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  • Question 1 - About case-control studies, one of the following is true. ...

    Incorrect

    • About case-control studies, one of the following is true.

      Your Answer: They are a type of experimental study

      Correct Answer: They are suitable to be used in the study of rare diseases

      Explanation:

      Case-control studies are suitable when investigating a rare disease or in cases where little is known about the disease and the proposed aetiological factor, as a preliminary study. They have the ability to look at multiple risk-factors (exposures) but can only look at a single outcome.

      In a case-control study, two groups of patients, one with the disease and one without, are compared on the basis of a proposed causative factor that occurred in the past. They are therefore a retrospective study and useful in hypothesis generation.

      Cohort studies are better at identifying rare exposures. One group with an exposure is compared to a control group without that exposure.

      Case-control studies are usually less expensive to run and also shorter in duration compared with prospective cohort studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 59-year-old otherwise well woman presents with a history of polydipsia and...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old otherwise well woman presents with a history of polydipsia and polyuria. There is a past history of kidney stones, and blood tests done reveal the following:

      Na: 147 mmol/L (135-147 mmol/L)
      K: 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.5 mmol/L)
      Urea: 7.3 mmol/L (2.0-6.6 mmol/L)
      Creatinine: 126 mmol/L (75-125 mmol/L)
      Fasting blood glucose: 5.0 mmol/L (3.4-5.5 mmol/L)
      Corrected calcium: 3.21 mmol/L (2.05-2.60 mmol/L)
      Phosphate: 0.70 mmol/L (0.8-1.4 mmol/L)
      Parathyroid hormone: 189 ng/L (10-60 ng/L)

      The most likely diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      ​Primary hyperparathyroidism the commonest cause of hypercalcaemia. It is commonest in women aged 50 to 60.
      The commonest cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is a solitary adenoma of the parathyroid gland (approximately 85% of cases).

      Primary hyperparathyroidism may present with features of hypercalcaemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, renal stones, bone and joint pain, constipation, and psychiatric disorders.

      In primary Hyperparathyroidism:
      PTH is elevated
      Calcium is elevated
      Phosphate is lowered

      In secondary Hyperparathyroidism:
      PTH is elevated
      Calcium is low or low-normal
      Phosphate is raised in CRF

      In tertiary Hyperparathyroidism:
      PTH is elevated
      Calcium is elevated
      Phosphate is lowered in CRF

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of digoxin: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of digoxin:

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Digoxin does not cause hypokalaemia, but hypokalaemia does potentiate digoxin toxicity. The adverse effects of digoxin are frequently due to its narrow therapeutic window and include:
      Cardiac adverse effects – Sinoatrial and atrioventricular block, Premature ventricular contractions, PR prolongation and ST-segment depression
      Nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea
      Blurred or yellow vision
      CNS effects – weakness, dizziness, confusion, apathy, malaise, headache, depression, psychosis
      Thrombocytopenia and agranulocytosis (rare)
      Gynaecomastia in men in prolonged administration

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Stimulation of J receptors located on alveolar and bronchial walls results in all...

    Incorrect

    • Stimulation of J receptors located on alveolar and bronchial walls results in all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Relaxation of skeletal muscle

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Juxtapulmonary or ‘J’ receptors are located on alveolar and bronchial walls close to the capillaries. Their afferents are small unmyelinated C-fibres or myelinated nerves in the vagus nerve. Activation causes depression of somatic and visceral activity by producing apnoea or rapid shallow breathing, a fall in heart rate and blood pressure, laryngeal constriction and relaxation of skeletal muscles via spinal neurones. J receptors are stimulated by increased alveolar wall fluid, pulmonary congestion and oedema, microembolism and inflammatory mediators. J receptors are thought to be involved in the sensation of dyspnoea in lung disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      152.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 43 year old lady suffering with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura has a splenectomy....

    Correct

    • A 43 year old lady suffering with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura has a splenectomy. She is advised to get the Pneumococcal vaccine booster every 5 - 10 years as Streptococcus pneumoniae has which of the following properties that make her prone to infection to this organism?

      Your Answer: It is encapsulated

      Explanation:

      There is a lifelong susceptibility to increased risk of infection from a variety of organisms in patients with hyposplenism, especially in children under 5 years and those with sickle cell anaemia. Patients are most susceptible is to the encapsulated bacteria Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae type B and Neisseria meningitidis. Streptococcus pneumoniae is particular concerning as it can cause rapid and fulminant disease, which can be fatal. Malaria and animal bites that become infected also tend to be more severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old man presents with haemoptysis, night sweats, and weight loss. Further examinations...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with haemoptysis, night sweats, and weight loss. Further examinations were done and a diagnosis of tuberculosis is suspected.

      Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

      Your Answer: The Ghon focus typically appears at the base of the lower lobe of the lung

      Correct Answer: It is impervious to decolourisation with acid

      Explanation:

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis are part of the Mycobacteriaceae family. They are described to have the characteristics of a Gram-positive cell wall but they are not easily stained with Gram stain. This is because their cell wall contains a high lipid content, and this lipid allows the Mycobacteria to bind to alkaline stains with the application and help of heat. Once stained, they are able to resist decolorization even with the use of acid alcohol as the decolourizer, making them very difficult to decolorize, that is why they are known to be acid-fast.

      The Ghon complex is a non-pathognomonic radiographic finding on a chest x-ray that is significant for pulmonary infection of tuberculosis. The location of the Ghon’s focus is usually subpleural and predominantly in the upper part of the lower lobe and lower part of the middle or upper lobe.

      Skeletal tuberculosis of the spine is referred to as Pott disease.

      The risk of reactivation TB is about 3.3% during the first year after a positive PPD skin test and a total of 5% to 15% thereafter in the person’s lifetime. Progression from infection to active disease varies with age and the intensity and duration of exposure. Reactivation TB occurs when there is an alteration or suppression of the cellular immune system in the infected host that favours
      replication of the bacilli and progression to disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Parathyroid hormone is released by which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Parathyroid hormone is released by which of the following:

      Your Answer: Chief cells of the parathyroid gland

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a peptide hormone synthesised by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands, located immediately behind the thyroid gland. PTH is primarily released in response to decreasing plasma [Ca2+] concentration. PTH acts to increase plasma calcium levels and decrease plasma phosphate levels.
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) acts to increase calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule of the nephron (by activating Ca2+entry channels in the apical membrane and the Ca2+ATPase pump in the basolateral membrane) and increase phosphate excretion by inhibiting reabsorption in the proximal tubule of the nephron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which JVP waveform correlates to atrial systole? ...

    Correct

    • Which JVP waveform correlates to atrial systole?

      Your Answer: The a wave

      Explanation:

      JVP Waveform in Cardiac Cycle Physiology: a wave Right atrial contraction causes atrial systole (end diastole). the c wave During right isovolumetric ventricular contraction, the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium, resulting in isovolumetric contraction (early systole). descent by x Rapid ventricular ejection (mid systole) is caused by a combination of right atrial relaxation, tricuspid valve downward movement during right ventricular contraction, and blood ejection from both ventricles. the v-wave Ventricular ejection and isovolumetric relaxation (late systole) occur as a result of venous return filling the right atrium. y lineage Ventricular filling occurs when the tricuspid valve opens, allowing blood to flow rapidly from the right atrium to the right ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are reviewing a patient in the Emergency Department brought in by the...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a patient in the Emergency Department brought in by the ambulance team from a burning building. After examination, you decide to intubate the patient due to laryngeal oedema. The induction agent you are planning to use is propofol.

      Which one of the following statements about this medicine is TRUE?

      Your Answer: It decreases cardiac output by approximately 20%

      Explanation:

      Propofol is a short-acting anaesthetic that is thought to work by potentiating GABA and glycine. It induces anterograde amnesia and anaesthetic effects and is used to induce anaesthesia, outpatient surgeries and preoperative sedation. The dose for induction of anaesthesia is 1.5-2.5mg/kg. The dose for maintenance of anaesthesia is 4-12 mg/kg/hour. Following intravenous injection, propofol acts within 30 seconds and its duration of action is 5-10 minutes.

      Propofol produces a 15-25% decrease in blood pressure and systemic vascular resistance without a compensatory increase in heart rate. It is negatively inotropic and decreases cardiac output by approximately 20%.

      The main side effects of propofol are:
      Pain on injection (in up to 30%)
      Hypotension
      Transient apnoea
      Hyperventilation
      Coughing and hiccough
      Headache
      Thrombosis and phlebitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      80.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient is found to be anaemic. Which one of the following blood...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is found to be anaemic. Which one of the following blood results would favour a diagnosis of anaemia of chronic disease rather than iron deficiency:

      Your Answer: MCV < 80 fL

      Correct Answer: Low total iron binding capacity (TIBC)

      Explanation:

      Anaemia of chronic disease is one of the most common causes of normocytic anaemia. The anaemia is usually mild (Hb > 90 g/L) and non-progressive. Anaemia of chronic disease is usually associated with low serum iron, low transferrin saturation, and a low total iron binding capacity (TIBC) with normal or raised ferritin which differentiates it from iron deficiency anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The cutaneous circulation is responsible for the skin's blood supply. Because the skin...

    Incorrect

    • The cutaneous circulation is responsible for the skin's blood supply. Because the skin is not a highly metabolically active tissue with low energy requirements, its blood supply differs from that of other tissues. Instead of capillaries, some of the circulating blood volume in the skin passes through arteriovenous anastomoses (AVAs).

      Which of the following statements regarding arteriovenous anastomoses is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: AVAs are innervated by sympathetic fibres originating from the hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Short vessels called arteriovenous anastomoses (AVAs) link tiny arteries and veins. They have a large lumen diameter. The strong and muscular walls allow AVAs to completely clog the vascular lumen, preventing blood flow from artery to vein (acting like a sphincter). When the AVAs open, they create a low-resistance connection between arteries and veins, allowing blood to flow into the limbs’ superficial venous plexuses. There is no diffusion of solutes or fluid into the interstitium due to their strong muscle walls.

      AVAs are densely innervated by adrenergic fibres from the hypothalamic temperature-regulation centre. High sympathetic output occurs at normal core temperatures, inducing vasoconstriction of the AVAs and blood flow through the capillary networks and deep plexuses. When the temperature rises, sympathetic output decreases, producing AVA vasodilation and blood shunting from the artery to the superficial venous plexus. Heat is lost to the environment as hot blood rushes near to the skin’s surface.
      AVAs are a specialized anatomical adaptation that can only be found in large quantities in the fingers, palms, soles, lips, and pinna of the ear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man, known hypertensive on amlodipine has been visiting his GP with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man, known hypertensive on amlodipine has been visiting his GP with symptoms of headache, tiredness, and muscle weakness. His blood test today shows a low potassium level of 2.8 mmol/L, and a slightly raised sodium level at 147 mmol/L.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conn’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      When there are excessive levels of aldosterone independent of the renin-angiotensin aldosterone axis, primary hyperaldosteronism occurs. Secondary hyperaldosteronism occurs due to high renin levels.

      Causes of primary hyperaldosteronism include:
      Conn’s syndrome
      Adrenal hyperplasia
      Adrenal cancer
      Familial aldosteronism

      Causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism include:
      Renal vasoconstriction
      Oedematous disorders
      Drugs – diuretics
      Obstructive renal artery disease

      Although patients are usually asymptomatic, when clinical features are present, classically hyperaldosteronism presents with:
      Hypokalaemia
      Sodium levels can be normal or slightly raised
      Hypertension
      Metabolic alkalosis
      Less common, clinical features are:
      Lethargy
      Headaches
      Intermittent paraesthesia
      Polyuria and polydipsia
      Muscle weakness (from persistent hypokalaemia)
      Tetany and paralysis (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - If a lesion is observed in Broca's area, which function is expected to...

    Incorrect

    • If a lesion is observed in Broca's area, which function is expected to become affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Formation of words

      Explanation:

      The primary functions of the Broca area are both language production and comprehension. While the exact role in the production is still unclear, many believe that it directly impacts the motor movements to allow for speech. Although originally thought to only aid in speech production, lesions in the area can rarely be related to impairments in the comprehension of language. Different regions of the Broca area specialize in various aspects of comprehension. The anterior portion helps with semantics, or word meaning, while the posterior is associated with phonology, or how words sound. The Broca area is also necessary for language repetition, gesture production, sentence grammar and fluidity, and the interpretation of others’ actions.

      Broca’s aphasia is a non-fluent aphasia in which the output of spontaneous speech is markedly diminished and there is a loss of normal grammatical structure. Specifically, small linking words, conjunctions, such as and, or, and but, and the use of prepositions are lost. Patients may exhibit interjectional speech where there is a long latency, and the words that are expressed are produced as if under pressure. The ability to repeat phrases is also impaired in patients with Broca’s aphasia. Despite these impairments, the words that are produced are often intelligible and contextually correct. In pure Broca’s aphasia, comprehension is intact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Following an injury sustained during a rugby match, a 16-year-old boy is brought...

    Incorrect

    • Following an injury sustained during a rugby match, a 16-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his mother. His forearm appears to be deformed, and you believe he has a distal radius fracture. A numerical rating scale is used to assess his pain, and the triage nurse informs you that he is in moderate pain.'

      The RCEM guidance recommends which of the following analgesics for the treatment of moderate pain in a child of this age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral codeine phosphate 1 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      According to a 2018 audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM), the standard of care for children presenting to EDs with fractured limbs has deteriorated, with most patients waiting longer than ever before for pain relief. More than one-tenth of the children who came in with significant pain from a limb fracture received no pain relief at all.

      For all patients, including children, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the United States recommends using the ABCs of pain management:
      A – Ask about pain regularly. Assess pain systematically.
      B – Believe the patient and family in their reports of pain and what relieves it.
      C – Choose pain control options appropriate for the patient, family, and setting.
      D – Deliver interventions in a timely, logical, coordinated fashion.
      E – Empower patients and their families. Enable patients to control their course to the greatest extent possible.

      The RCEM guidelines recommend assessing a child’s pain within 15 minutes of arrival. This is a fundamental requirement. For the assessment of pain in children, a variety of rating scales are available; which one is used depends on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These are some of them:
      Faces of Wong-Baker Scale for assessing pain
      Scale of numerical evaluation
      The behavioural scale is a scale that measures how people behave.

      The RCEM has provided the following visual guide:
      The RCEM has established the following guidelines for when patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia:
      100% within 60 minutes of arrival or triage, whichever is earliest
      75% within 30 minutes of arrival or triage, whichever is earliest
      50% within 20 minutes of arrival or triage, whichever is earliest

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 6-year-old child presents with profuse watery diarrhoea and dehydration.

    Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child presents with profuse watery diarrhoea and dehydration.

      Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding infective diarrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: E.Coli can cause diarrhoea and renal failure

      Explanation:

      E. coli may cause several different gastrointestinal syndromes. Based on virulence factors, clinical manifestation, epidemiology, and different O and H serotypes, there are five major categories of diarrheagenic E. coli, enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC), enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC), enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC), enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC), and enteroadherent, which includes diffusely adherent E. coli (DAEC) and enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC). These five categories are sometimes
      collectively referred to as enterovirulent E. coli or diarrheagenic E. coli.

      Norwalk virus is part of the Caliciviridae family of viruses which are single-stranded RNA viruses and are the most common cause of infectious gastroenteritis in the US.

      Rotaviruses are the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis
      in infants and children. With the introduction in 2006 of a human-bovine rotavirus vaccine (RV5; RotaTeq, Merck), a delay in the onset of rotavirus
      season was seen. RotaTeq is a series of three oral vaccines beginning at 6 to 12 weeks of age. A second vaccine, Rotarix (RV1; GlaxoSmithKline, Middlesex, England), was approved in June 2008.

      Cryptosporidium causes an illness characterized by abdominal cramping, watery diarrhoea, vomiting, fever, and anorexia. This organism is resistant to chlorine, so public swimming pools can be the source of an outbreak.

      G. lamblia has a worldwide distribution and has frequently been identified as the causative agent of outbreaks of gastroenteritis and traveller’s diarrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Renin is produced by which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Renin is produced by which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Granular cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole

      Explanation:

      Juxtaglomerular cells are specialised smooth muscle cells mainly in the walls of the afferent arterioles (and some in the efferent arterioles) which synthesise renin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 66-year-old female with a history of stroke one year ago presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old female with a history of stroke one year ago presents to the Family Medicine clinic complaining of fatigue, weight loss, and tongue discolouration. On examination, she seems malnourished, her tongue is beefy red, and an ataxic gait pattern is noticed.

      Which ONE of the following conditions does this patient most likely have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      A history of stroke and poor nutritional status points towards a nutritional deficiency as the most likely cause of her symptoms. The examination would differentiate between Vitamin B12 and Folic acid deficiency as in the former. The patient has a beefy red tongue and symptoms indicating peripheral nervous system involvement or subacute combined spinal cord degeneration. The patient may also have a lemon-yellow skin colour, loss of proprioception and vibratory sense and oral ulceration.

      Investigations in B12 deficiency can reveal the following:
      1. Macrocytic anaemia
      2. Neutropoenia
      3. Thrombocytopaenia
      4. Blood film: anisocytosis, poikilocytosis
      5. Low serum B12
      6. Raised serum bilirubin (haemolysis)
      7. Intrinsic factor antibodies
      8. Positive Schilling test

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Cryptococcus neoformans is primarily implicated in which of the following conditions: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cryptococcus neoformans is primarily implicated in which of the following conditions:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic meningitis

      Explanation:

      Cryptococcus neoformans typically causes a chronic lymphocytic meningitis in immunosuppressed patients or those with intense exposure e.g. pigeon fanciers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is NOT a typical effect of cortisol: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical effect of cortisol:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased protein catabolism

      Explanation:

      Cortisol is a steroid hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. It is released in response to stress and low blood glucose concentrations.
      Cortisol acts to: raise plasma glucose by stimulating glycolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver and inhibiting peripheral glucose uptake into storage tissues, increase protein breakdown in skeletal muscle, skin and bone to release amino acids, increase lipolysis from adipose tissues to release fatty acidsand at higher levels and mimic the actions of aldosterone on the kidney to retain Na+ and water and lose K+ ionssuppress the action of immune cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following bacteria is a rod-shaped, oxidase-positive, opportunistic gram-negative bacteria that...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following bacteria is a rod-shaped, oxidase-positive, opportunistic gram-negative bacteria that can cause a catheter-related urinary tract infection (UTI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Listeria monocytogenes is a gram-positive bacteria that does not produce spores.

      Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive bacteria, while Candida albicans is a gram-positive yeast with a single bud.

      Among the choices, gram-negative bacteria include only Klebsiella pneumoniae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an oxidase-positive bacterium, while Klebsiella pneumoniae is an oxidase-negative bacterium.

      P. aeruginosa can cause urinary tract infections (UTIs) and is spread through poor hygiene or contaminated medical equipment or devices, such as catheters that haven’t been fully sterilized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Evidence Based Medicine (0/1) 0%
Endocrine Physiology (1/2) 50%
Physiology (3/6) 50%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Immune Responses (1/1) 100%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Specific Pathogen Groups (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Physiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed