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  • Question 1 - A 23 year old woman is Rh -ve and she delivered a baby...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old woman is Rh -ve and she delivered a baby with a Rh+ blood group. What measure can be performed to prevent Rh incompatibility in the next pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Immunoglobulin D

      Explanation:

      Rh disease is also known as erythroblastosis fetalis and is a disease of the new-born. In mild states it can cause anaemia with reticulocytosis and in severe forms causes severe anaemia, morbus hemolytcus new-born and hydrops fetalis. RBCs of the Rh+ baby can cross the placenta and enter into the maternal blood. As she is Rh- her body will form antibodies against the D antigen which will pass through the placenta in subsequent pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the...

    Incorrect

    • The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following statements regarding the blood– brain barrier is CORRECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It breaks down in areas of brain that are infected

      Explanation:

      The blood–brain barrier is a membrane that controls the passage of substances from the blood into the central nervous system. It is a physical barrier between the local blood vessels and most parts of the central nervous system and stops many substances from travelling across it. During meningitis, the blood–brain barrier may be disrupted. This disruption may increase the penetration of various substances (including either toxins or antibiotics) into the brain. A few regions in the brain, including the circumventricular organs, do not have a blood–brain barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger...

    Incorrect

    • While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger down the edge of the medial crus of the superficial inguinal ring and felt a bony prominence deep to the lateral edge of the spermatic cord. What was this bony prominence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pubic tubercle

      Explanation:

      At the superficial inguinal ring, the pubic tubercle would be felt as a bony prominence lateral to the edge of the spermatic cord. This tubercle is the point of attachment of the inguinal ligament that makes up the floor of the inguinal canal.

      Pecten pubis is the ridge on the superior surface of the superior pubic ramus and the point of attachment of the pectineal ligament.

      The pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones and the iliopubic eminence is a bony process on the pubis found near the articulation of the pubis and the ilium.

      The iliopectineal line is formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis. It is the line that marks the transition between the abdominal and pelvic cavity.

      The sacral promontory is found on the posterior wall of the pelvis and would not be felt through the inguinal ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left adrenal gland. The tumour, which is metastasizing to the adjacent tissues, has already extended to the left suprarenal vein. If the tumour is still spreading, which of the following veins will most likely be affected after the involvement of the left suprarenal vein?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The suprarenal veins or also known as the veins of Warshaw, are the veins that receive blood from the suprarenal glands. These veins receive blood from the medullary venous plexus and the cortex of the adrenal glands (suprarenal glands). They are two in number – the left and the right suprarenal veins. The right suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava while the left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein. This therefore means that in the case of a metastasizing tumour involving the left suprarenal vein, the tumour will most likely extend from the left suprarenal vein to the left renal vein into which it drains.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a...

    Incorrect

    • Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration. Which of these changes will decrease the rate of diffusion of a substance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An increase in the molecular weight of the substance

      Explanation:

      Unless given IV, a drug must cross several semipermeable cell membranes before it reaches the systemic circulation. Drugs may cross cell membranes by diffusion, amongst other mechanisms. The rate of diffusion of a substance is proportional to the difference in the concentration of the diffusing substance between the two sides of the membrane, the temperature of the solution, the permeability of the membrane and, in the case of ions, the electrical potential difference between the two sides of the membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following conditions of the breast is most often associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions of the breast is most often associated with use of oral contraceptives?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyst formation

      Explanation:

      Breast cysts are common and are smooth, firm, mobile lumps that can sometimes be tender. Cysts can also be bilateral and are known to recur in 10% of cases. They are more common in women in the third and fourth decades and most often disappear after menopause. Cysts are filled with fluid from the breast which occurs due to the normal menstrual cycle of a woman. The end of the menstrual cycle causes breast cells to swell. After the menses, the cells shrink and the released fluid disappears. However, in some cases this fluid forms a cyst. Incidence of cysts was also linked to use of oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Internal haemorrhoids are painless and only sensitive to stretch. They are formed from...

    Incorrect

    • Internal haemorrhoids are painless and only sensitive to stretch. They are formed from folds of the mucous membrane and the submucosa of the anal canal which contain varicose branches of the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior rectal vein

      Explanation:

      Internal haemorrhoids are formed by varicosities of the branches of the superior rectal vein.

      External haemorrhoids are formed by varicosities of the branches of the inferior rectal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Colorectal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following substances brings about a dilatation of the gastrointestinal resistance...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following substances brings about a dilatation of the gastrointestinal resistance vessels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vasoactive intestinal peptide

      Explanation:

      Gastric vasoconstrictors include catecholamines, angiotensin II and vasopressin. Vasodilators include vasoactive intestinal peptide and the hormones; gastrin, cholecystokinin and glucagon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which is the correct superficial to deep order of structures that would be...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the correct superficial to deep order of structures that would be affected following a knife wound to the lateral aspect of the knee?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: skin, fibular collateral ligament, popliteus muscle tendon, lateral meniscus

      Explanation:

      Skin, fibular collateral ligament, popliteus muscle tendon and lateral meniscus is the correct order of structures covering the lateral aspect of the knee joint from a superficial to deep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left leg. He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract is a sensory pathway originating in the spinal cord that transmits information to the thalamus. There are two main parts of the spinothalamic tract: the lateral spinothalamic tract transmits pain and temperature and the anterior spinothalamic tract transmits touch (crude touch). The decussation of this pathway occurs at the level of the spinal cord. Hence, a unilateral lesion of the lateral spinothalamic tract causes contralateral loss of pain and temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in his right testis. Elements similar to hair and teeth are found in it. What kind of tumour is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour containing tissue elements that are similar to normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. They usually contain skin, hair, teeth and bone tissue and are more common in children, behaving as a benign tumour. After puberty, they are regarded as malignant and can metastasise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year old man, known with Type 2 diabetes and chronic renal failure,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old man, known with Type 2 diabetes and chronic renal failure, is likely to eventually present with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      When the parathyroid glands secrete excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to hypocalcaemia, it is known as Secondary hyperparathyroidism and is often seen in patients with renal failure. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys fail to excrete adequate phosphorus and also fail to convert enough vitamin D to its active form. This leads to formation of insoluble calcium phosphate in the body which ultimately causes hypocalcaemia. The glands then undergo hyperplasia and hypertrophy leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism. Symptoms include bone and joint pains, along with limb deformities. The raised PTH also results in pleiotropic effects on blood, the immune system and nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Biopsy of a neoplastic mass was performed. Histologic examination of the specimen showed...

    Incorrect

    • Biopsy of a neoplastic mass was performed. Histologic examination of the specimen showed spindle shaped cells with high nuclear/cytoplasm ratio on immunohisto chemical staining. These pleomorphic cells were vimentin positive, cytokeratin negative and cd45 negative. This type of neoplasm is most commonly found in which patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 15-year-old boy with a mass in the left femur and lung metastases

      Explanation:

      A histology report that describes spindle shaped cells which are vimentin positive suggests osteosarcoma and hematogenous spread to the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia; Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The presence of oval fat bodies in the urine is most likely to...

    Incorrect

    • The presence of oval fat bodies in the urine is most likely to be seen in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome is associated with the presence of oval fat bodies on urinalysis due to increased proteinuria and lipiduria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg, with a drop in systolic pressure to 100 mm Hg on inhalation. This is known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus

      Explanation:

      Weakening of pulse with inhalation and strengthening with exhalation is known as pulsus paradoxus. This represents an exaggeration of the normal variation of the pulse in relation to respiration. It indicates conditions such as cardiac tamponade and lung disease. The paradox refers to the auscultation of extra cardiac beats on inspiration, as compared to the pulse. Due to a decrease in blood pressure, the radial pulse becomes impalpable along with an increase in jugular venous pressure height (Kussmaul sign). Normal systolic blood pressure variation (with respiration) is considered to be >10 mmHg. It is >100 mmHg in Pulsus paradoxus. It is also predictive of the severity of cardiac tamponade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative bacteria due to the presence of...

    Incorrect

    • Gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative bacteria due to the presence of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Outer membrane

      Explanation:

      The reason bacteria are either Gram-positive or Gram-negative is due to the structure of their cell envelope (the cell envelope is defined as the cell membrane and cell wall plus an outer membrane, if one is present.) Gram-positive bacteria, for example, retain the crystal violet due to the amount of peptidoglycan in the cell wall. It can be said therefore that the Gram-stain procedure separates bacteria into two broad categories based on structural differences in the cell envelope.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 30 year-old male patient sustained a sharp blow to the right side...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year-old male patient sustained a sharp blow to the right side of the head, over the temporal region during a vehicular accident. This resulted to the rupture of the principal artery that supplies the meninges. Which artery is affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is typically the third branch of the first part of the maxillary artery, one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. After branching off the maxillary artery in the infratemporal fossa, it runs through the foramen spinosum to supply the dura mater and the calvaria. The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supply the meninges, the others being the anterior meningeal artery and the posterior meningeal artery. The anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery runs beneath the pterion. It is vulnerable to injury at this point, where the skull is thin. Rupture of the artery may give rise to an epidural hematoma .An injured middle meningeal artery is the most common cause of an epidural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is characterized by a rapid-onset muscle weakness caused by the immune system damaging the peripheral nervous system. In about two-thirds of patients, the syndrome begins 5 days to 3 weeks after an infectious disease, surgery or vaccination. Infection is the trigger in over 50% of patients; common pathogens include Campylobacter jejuni, enteric viruses, herpesviruses (including cytomegalovirus and those causing infectious mononucleosis) and Mycoplasma species. The underlying mechanism involves an autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves and damages their myelin insulation, although the cause for this is still unknown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A young lady visited a doctor with complaints of fever and a dull,...

    Incorrect

    • A young lady visited a doctor with complaints of fever and a dull, continuous pain in the right lumbar region for 6 days. On, enquiry, she recalled passing an increasing number of stools with occasional blood in last few months. Lower gastrointestinal endoscopic biopsy was taken 5 cm proximal to ileocaecal valve which showed transmural inflammation with several granulomas. Tissue section showed the absence of acid-fast bacillus. She denies any history of travel and her stool cultures were negative. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is a chronic, inflammatory disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract but is usually seen in the distal ileum and colon. It is transmural and symptoms include chronic diarrhoea, abdominal pain, fever, anorexia and weight loss. On examination, there is usually abdominal tenderness with a palpable mass or fullness seen occasionally. Rectal bleeding is uncommon (except in isolated colonic involvement) which manifests like ulcerative colitis. Differential diagnosis includes acute appendicitis or intestinal obstruction. 25%-33% patients also have perianal disease in the form of fissure or fistulas.

      Extra intestinal manifestations predominate in children, and include: arthritis, pyrexia, anaemia or growth retardation. Histologically, the disease shows crypt inflammation and abscesses initially, which progress to aphthoid ulcers. These eventually develop into longitudinal and transverse ulcers with interspersed mucosal oedema, leading to the characteristic ‘cobblestoned appearance’. Transmural involvement leads to lymphoedema and thickening of bowel wall and mesentery, leading to extension of mesenteric fat on the serosal surface of bowel and enlargement of mesenteric nodes. There can also be hypertrophy of the muscularis mucosae, fibrosis and stricture formation, which can cause bowel obstruction.

      Abscesses are common and the disease can also leas to development of fistulas with various other organs, anterior abdominal wall and adjacent muscles. Pathognomonic non-caseating granulomas are seen in 50% cases and they can occur in nodes, peritoneum, liver, and in all layers of the bowel wall. The clinical course does not depend on the presence of granulomas. There is sharp demarcation between the diseased and the normal bowel (skip areas).

      35% cases show only the ileal involvement, whereas in 45% cases, both the ileum and colon are involved with a predilection for right side of colon. 20% cases show only colonic involvement, often sparing the rectum (unlike ulcerative colitis). In occasional cases, there is jejunoileitis – involvement of the entire small bowel. The stomach, duodenum and oesophagus are rarely involved, although there has been microscopic evidence of disease involving the gastric antrum in younger patients. The affected small bowel segments show increased rick of cancer. Moreover, patients with colonic disease show a long-term risk of cancer similar to that seen in ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 33-year old lady presented to the gynaecology clinic with amenorrhoea for 6...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year old lady presented to the gynaecology clinic with amenorrhoea for 6 months and a recent-onset of milk discharge from her breasts. She was not pregnant or on any medication. On enquiry, she admitted to having frequent headaches the last 4 months. Which of the following findings would you expect to see in her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperprolactinaemia

      Explanation:

      Excessively high levels of prolactin in the blood is called hyperprolactinaemia. Normally, prolactin levels are less than 580 mIU/l in females and less than 450 mIU/l in men. The biologically inactive macroprolactin can lead to a false high reading. However, the patient remains asymptomatic. Dopamine down-regulates prolactin whereas oestrogen upregulates it. Hyperprolactinaemia can be caused due to lack of inhibition (compression of pituitary stalk or low dopamine levels), or increased production due to a pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma). Either of these causes can lead to a prolactin level of 1000-5000 mIU/l. However, levels more than 5000mIU/l are usually associated due to an adenoma and >100,000 mIU/l are seen in macroadenomas (tumours < 1cm in diameter). Increased prolactin causes increased dopamine release from the arcuate nucleus of hypothalamus. This increased dopamine in turn, inhibits the GnRH (Gonadotrophin Releasing Hormone) thus blocking gonadal steroidogenesis resulting in the symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia. In women, it includes hypoestrogenism, anovulatory infertility, decreased or irregular menstruation or complete amenorrhoea. It can even cause production of breast milk, loss of libido, vaginal dryness and osteoporosis. In men, the symptoms include impotence, decreased libido, erectile dysfunction and infertility. In men, treatment can be delayed due to late diagnosis as they have no reliable indicator such as menstruation that might indicate a problem. Most of the male patients seek help only when headaches and visual defects start to surface.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 50 year old male point was diagnosed with tennis elbow that became...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old male point was diagnosed with tennis elbow that became worse after he started playing basket ball over the last three months. He was admitted to the orthopaedic ward to have elbow braces fitted. What type of synovial joint is the elbow joint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hinge

      Explanation:

      The elbow joint is one of the many synovial joints in the body. This joint is an example of the hinge joint as the humerus is received into the semilunar notch of the ulna and the capitulum of the humerus articulates with the fovea on the head of the radius, together acting as a hinge in one plane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of these HLA alleles is most likely to be present in ankylosing...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these HLA alleles is most likely to be present in ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis usually appears between the ages of 20-40 years old and is more frequent in men. It is strongly associated with HLA-B27, along with other spondyloarthropathies, which can be remembered through the mnemonic PAIR (Psoriasis, Ankylosing spondylitis, Inflammatory bowel disease, and Reactive arthritis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following over-the-counter drugs can cause a prolonged bleeding time? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following over-the-counter drugs can cause a prolonged bleeding time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetylsalicylic acid

      Explanation:

      Acetylsalicylic acid, or aspirin, is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is widely used as an analgesic and antipyretic. Aspirin is as a cyclo-oxygenase inhibitor that leads to decreased prostaglandin production. Decreased platelet aggregation is another effect of this drug, achieved by long-lasting use of aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Where is factor VIII predominantly synthesised? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is factor VIII predominantly synthesised?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vascular endothelium

      Explanation:

      Factor VIII is an important part of the coagulation cascade. Deficiency causes haemophilia A. It is synthesised predominantly by the vascular endothelium and is not affected by liver disease. In the circulation it is bound to von Willebrand factor and it forms a stable complex with it. It is activated by thrombin or factor Xa and acts as a co factor to factor IXa to activate factor X which is a co factor to factor Va. Thrombin cleaves fibrinogen in fibrin and forms a meshwork to trap RBC and platelets to form a clot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect: ...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Initiation of abduction of the humerus

      Explanation:

      This muscle arises from the medial two-thirds of the supraspinatus fossa and from the supraspinatus fascia. It is inserted into the highest impression on the greater tubercle of the humerus after passing over the upper part of the shoulder joint. It works with the deltoid to raise the arm from the side of the trunk and initiate abduction. It also assists in fixation of the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 60 year old patient with a history of carcinoma of the head...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old patient with a history of carcinoma of the head of the pancreas, and obstructive jaundice presents with a spontaneous nose bleed and easy bruising. What is the most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin-K-dependent clotting factors deficiency

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin requiring fat metabolism to function properly to allow for its absorption. People with obstructive jaundice develop vitamin k deficiency as fat digestion is impaired. Vit K causes carboxylation of glutamate residue and hence regulates blood coagulation including: prothrombin (factor II), factors VII, IX, X, protein C, protein S and protein Z.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 45-year old lady underwent biopsy of a soft, fleshy mass involving her...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old lady underwent biopsy of a soft, fleshy mass involving her left breast. The biopsy showed lymphoid stroma with minimal fibrosis, surrounding sheets of large vesicular cells with frequent mitoses. Which condition is she most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medullary carcinoma of breast

      Explanation:

      Medullary carcinoma is a malignant tumour of the breast with well-defined boundaries and accounts for 5% of all breast cancers. Other special features include a larger size of the neoplastic cells and presence of lymphoid cells at tumour edge. Differential diagnosis includes invasive ductal carcinoma. Prognosis is usually good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - For which of the following is NOT screened for in blood for transfusion?...

    Incorrect

    • For which of the following is NOT screened for in blood for transfusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: EBV

      Explanation:

      Blood for transfusion is routinely screened for hepatitis B and C, HIV, CMV and syphilis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - After total thyroidectomy, which of the following investigations is recommended in the immediate...

    Incorrect

    • After total thyroidectomy, which of the following investigations is recommended in the immediate post-operative period?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum calcium

      Explanation:

      Total thyroidectomy might sometimes result in inadvertent excision or damage of parathyroid glands, leading to hypoparathyroidism. Monitoring serum calcium levels in the post-operative period to detect hypocalcaemia is essential to diagnose and prevent this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 30 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the doctor complaining of cough, shortness of breath,...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the doctor complaining of cough, shortness of breath, fever and weight loss. Chest X-ray revealed bilateral hilar and mediastinal lymph node enlargement and bilateral pulmonary opacities. Non-caseating granulomas were found on histological examination. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is an inflammatory disease of unknown aetiology that affects multiple organs but predominantly the lungs and intrathoracic lymph nodes. Systemic and pulmonary symptoms may both be present. Pulmonary involvement is confirmed by a chest X-ray and other imaging studies. The main histological finding is the presence of non-caseating granulomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

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Physiology (1/1) 100%
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