1mg every three to five minutes is indicated during in-hospital cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation (VF) following three DC shocks.
Which of the following indicates the most important reason for using epinephrine?Your Answer: Preferential distribution of blood to the coronary and cerebral circulation
Explanation:Epinephrine is used for the treatment of cardiac arrest because it causes vasoconstriction via the alpha-adrenergic (?1) receptor. This vasoconstriction increases cerebral and coronary blood flow by increasing mean arterial, aortic diastolic, and cerebral pressures. Furthermore, epinephrine is also a?1 and ?2 adrenoreceptor agonist which shows inotrope, chronotrope, and bronchodilator effects.
– Adrenaline is also used to prolong the duration of action and decrease the systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics.
– Preferred route of adrenaline in patients with cardiac arrest is i.v. followed by intra-osseous and endotracheal -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 53-year old female with a diagnosis of anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is admitted in the surgery department for an elective total thyroidectomy with radical neck dissection. The operation is expected to last for 10 hours.
Which of the following is the most suitable humidifier to use in an anaesthetic circuit for this case?Your Answer: Heat and moisture exchanger (HME)
Explanation:Adequate humidification is vital to maintain homeostasis of the airway. Heat and moisture exchangers conserve some of the exhaled water, heat and return them to inspired gases. Many heat and moisture exchangers also perform bacterial/viral filtration and prevent inhalation of small particles. Heat and moisture exchangers are also called condenser humidifier, artificial nose, etc. Most of them are disposable devices with exchanging medium enclosed in a plastic housing. For adult and paediatric age group different dead space types are available. Heat and moisture exchangers are helpful during anaesthesia and ventilatory breathing system. To reduce the damage of the upper respiratory tract through cooling and dehydration inspiratory air can be heated and humidified, thus preventing the serious complications. Moreover, they are the most appropriate humidification devices used for routine anaesthesia.
Gases can be bubbled through water to increase humidity. Passing gas through water at room temperature causes the gas to cool due to latent heat of vaporisation. The water bath can be heated. This improves the efficiency of the device and also reduces the incidence of bacterial colonisation.
Nebulisers use a venturi system which employs the Bernoulli effect. A gas at high flow passes through a constriction causing the gas to accelerate, reducing its potential energy allowing other gases or liquids to be entrained. This can include medications or in the case of humidification, water vapour. The size of the water droplet produced by nebulisation determines where in the airway it is deposited. Standard nebulisers produced droplets of 4 microns in diameter and these are deposited in the upper airway and trachea. Efficacy can be improved by passing the droplets over an anvil which further reduces particle size. The most efficient form of nebuliser is the ultrasonic nebuliser. Here a transducer immersed in water and vibrated at a frequency of 3MHz produces1-2micron droplets. These particles easily reach the bronchioles and provide excellent humidification.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 18
Correct
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A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles?
Your Answer: Varying resistance of a wire when stretched
Explanation:The principle by which a strain gauge works is that when a wire is stretched, it becomes longer and thinner, and as a result, its resistance increases.
A strain gauge, which is used in pressure transducers, acts as a resistor. When the pressure in a pressure transducer changes, the diaphragm moves, changing the tension in the resistance wire and thus changing the resistance.
Changes in current flow through the resistor are amplified and displayed as a pressure change measure.
A Wheatstone bridge, on the other hand, is frequently used to measure or monitor these changes in resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 19
Correct
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Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of 35 is pre-oxygenated.
Which method of pre-oxygenation with a tight-fitting face mask is the most effective?Your Answer: Oxygen 6 litres per minute via a Mapleson A breathing system, with patient sitting up at 30 degrees breathing four vital capacity breaths
Explanation:This patient is morbidly obese and has a high risk of developing hypoxia. This will be exacerbated by the patient’s supine position, as a result of:
Functional residual capacity has been reduced (FRC)
Increased closing capacity (CC)
Reduced tidal volume due to increased airway resistance, decreased thoracic cage compliance, and decreased respiratory muscle strength and endurance
Following induction of general anaesthesia, there is a tendency for atelectasis and increased O2 consumption due to the increased workload of respiratory muscles and the overall increase in metabolism.Pre-oxygenation with 100 percent oxygen via a tight-fitting mask can be done using either tidal volume breaths for three to five minutes or four vital capacity breaths in normal circumstances. In the head-up position, this patient is much more likely to be adequately pre-oxygenated, maximising the FRC and minimising the CC. In spontaneously breathing patients, the Mapleson A and circle systems are both effective, but the Mapleson D requires 160-200 ml/kg/minute to prevent rebreathing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 20
Correct
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Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best fit its properties?
Your Answer: The cuff should be positioned at the same level as the heart
Explanation:Dinamap continuously measures the systolic, diastolic and mean arterial pressure along with pulse rate, thereby providing a continuous monitoring of the blood pressure using the osscillitonometric principle of measurement.
The device loses accuracy towards the extremes of BP and is more accurate with systolic compared with diastolic pressure. In arrhythmias such as AF, the devices are also inaccurate due to the major fluctuations associated with the individual pulse pressure variations.
The manual BP device is still the gold standard for BP measurement and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 21
Correct
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This vertebrae can be easily differentiated from the rest because of its prominent spinous process.
Your Answer: C7
Explanation:The spinous process is the part of a vertebrae that is directed posteriorly.
Typical cervical vertebra have spinous processes that are small and bifid, except for C7, which has a long and prominent spinous process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Correct
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Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node?
Your Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The sinoatrial node receives innervation from multiple nerves arising from the complex cardiac plexus.
The cardiac plexus sends tiny branches into cardiac vessels, alongside the right and left coronary arteries.
The vagal efferent fibres originate from the vagal and accessory nerves in the brainstem, and then travel to the cardiac plexus within the heart. The resulting vagal discharge controls heart rate.
No singular nerve directly innervates the sinoatrial node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding correlation coefficient?
Your Answer: It can assume any value between -1 and 1
Explanation:The degree of correlation is summarised by the correlation coefficient (r). This indicates how closely the points lie to a line drawn through the plotted data. In parametric data this is called Pearson’s correlation coefficient and can take any value between -1 to +1. A correlation of -1.0 indicates a perfect negative correlation, and a correlation of 1.0 indicates a perfect positive correlation.
For example
r = 1 – strong positive correlation (e.g. systolic blood pressure always increases with age)
r = 0 – no correlation (e.g. there is no correlation between systolic blood pressure and age)
r = – 1 – strong negative correlation (e.g. systolic blood pressure always decreases with age)
Whilst correlation coefficients give information about how one variable may increase or decrease as another variable increases they do not give information about how much the variable will change. They also do not provide information on cause and effect.
In contrast to the correlation coefficient, linear regression may be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 24
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman with a BMI of 24 kg/m2 consumes four glasses of wine on an empty stomach. Her serum alcohol are levels measured over the following five hours. The serum alcohol level of 30-year-old man with the same BMI and alcohol consumption is also measured over the same duration.
The peak concentration of alcohol is found to be greater in the woman than in the man.
Which of these offers best explanation for this observation?Your Answer: Lower volume of distribution
Explanation:The blood alcohol concentration depends on:
-The rate of alcohol absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
-The volume of distribution of alcohol in the body, and
-The rate of elimination of alcohol from the body.Total body water is approximately 50% in a female as compared to 60% in a typical male. This means that the volume of distribution of alcohol is lower in female compared with men. This is the principal reason for higher peak in alcohol levels.
About 4% of ingested alcohol is metabolised by the liver accounting for first pass metabolism and 0.4% is metabolised by gastric alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH). The absorbed alcohol is NOT distributed to fat cells but it is distributed throughout the water compartments (plasma, interstitial and intracellular) of the body. Women have very little gastric ADH, which further influences this exaggerated rise.
85-98% of the alcohol is oxidised by the liver to acetaldehyde and then to acetate. The metabolic pathway initially observes first order kinetics and then saturation or zero order kinetics leading to peaks in alcohol levels.
Clearance of ethanol per unit lean body mass is lower in male. The calculated alcohol elimination rate and liver volume per kilogram of lean body mass were 33% and 38% higher in women than in men, respectively.
Available evidence in the literature about the relationship of alcohol metabolism to the phases of the menstrual cycle is conflicting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding drug dose and response?
Your Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:There are two types of drug dose-response relationships, namely, the graded dose-response and the quantal dose-response relationships.
Drug response curves are plotted as percentage response again LOG drug concentration. This graph is sigmoid in shape.
Agonists are drugs with high affinity and high intrinsic activity. Meanwhile, the antagonist is a drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity. Intrinsic activity determines the maximal response. The maximal response can be achieved even by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior pituitary?
Your Answer: Oxytocin
Explanation:The posterior pituitary is made up mostly of neural tissue. It is responsible for the storage and release of 2 hormones:
– antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
– oxytocin.These two hormones are synthesised in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck?
Your Answer: External jugular vein
Correct Answer: Internal jugular vein
Explanation:The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.
The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
posteriorly – trapezius
roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene musclesThe contents of the posterior triangle are:
1. fat
2. lymph nodes (level V)
3. accessory nerve
4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
5. inferior belly of omohyoid
6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
7. third part of the subclavian artery
8. external jugular vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A normal woman at term, not in labour, has her arterial blood gas analysed.
Which set of results is most likely her own?
Option - pH - PaCO2 - HCO3 - PaO2
A - 7.35 - 28 mmHg (3.73 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
B - 7.43 - 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
C - 7.44 - 36 mmHg (4.8 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
D - 7.45 - 40 mmHg (5.33 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
E - 7.46 - 44 mmHg (5.87kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)Your Answer: D
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:Due to an increased tidal volume with little change or slight increase in respiratory rate, Minute ventilation at term is increased by about 50%. Hypothalamic function are thought to influence by Progesterone, oestradiol and prostaglandins. This causes a mild compensated respiratory alkalosis.
Maternal PaCO2 is usually decreased to about 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) as a result of this increased alveolar ventilation at term . A compensatory decrease in serum bicarbonate from 27 to 21 mmol/L by renal excretion lessens the impact of maternal alkalosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 29
Correct
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Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex?
Your Answer: Is abolished immediately after transection of the spinal cord at T6
Explanation:The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is a monosynaptic stretch reflex arising from L2-L4 nerve roots. It occurs after a tap on the patellar tendon which causes the spindles of the quadriceps muscles to stretch.
The afferent nerve pathway occurred through A gamma fibres.
Wesphal’s sign refers to a reduction, or absence of the patellar reflex. It is often indicated of a neurological disease affecting the PNS.
A transection of the spinal cord results in a degree of shock which causes all reflexes to be reduced or completely absent, and required a period of approximately 6 weeks to recover.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 30
Correct
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With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Thermistors use the resistance of a semiconductor bead which increases exponentially as the temperature increases
Explanation:There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:
Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially
Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)
Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output
Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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