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  • Question 1 - Which of the options below is not classified as a type of motor...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below is not classified as a type of motor neuron disease?

      Your Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Multisystem atrophy

      Explanation:

      Motor neuron Disease: A Progressive Neurodegenerative Condition

      Motor neuron Disease (MND) is a condition that progressively damages the upper and lower motor neurons. This damage leads to muscle weakness and wasting, resulting in a loss of mobility in the limbs, as well as difficulties with speech, swallowing, and breathing. MND can be classified into four main types, including Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, Progressive bulbar palsy, Progressive muscular atrophy, and Primary lateral sclerosis.

      Macroscopic pathological features of MND include atrophy of the precentral gyrus and frontotemporal regions, thinning of the spinal cord, and atrophic anterior nerve roots. Microscopic changes involve the loss of motor neurons from the ventral horn of the spinal cord and lower brainstem. MND is a devastating condition that currently has no cure, and treatment is focused on managing symptoms and improving quality of life for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which type of injury of damage typically leads to utilization behaviour? ...

    Correct

    • Which type of injury of damage typically leads to utilization behaviour?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Abnormal Motor Behaviours Associated with Utilization Behaviour

      Utilization behaviour (UB) is a condition where patients exhibit exaggerated and inappropriate motor responses to environmental cues and objects. This behaviour is automatic and instrumentally correct, but not contextually appropriate. For instance, a patient may start brushing their teeth when presented with a toothbrush, even in a setting where it is not expected. UB is caused by frontal lobe lesions that result in a loss of inhibitory control.

      Other motor abnormalities associated with UB include imitation behaviour, where patients tend to imitate the examiner’s behaviour, and the alien hand sign, where patients experience bizarre hand movements that they cannot control. Manual groping behaviour is also observed, where patients automatically manipulate objects placed in front of them. The grasp reflex, which is normal in infants, should not be present in children and adults. It is an automatic tendency to grip objects of stimuli, such as the examiner’s hand.

      Environmental Dependency Syndrome is another condition associated with UB. It describes deficits in personal control of action and an overreliance on social and physical environmental stimuli to guide behaviour in a social context. For example, a patient may start commenting on pictures in an examiner’s office, believing it to be an art gallery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which class of antidepressants share a molecular structure similar to carbamazepine? ...

    Correct

    • Which class of antidepressants share a molecular structure similar to carbamazepine?

      Your Answer: Tricyclics

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine mechanism of action involves decreasing the metabolism of dopamine and noradrenaline, which is similar to tricyclic antidepressants due to their comparable molecular structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Six men in a study on the sleep inducing effects of melatonin are...

    Incorrect

    • Six men in a study on the sleep inducing effects of melatonin are aged 52, 55, 56, 58, 59, and 92. What is the median age of the men included in the study?

      Your Answer: 58

      Correct Answer: 57

      Explanation:

      – The median is the point with half the values above and half below.
      – In the given data set, there are an even number of values.
      – The median value is halfway between the two middle values.
      – The middle values are 56 and 58.
      – Therefore, the median is (56 + 58) / 2.

      Measures of Central Tendency

      Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.

      The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.

      The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.

      In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In which condition is focal slowing observed in the left temporal region on...

    Correct

    • In which condition is focal slowing observed in the left temporal region on electroencephalography?

      Your Answer: Normal aging

      Explanation:

      Electroencephalography

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.

      Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.

      Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.

      Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.

      Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.

      Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following lower brain structures can cause either decreased or increased...

    Correct

    • Which of the following lower brain structures can cause either decreased or increased appetite when damaged?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Hunger and thirst are regulated by the hypothalamus, while emotional responses and perceptions of others’ emotions are controlled by the amygdala. The brainstem is responsible for arousal, while the cerebellum controls voluntary movement and balance. The medulla, on the other hand, controls breathing and heartbeat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      9.2
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  • Question 7 - Who was the first person to use the term 'learning disability'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who was the first person to use the term 'learning disability'?

      Your Answer: Griesinger

      Correct Answer: Kirk

      Explanation:

      Historical Terminology and Figures in Psychiatry

      Paragraph 1: The term ‘learning disability’ was first used by Samuel Kirk in 1963 during a conference in Chicago. It is important for trainees to understand the history of terminology in psychiatry, including phrases like mental handicap, retardation, and intellectual disability, as they are associated with attitudes and concepts that have shaped care styles over the last century.

      Paragraph 2: James Watts was a prominent practitioner and advocate of psychosurgery, a controversial treatment that involved surgical intervention in the brain to treat mental illness. His work has had a lasting impact on the field of psychiatry.

      Paragraph 3: Wilhelm Griesinger, a German psychiatrist, is credited with describing ‘primary insanity’ (primäre verrücktheit), a term used to describe mental illness that arises without any apparent physical cause.

      Paragraph 4: Johann Christian Reil, another German psychiatrist, is known for coining the term ‘psychiatry’ in the late 18th century. His work helped to establish psychiatry as a distinct field of medicine.

      Paragraph 5: Charles Perry, an English physician, published ‘A mechanical account and explication of the hysterical passion’ in the 17th century. This work helped to shape early understandings of hysteria, a condition that was once believed to be caused by a ‘wandering womb’ in women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      14.2
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  • Question 8 - Typically, how much time elapses before delirium tremens (DTs) occur after a person...

    Correct

    • Typically, how much time elapses before delirium tremens (DTs) occur after a person stops drinking completely?

      Your Answer: 3-5 days

      Explanation:

      The onset of DTs typically happens between three to five days after stopping drinking. However, tremulousness of withdrawal convulsions (also known as rum fits) can occur during a drinking binge of shortly after stopping drinking. Alcoholic hallucinosis, on the other hand, can develop over a period of days of weeks and is characterized by auditory hallucinations. Unlike DTs, it is typically accompanied by less severe agitation and mental confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      14.7
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  • Question 9 - Among the SSRIs, which one is most likely to result in notable weight...

    Correct

    • Among the SSRIs, which one is most likely to result in notable weight gain?

      Your Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants and Weight Gain

      Studies suggest that certain types of antidepressants, such as tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), may be more likely to cause weight gain than newer antidepressants like selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). However, mirtazapine, a newer antidepressant, may have a similar risk for weight gain as TCAs. Among SSRIs, paroxetine may have a higher risk for weight gain during long-term treatment compared to other SSRIs. On the other hand, bupropion and nefazodone may have a lower risk for weight gain than SSRIs in the long term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following symptoms is not associated with Gerstmann's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following symptoms is not associated with Gerstmann's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Prosopagnosia

      Explanation:

      Gerstmann’s Syndrome: Symptoms and Brain Lesions

      Gerstmann’s syndrome is a condition that is characterized by several symptoms, including dyscalculia, dysgraphia, finger agnosia, and right-left disorientation. Patients with this syndrome have been found to have lesions in areas such as the left frontal posterior, left parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes. The left angular gyrus, which is located at the junction of the temporal, occipital, and parietal lobes, seems to be the main area of overlap. Although the function of the angular gyrus is not well understood, it is believed to be involved in various functions such as calculation, spatial reasoning, understanding of ordinal concepts, and comprehension of metaphors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.4
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  • Question 11 - What is another term for case-mix bias? ...

    Correct

    • What is another term for case-mix bias?

      Your Answer: Disease spectrum bias

      Explanation:

      Types of Bias in Statistics

      Bias is a systematic error that can lead to incorrect conclusions. Confounding factors are variables that are associated with both the outcome and the exposure but have no causative role. Confounding can be addressed in the design and analysis stage of a study. The main method of controlling confounding in the analysis phase is stratification analysis. The main methods used in the design stage are matching, randomization, and restriction of participants.

      There are two main types of bias: selection bias and information bias. Selection bias occurs when the selected sample is not a representative sample of the reference population. Disease spectrum bias, self-selection bias, participation bias, incidence-prevalence bias, exclusion bias, publication of dissemination bias, citation bias, and Berkson’s bias are all subtypes of selection bias. Information bias occurs when gathered information about exposure, outcome, of both is not correct and there was an error in measurement. Detection bias, recall bias, lead time bias, interviewer/observer bias, verification and work-up bias, Hawthorne effect, and ecological fallacy are all subtypes of information bias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the main structural component of alpha-synuclein? ...

    Correct

    • What is the main structural component of alpha-synuclein?

      Your Answer: Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s Disease Pathology

      Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects the central nervous system. The pathology of Parkinson’s disease is very similar to that of Lewy body dementia. The macroscopic features of Parkinson’s disease include pallor of the substantia nigra (midbrain) and locus coeruleus (pons). The microscopic changes include the presence of Lewy bodies, which are intracellular aggregates of alpha-synuclein. Additionally, there is a loss of dopaminergic cells from the substantia nigra pars compacta. These changes contribute to the motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Understanding the pathology of Parkinson’s disease is crucial for developing effective treatments and improving the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.8
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  • Question 13 - Mrs. Johnson is a 45-year-old woman who has been referred to you by...

    Correct

    • Mrs. Johnson is a 45-year-old woman who has been referred to you by her therapist. She has a history of pursuing over 40 cases against various individuals, services, and authorities. Many of these cases have been dismissed as frivolous.

      She works as a receptionist, but presents as someone capable of more challenging work. She reports being fired from several jobs due to discrimination and mistreatment.

      Mrs. Johnson is divorced, following her husband's infidelity. After the divorce, she told her children they could either continue to see her of their father. They chose to maintain a relationship with both parents, but Mrs. Johnson is unable to accept this.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described in the scenario could be consistent with various diagnoses, but the most appropriate diagnosis is paranoid personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by several symptoms, including excessive sensitivity to setbacks, persistent grudges, distorted perceptions of others’ actions, a strong sense of personal rights, unfounded suspicions of infidelity, self-importance, and preoccupation with conspiracies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Levinson's theory of development identifies the midlife transition as occurring during which time...

    Correct

    • Levinson's theory of development identifies the midlife transition as occurring during which time frame?

      Your Answer: 40-45

      Explanation:

      Erik Erikson and Daniel Levinson expanded the understanding of adult development. Erikson proposed a life-span model of human development consisting of eight successive psychosocial stages, each associated with an inherent conflict of crisis that the individual must encounter and successfully resolve to proceed with development. Levinson proposed a developmental theory consisting of universal stages of phases that extend from the infancy state to the elderly state, based on biographical interviews of 40 men in America. Both theorists maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and builds upon each previous stage, and that failure to successfully negotiate a stage can result in a reduced ability to complete further stages and therefore a more unhealthy personality and sense of self. However, Levinson’s theory is age-based rather than event-based, and his model proposed a ‘life sequence’ consisting of a series of alternating stable (structure-building) periods and cross-era transitional (structure-changing) periods, with transitional periods typically lasting 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      57.1
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  • Question 15 - A team of scientists aims to prevent bias in their study on the...

    Correct

    • A team of scientists aims to prevent bias in their study on the effectiveness of a new medication for elderly patients with hypertension. They randomly assign 80 patients to the treatment group, of which 60 complete the 12-week trial. Another 80 patients are assigned to the placebo group, with 75 completing the trial. The researchers agree to conduct an intention-to-treat (ITT) analysis using the LOCF method. What type of bias are they attempting to eliminate?

      Your Answer: Attrition bias

      Explanation:

      To address the issue of drop-outs in a study, an intention to treat (ITT) analysis can be employed. Drop-outs can lead to attrition bias, which creates systematic differences in attrition across treatment groups. In an ITT analysis, all patients are included in the groups they were initially assigned to through random allocation. To handle missing data, two common methods are last observation carried forward and worst case scenario analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The prevention of abnormal amyloid protein formation in senile plaques is achieved through...

    Incorrect

    • The prevention of abnormal amyloid protein formation in senile plaques is achieved through the cleavage of amyloid precursor protein by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Beta secretase

      Correct Answer: Alpha secretase

      Explanation:

      Amyloid Precursor Protein and its Role in Alzheimer’s Disease

      Amyloid precursor protein (APP) is a crucial component of amyloid plaques, which are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease. When APP is cleaved by beta-secretase, it produces beta-amyloid (Abeta), the primary component of senile plaques in Alzheimer’s disease. On the other hand, cleavage of APP by alpha-secretase prevents Abeta formation, leading to the production of non amyloidogenic secreted APPs products.

      The accumulation of Abeta in the brain is believed to be a key factor in the development and progression of Alzheimer’s disease. Abeta peptides aggregate to form amyloid plaques, which can disrupt neuronal function and lead to cognitive decline. Therefore, understanding the mechanisms that regulate APP processing and Abeta production is crucial for developing effective treatments for Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      18.8
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  • Question 17 - The nucleus tractus solitaries is medullary nucleus that processes the following inputs except:...

    Correct

    • The nucleus tractus solitaries is medullary nucleus that processes the following inputs except:

      Your Answer: Sensory input from the semi-circular canal (CN VIII)

      Explanation:

      Located in the brain stem is a series of purely sensory nuclei known as tractus solitaries. Inputs of the nucleus tractus solitaries include:
      Taste information from the facial nerve (anterior 2/3 of the tongue), glossopharyngeal nerve (posterior 1/3) and vagus nerve (small area on the epiglottis).
      Sensory information from the ear (auricular branch of the vagus nerve).
      Chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors of the general visceral afferent pathway (GVA) in the carotid body via glossopharyngeal nerve, aortic bodies, and the sinoatrial node, via the vagus nerve.
      Chemically and mechanically sensitive neurons of the general visceral afferent pathway (GVA) with endings located in the heart, lungs, airways, gastrointestinal system, pharynx, and liver via the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      100.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What was the first neurotransmitter to be recognized? ...

    Incorrect

    • What was the first neurotransmitter to be recognized?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      Henry Dale was the first to identify acetylcholine in 1915 through its effects on cardiac tissue, and he was awarded the Nobel Prize in Medicine in 1936 alongside Otto Loewi for their work. Arvid Carlsson discovered dopamine as a neurotransmitter in 1957, while von Euler discovered noradrenaline (also known as norepinephrine) as both a hormone and neurotransmitter in 1946. Oxytocin is typically classified as a hormone, while substance P is a neuropeptide that functions as both a neurotransmitter and neuromodulator and was first discovered in 1931.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      23.2
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  • Question 19 - You are asked to assess a 75 year old woman on a geriatric...

    Correct

    • You are asked to assess a 75 year old woman on a geriatric ward who presents with sudden dizziness and vomiting. During your examination, you notice that the right side of her face seems to have lost sensation, and her left arm and leg also appear to have lost sensation to pain and temperature. What is your suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      Posterior inferior cerebellar artery occlusion/infarct, also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome of lateral medullary syndrome, can cause a sudden onset of dizziness and vomiting. It can also result in ipsilateral facial sensory loss, specifically for pain and temperature, and contralateral sensory loss for pain and temperature of the limbs and trunk. Nystagmus to the side of the lesion, ipsilateral limb ataxia, dysphagia, and dysarthria are also common symptoms. Additionally, this condition can cause ipsilateral pharyngeal and laryngeal paralysis.

      Brain Blood Supply and Consequences of Occlusion

      The brain receives blood supply from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which form the circle of Willis. The circle of Willis acts as a shunt system in case of vessel damage. The three main vessels arising from the circle are the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), middle cerebral artery (MCA), and posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Occlusion of these vessels can result in various neurological deficits. ACA occlusion may cause hemiparesis of the contralateral foot and leg, sensory loss, and frontal signs. MCA occlusion is the most common and can lead to hemiparesis, dysphasia/aphasia, neglect, and visual field defects. PCA occlusion may cause alexia, loss of sensation, hemianopia, prosopagnosia, and cranial nerve defects. It is important to recognize these consequences to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      45.6
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  • Question 20 - Which of the options below is not an accepted method for screening alcohol-related...

    Correct

    • Which of the options below is not an accepted method for screening alcohol-related issues?

      Your Answer: PACE

      Explanation:

      Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6.3
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  • Question 21 - What is the effect of being heterozygous for the APOE4 allele on the...

    Correct

    • What is the effect of being heterozygous for the APOE4 allele on the risk of Alzheimer's compared to those who do not have the allele?

      Your Answer: Increases it by a factor of 3

      Explanation:

      Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      9.2
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  • Question 22 - A 62-year-old male with a prolonged history of alcohol abuse arrives at the...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old male with a prolonged history of alcohol abuse arrives at the Emergency department displaying evident disorientation, a lateral gaze palsy, and lack of coordination. His blood alcohol concentration measures at 68 mg per 100 mls blood, while his electrolytes, complete blood count, and liver function tests appear normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with confusion, eye signs (ophthalmoplegia of nystagmus), and an ataxic gait, Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be suspected. This serious, but reversible, condition is most commonly caused by alcohol dependence and is due to a lack of Vitamin B1 (thiamine). Acute alcohol intoxication is unlikely as the patient’s blood alcohol level is below the legal limit for driving. Amnesic syndrome is not the correct diagnosis as it is characterized by impairment of new learning without obvious confusion. Normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterized by urinary incontinence, gait disturbance, and cognitive decline. Subdural hematoma is not a likely diagnosis as there is no history of head injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      41.5
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements most accurately defines tangentiality? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements most accurately defines tangentiality?

      Your Answer: It is a disorder of the form of thought

      Explanation:

      Karl Jaspers, a German psychiatrist and philosopher, first described tangentiality as a formal thought disorder where the patient deviates from the topic at hand and introduces new but related words. Although the examiner can usually follow the patient’s train of thought, the patient often loses track of the interviewer’s question. While tangentiality is not specific to any particular mental disorder, it can be present in conditions such as mania, hypomania, and schizophrenia. Other examples of formal thought disorder include loosening of associations, circumstantiality, thought block, perseveration, and flight of ideas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      10.9
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  • Question 24 - How can we describe the act of believing in a negative stereotype about...

    Incorrect

    • How can we describe the act of believing in a negative stereotype about one's own group and applying those beliefs to oneself?

      Your Answer: Courtesy stigma

      Correct Answer: Self-stigma

      Explanation:

      Self stigma is when an individual adopts negative societal beliefs about their condition. On the other hand, courtesy stigma (also known as stigma by association) is a form of stigma directed towards individuals such as family members and healthcare professionals who are associated with those who have mental health issues.

      Stigma is a term used to describe the negative attitudes and beliefs that people hold towards individuals who are different from them. There are several types of stigma, including discredited and discreditable stigma, felt stigma, enacted stigma, and courtesy stigma. Discredited stigma refers to visible stigmas such as race, gender, of physical disability, while discreditable stigma refers to concealable stigmas such as mental illness of HIV infection. Felt stigma is the shame and fear of discrimination that prevents people from seeking help, while enacted stigma is the experience of unfair treatment by others. Finally, courtesy stigma refers to the stigma that attaches to those who are associated with a stigmatized person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      39.6
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  • Question 25 - Which statement accurately describes Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

      Your Answer: NMS can be caused by the use of anticholinergic drugs alone

      Correct Answer: NMS can be caused by antidepressants

      Explanation:

      If a patient develops NMS, they may still require antipsychotic medication. However, it is recommended to stop antipsychotics for at least 5 days, and ideally longer. When restarting antipsychotics, it should be done slowly and at low doses, with close monitoring of blood pressure and temperature.

      Anticholinergic drugs are believed to worsen NMS, possibly due to their effect on reducing sweating and exacerbating hyperthermia. However, there is no direct causal relationship between anticholinergics and NMS.

      In cases where an alternative antipsychotic is needed, those with low dopamine affinity should be considered. These include clozapine, quetiapine, and aripiprazole.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A teenager seeks help for the first time with symptoms of depression. She...

    Correct

    • A teenager seeks help for the first time with symptoms of depression. She undergoes extensive treatment from a youth mental health team with counseling and antidepressants. What level of prevention has she received?

      Your Answer: Secondary prevention

      Explanation:

      Secondary prevention aims to decrease the prevalence of a disorder by targeting individuals in the early stages of the disorder, with the goal of reducing its severity and duration and preventing it from becoming chronic. Primary prevention, on the other hand, aims to decrease the incidence of a disorder by targeting individuals who are at risk of developing the disorder but do not yet have it. Selected prevention is a type of primary prevention that focuses on individuals who are at an increased risk of developing the disorder due to factors such as family history. Tertiary prevention is aimed at individuals who already have the disorder, with the goal of reducing the associated disability. Universal prevention is a type of primary prevention that targets the entire population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Prevention Of Psychological Disorder
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  • Question 27 - What is the most probable cause of negative consequences when consuming alcohol? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable cause of negative consequences when consuming alcohol?

      Your Answer: Possessing very active forms of aldehyde dehydrogenase

      Correct Answer: Possessing very active forms of alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      The accumulation of acetaldehyde in the bloodstream is responsible for the negative consequences of alcohol consumption, which can occur when alcohol dehydrogenase is active of aldehyde dehydrogenase is inactive.

      Genetics and Alcoholism

      Alcoholism tends to run in families, and several studies confirm that biological children of alcoholics are more likely to develop alcoholism even when adopted by parents without the condition. Monozygotic twins have a greater concordance rate for alcoholism than dizygotic twins. Heritability estimates range from 45 to 65 percent for both men and women. While genetic differences affect risk, there is no “gene for alcoholism,” and both environmental and social factors weigh heavily on the outcome.

      The genes with the clearest contribution to the risk for alcoholism and alcohol consumption are alcohol dehydrogenase 1B (ADH1B) and aldehyde dehydrogenase 2 (ALDH2). The first step in ethanol metabolism is oxidation to acetaldehyde, by ADHs. The second step is metabolism of the acetaldehyde to acetate by ALDHs. Individuals carrying even a single copy of the ALDH2*504K display the “Asian flushing reaction” when they consume even small amounts of alcohol. There is one significant genetic polymorphism of the ALDH2 gene, resulting in allelic variants ALDH2*1 and ALDH2*2, which is virtually inactive. ALDH2*2 is present in about 50 percent of the Taiwanese, Han Chinese, and Japanese populations. It is extremely rare outside Asia. Nearly no individuals of European of African descent carry this allele. ALDH2*504K has repeatedly been demonstrated to have a protective effect against alcohol use disorders.

      The three different class I gene loci, ADH1A (alpha), ADH1B (beta), and ADH1C (gamma) are situated close to each other in the region 4q2123. The alleles ADH1C*1 and ADH1B*2 code for fast metabolism of alcohol. The ADH1B*1 slow allele is very common among Caucasians, with approximately 95 percent having the homozygous ADH1B*1/1 genotype and 5 percent having the heterozygous ADH1B*1/2 genotype. The ADH1B*2 allele is the most common allele in Asian populations. In African populations, the ADH1B*1 allele is the most common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      1875
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A team of scientists aimed to examine the prognosis of late-onset Alzheimer's disease...

    Correct

    • A team of scientists aimed to examine the prognosis of late-onset Alzheimer's disease using the available evidence. They intend to arrange the evidence in a hierarchy based on their study designs.
      What study design would be placed at the top of their hierarchy?

      Your Answer: Systematic review of cohort studies

      Explanation:

      When investigating prognosis, the hierarchy of study designs starts with a systematic review of cohort studies, followed by a cohort study, follow-up of untreated patients from randomized controlled trials, case series, and expert opinion. The strength of evidence provided by a study depends on its ability to minimize bias and maximize attribution. The Agency for Healthcare Policy and Research hierarchy of study types is widely accepted as reliable, with systematic reviews and meta-analyses of randomized controlled trials at the top, followed by randomized controlled trials, non-randomized intervention studies, observational studies, and non-experimental studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      92.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which stage of the cell cycle is involved in the process of cell...

    Incorrect

    • Which stage of the cell cycle is involved in the process of cell division?

      Your Answer: S Phase

      Correct Answer: M Phase

      Explanation:

      The M phase is where cell division takes place through mitosis.

      Cytokinesis: The Final Stage of Cell Division

      Cytokinesis is the final stage of cell division, where the cell splits into two daughter cells, each with a nucleus. This process is essential for the growth and repair of tissues in multicellular organisms. In mitosis, cytokinesis occurs after telophase, while in meiosis, it occurs after telophase I and telophase II.

      During cytokinesis, a contractile ring made of actin and myosin filaments forms around the cell’s equator, constricting it like a belt. This ring gradually tightens, pulling the cell membrane inward and creating a furrow that deepens until it reaches the center of the cell. Eventually, the furrow meets in the middle, dividing the cell into two daughter cells.

      In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by the formation of a cleavage furrow, while in plant cells, a cell plate forms between the two daughter nuclei, which eventually develops into a new cell wall. The timing and mechanism of cytokinesis are tightly regulated by a complex network of proteins and signaling pathways, ensuring that each daughter cell receives the correct amount of cytoplasm and organelles.

      Overall, cytokinesis is a crucial step in the cell cycle, ensuring that genetic material is equally distributed between daughter cells and allowing for the growth and development of multicellular organisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for excitatory signals in the brain? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for excitatory signals in the brain?

      Your Answer: Glutamate

      Explanation:

      Glutamate is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for excitatory signaling in the brain.

      Glutamate: The Most Abundant Neurotransmitter in the Brain

      Glutamate is a neurotransmitter that is found in abundance in the brain. It is always excitatory and can act through both ionotropic and metabotropic receptors. This neurotransmitter is believed to play a crucial role in learning and memory processes. Its ability to stimulate neurons and enhance synaptic plasticity is thought to be responsible for its role in memory formation. Glutamate is also involved in various other brain functions, including motor control, sensory perception, and emotional regulation. Its importance in the brain makes it a target for various neurological disorders, including Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, and epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Wernicke’s area: ...

    Correct

    • Wernicke’s area:

      Your Answer: Is concerned with comprehension of auditory and visual information

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s area is located in the categorical hemisphere or left hemisphere in about 95% of right handed individuals and 60% of left handed individuals. It is involved in the comprehension or understanding of written and spoken language. In contrast Broca’s area is involved in production of language.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      121.5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - From which structure does the mesolimbic pathway project to the nucleus accumbens? ...

    Correct

    • From which structure does the mesolimbic pathway project to the nucleus accumbens?

      Your Answer: Midbrain

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - In humans, the rate of CSF production per day is: ...

    Incorrect

    • In humans, the rate of CSF production per day is:

      Your Answer: 100-250 mls

      Correct Answer: 450-600 mls

      Explanation:

      CSF is produced around 20-25 ml per hour or 480-600ml per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - What does the presence of a fenestrated cavum septum pellucidum indicate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What does the presence of a fenestrated cavum septum pellucidum indicate?

      Your Answer: Huntington's disease

      Correct Answer: Punch drunk syndrome

      Explanation:

      A fenestrated cavum septum pellucidum is linked to dementia pugilistica.

      Dementia Pugilistica: A Neurodegenerative Condition Resulting from Neurotrauma

      Dementia pugilistica, also known as chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), is a neurodegenerative condition that results from neurotrauma. It is commonly seen in boxers and NFL players, but can also occur in anyone with neurotrauma. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as gait ataxia, slurred speech, impaired hearing, tremors, disequilibrium, neurobehavioral disturbances, and progressive cognitive decline.

      Most cases of dementia pugilistica present with early onset cognitive deficits, and behavioral signs exhibited by patients include aggression, suspiciousness, paranoia, childishness, hypersexuality, depression, and restlessness. The progression of the condition leads to more prominent behavioral symptoms such as difficulty with impulse control, irritability, inappropriateness, and explosive outbursts of aggression.

      Neuropathological abnormalities have been identified in CTE, with the most unique feature being the abnormal accumulation of tau in neurons and glia in an irregular, focal, perivascular distribution and at the depths of cortical sulci. Abnormalities of the septum pellucidum, such as cavum and fenestration, are also a common feature.

      While the condition has become increasingly rare due to the progressive improvement in sports safety, it is important to recognize the potential long-term consequences of repeated head injuries and take steps to prevent them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the following sleep disruptions is not commonly linked to depression? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following sleep disruptions is not commonly linked to depression?

      Your Answer: Increased total sleep time

      Explanation:

      Depression and Sleep Architecture

      Major depression has been extensively studied using polysomnography, a technique that records brain waves, eye movements, and muscle activity during sleep. The results of these studies have consistently shown that individuals with depression experience significant disruptions in their sleep architecture.

      Specifically, depression is associated with decreased sleep continuity, meaning that individuals may wake up frequently throughout the night. Additionally, depression is characterized by prolonged sleep onset latency, of the amount of time it takes to fall asleep, as well as increased wake time after sleep onset, which refers to the amount of time spent awake during the night.

      Other sleep disturbances commonly observed in individuals with depression include decreased sleep efficiency, of the amount of time spent asleep relative to the amount of time spent in bed, and decreased total sleep time. Early morning awakenings are also common in depression, as are reductions in slow wave sleep, which is the deepest stage of sleep.

      Interestingly, depression is also associated with changes in REM sleep, the stage of sleep during which dreaming occurs. Specifically, individuals with depression tend to have reduced REM sleep onset latency, meaning they enter REM sleep more quickly, as well as increased REM density, of the amount of eye movements during REM sleep. Additionally, individuals with depression may spend a prolonged amount of time in the first REM sleep period.

      Overall, the disruptions in sleep architecture observed in depression may contribute to the development and maintenance of depressive symptoms. Understanding these sleep disturbances may therefore be an important target for the treatment of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - What is the classification of bulimia nervosa according to the ICD-11? ...

    Correct

    • What is the classification of bulimia nervosa according to the ICD-11?

      Your Answer: Vomiting is not necessary for a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      To diagnose bulimia, weight reduction methods are necessary, but vomiting is not the only method used. Some individuals with bulimia may opt for laxatives of excessive exercise instead. The SCOFF questionnaire is utilized to screen for both anorexia and bulimia, rather than the CAGE questionnaire.

      Eating disorders are a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical and psychological consequences. The ICD-11 lists several types of eating disorders, including Anorexia Nervosa, Bulimia Nervosa, Binge Eating Disorder, Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder, Pica, and Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder.

      Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by significantly low body weight, a persistent pattern of restrictive eating of other behaviors aimed at maintaining low body weight, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Bulimia Nervosa involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, marked distress of impairment in functioning, and is more common in overweight and obese individuals. Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder involves avoidance of restriction of food intake that results in significant weight loss of impairment in functioning, but is not motivated by preoccupation with body weight of shape. Pica involves the regular consumption of non-nutritive substances, while Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder involves intentional and repeated regurgitation of previously swallowed food.

      It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve a combination of therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - What is a known factor that directly leads to polyuria? ...

    Correct

    • What is a known factor that directly leads to polyuria?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - What is a personality disorder category in ICD-10? ...

    Correct

    • What is a personality disorder category in ICD-10?

      Your Answer: Anankastic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      ICD-10’s Anankastic personality disorder is the same as DSM V obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, while inadequate and passive aggressive personality disorders are not recognized in either classification system. Additionally, DSM V includes narcissistic personality disorder as a distinct category of personality disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 62-year-old woman is referred to your clinic.
    Her daughter has noticed a progressive...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman is referred to your clinic.
      Her daughter has noticed a progressive behavioural change in her mother. She is more aggressive whilst demanding attention. She giggles uncontrollably for no apparent reason, and has been seen wandering outside their house without proper clothing. She has also become more forgetful over the last six months.
      She is physically well and has no problems with her heart, blood pressure of diabetes. She is on no medication. You conduct cognitive testing and refer the woman for an EEG.
      What is the most probable EEG finding?

      Your Answer: Increased delta waves

      Correct Answer: Normal EEG

      Explanation:

      The individual’s age, behavioral changes, disinhibition, and fatuous giggling suggest a diagnosis of frontal lobe dementia, which is further supported by their physical examination. The absence of focal abnormalities on EEG rules out the possibility of vascular dementia. Typically, EEG results are normal during the early stages of this condition and remain so until the advanced stages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      101.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - What is a true statement about Williams syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Williams syndrome?

      Your Answer: It is commonly associated with hyperacusis

      Explanation:

      Williams syndrome is a genetic condition resulting from the deletion of a portion of chromosome 7. Individuals with this syndrome often experience cognitive challenges, but possess strong social skills and impressive language abilities. While hyperacusis is a common symptom, those affected often have a passion for music and may excel in this area. Williams syndrome is also linked to endocrine irregularities, specifically hypercalcemia.

      Understanding Williams Syndrome

      Williams syndrome is a rare neurodevelopmental disorder that is characterized by distinct physical and behavioral traits. Individuals with this syndrome have a unique facial appearance, including a low nasal bridge and a cheerful demeanor. They also tend to have mild to moderate mental retardation and are highly sociable and verbal.

      Children with Williams syndrome are particularly sensitive to sound and may overreact to loud of high-pitched noises. The syndrome is caused by a deletion in the q11.23 region of chromosome 7, which codes for more than 20 genes. This deletion typically occurs during the recombination phase of meiosis and can be detected using fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH).

      Although Williams syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition, most cases are not inherited and occur sporadically in individuals with no family history of the disorder. With a prevalence of around 1 in 20,000, Williams syndrome is a rare condition that requires specialized care and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which food should be consumed with caution by patients taking tranylcypromine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which food should be consumed with caution by patients taking tranylcypromine?

      Your Answer: Boiled eggs

      Correct Answer: Cheese

      Explanation:

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Which pathway's dopamine blockade is responsible for the antipsychotic-induced extrapyramidal side effects? ...

    Correct

    • Which pathway's dopamine blockade is responsible for the antipsychotic-induced extrapyramidal side effects?

      Your Answer: Nigrostriatal

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - At what level of moral reasoning according to Kohlberg's theory is a teenager...

    Incorrect

    • At what level of moral reasoning according to Kohlberg's theory is a teenager who believes stealing is justified if it is done to provide for one's family, and when asked why, responds with because it's common knowledge?

      Your Answer: Social contracts and individual rights

      Correct Answer: Good interpersonal relationships

      Explanation:

      Sophie has entered the phase of conventional morality where she comprehends that morality is determined by motivation rather than outcomes. However, societal norms still dictate what is considered moral rather than individual beliefs. This is exemplified by the emphasis on everyone in moral reasoning. Additionally, children begin to recognize the significance of portraying themselves as having virtuous intentions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      55.5
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A senior citizen started on an antidepressant develops hyponatremia. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A senior citizen started on an antidepressant develops hyponatremia. Which of the following in their history was most likely to contribute to this?

      Your Answer: Having a low baseline sodium concentration

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - On which chromosome is the APOE allele situated? ...

    Correct

    • On which chromosome is the APOE allele situated?

      Your Answer: 19

      Explanation:

      Gene Chromosome
      APP 21
      PSEN-1 14
      PSEN-2 1
      APOE 19

      Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which type of brain lesion is typically associated with Alexia without agraphia? ...

    Correct

    • Which type of brain lesion is typically associated with Alexia without agraphia?

      Your Answer: Posterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      151.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - In what conditions are Kuru plaques occasionally observed? ...

    Correct

    • In what conditions are Kuru plaques occasionally observed?

      Your Answer: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

      Explanation:

      Pathology Findings in Psychiatry

      There are several pathology findings that are associated with various psychiatric conditions. Papp-Lantos bodies, for example, are visible in the CNS and are associated with multisystem atrophy. Pick bodies, on the other hand, are large, dark-staining aggregates of proteins in neurological tissue and are associated with frontotemporal dementia.

      Lewy bodies are another common pathology finding in psychiatry and are associated with Parkinson’s disease and Lewy Body dementia. These are round, concentrically laminated, pale eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions that are aggregates of alpha-synuclein.

      Other pathology findings include asteroid bodies, which are associated with sarcoidosis and berylliosis, and are acidophilic, stellate inclusions in giant cells. Barr bodies are associated with stains of X chromosomes and are inactivated X chromosomes that appear as a dark staining mass in contact with the nuclear membrane.

      Mallory bodies are another common pathology finding and are associated with alcoholic hepatitis, alcoholic cirrhosis, Wilson’s disease, and primary-biliary cirrhosis. These are eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions in hepatocytes that are made up of intermediate filaments, predominantly prekeratin.

      Other pathology findings include Schaumann bodies, which are associated with sarcoidosis and berylliosis, and are concentrically laminated inclusions in giant cells. Zebra bodies are associated with Niemann-Pick disease, Tay-Sachs disease, of any of the mucopolysaccharidoses and are palisaded lamellated membranous cytoplasmic bodies seen in macrophages.

      LE bodies, also known as hematoxylin bodies, are associated with SLE (lupus) and are nuclei of damaged cells with bound anti-nuclear antibodies that become homogeneous and loose chromatin pattern. Verocay bodies are associated with Schwannoma (Neurilemoma) and are palisades of nuclei at the end of a fibrillar bundle.

      Hirano bodies are associated with normal aging but are more numerous in Alzheimer’s disease. These are eosinophilic, football-shaped inclusions seen in neurons of the brain. Neurofibrillary tangles are another common pathology finding in Alzheimer’s disease and are made up of microtubule-associated proteins and neurofilaments.

      Kayser-Fleischer rings are associated with Wilson’s disease and are rings of discoloration on the cornea. Finally, Kuru plaques are associated with Kuru and Gerstmann-Sträussler syndrome and are sometimes present in patients with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). These are composed partly of a host-encoded prion protein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of the options below is not considered a primary delusion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below is not considered a primary delusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delusional guilt

      Explanation:

      Delusional guilt is an intense feeling of remorse or guilt that lacks a rational basis and is often associated with depression. It is not classified as a primary delusion.

      Borderline Learning Disability

      Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - What food item is rich in choline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What food item is rich in choline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Egg yolk

      Explanation:

      Choline, which is essential for the synthesis of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, can be obtained in significant quantities from vegetables, seeds, egg yolk, and liver. However, it is only present in small amounts in most fruits, egg whites, and many beverages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A client taking olanzapine reports experiencing drowsiness. Which neurotransmitter is affected by this...

    Incorrect

    • A client taking olanzapine reports experiencing drowsiness. Which neurotransmitter is affected by this side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Histamine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects

      Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.

      Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

      Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.

      Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.

      The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.

      Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
      Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
      Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
      Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
      Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
      Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
      Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
      Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
      Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
      Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Pimozide + + – + + + +++
      Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
      Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++

      Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which of the subsequent options is not classified as a personality disorder in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the subsequent options is not classified as a personality disorder in the ICD-10?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal

      Explanation:

      While schizotypal personality disorder is included in the DSM, it is not listed as a separate diagnosis in the ICD-10. Instead, it is classified under the umbrella of schizophrenia. However, all of the other personality disorders mentioned are recognized in both the ICD-10 and DSM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
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  • Question 52 - What is the reason behind Mirtazapine ability to improve sleep? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the reason behind Mirtazapine ability to improve sleep?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: H1 antagonism

      Explanation:

      Mirtazapine works by blocking the activity of 5HT2 and 5HT3, H1, and alpha 1 receptors. These actions promote sleep, except for the alpha 2 receptor, which normally inhibits the release of norepinephrine. As the dosage of mirtazapine increases, its ability to enhance sleep may decrease due to its antagonism of the alpha 2 receptor. Therefore, doses of 30mg of less are typically used to treat insomnia. This information is from the book Foundations of Psychiatric Sleep Medicine, published by Cambridge University Press in 2011, on page 224.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 53 - A 65-year-old man who suffered a head injury is unable to retrieve previously...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man who suffered a head injury is unable to retrieve previously learned information from his memory. What specific aspect of memory function is impaired?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retrieval

      Explanation:

      Long term memory can be categorized into five functions: Registration, Retention, Retrieval, Recall, and Recognition. Memory issues can arise in any of these areas. Retrieval refers to the ability to retrieve stored information from memory, and its loss indicates an organic cause. Registration involves the ability to add new information to the memory store, which can occur through repeated exposure of a single presentation. Retention refers to the ability to store information that can be retrieved later. Recall is the act of bringing stored information back into consciousness at a specific time. Recognition is the feeling of familiarity that accompanies the retrieval of stored information, and while it is related to memory, it is not strictly a part of the memory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 54 - For what purpose are the 'Thurstone' and 'Semantic differential' scales primarily used to...

    Incorrect

    • For what purpose are the 'Thurstone' and 'Semantic differential' scales primarily used to evaluate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attitude

      Explanation:

      Attitude scales are used to measure a person’s feelings and thoughts towards something. There are several types of attitude scales, including the Thurstone scale, Likert scale, semantic differential scale, and Gutman scale. The Thurstone scale involves creating a list of statements and having judges score them based on their negativity of positivity towards an issue. Respondents then indicate whether they agree of disagree with each statement. The Likert scale asks respondents to indicate their degree of agreement of disagreement with a series of statements using a five-point scale. The semantic differential scale presents pairs of opposite adjectives and asks respondents to rate their position on a five- of seven-point scale. The Gutman scale involves a list of statements that can be ordered hierarchically, with each statement having a corresponding weight. Respondents’ scores on the scale indicate the number of statements they agree with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 55 - What is the most effective depot antipsychotic for preventing psychotic relapse? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective depot antipsychotic for preventing psychotic relapse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zuclopenthixol decanoate

      Explanation:

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 56 - With what are balloon cells commonly linked? ...

    Incorrect

    • With what are balloon cells commonly linked?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pick's disease

      Explanation:

      Pick’s disease is characterized by swollen and enlarged neurons that have a ballooned appearance, which is why they are commonly referred to as balloon cells. It is important to note that the term ‘balloon cell’ is a general histological term used to describe swollen cells that are often observed in cerebral degeneration. While they can be seen in various conditions, they are particularly prevalent in Pick’s disease and are considered a hallmark feature of the disorder.

      Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration (FTLD) is a pathological term that refers to a group of neurodegenerative disorders that affect the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. FTLD is classified into several subtypes based on the main protein component of neuronal and glial abnormal inclusions and their distribution. The three main proteins associated with FTLD are Tau, TDP-43, and FUS. Each FTD clinical phenotype has been associated with different proportions of these proteins. Macroscopic changes in FTLD include atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes, with focal gyral atrophy that resembles knives. Microscopic changes in FTLD-Tau include neuronal and glial tau aggregation, with further sub-classification based on the existence of different isoforms of tau protein. FTLD-TDP is characterized by cytoplasmic inclusions of TDP-43 in neurons, while FTLD-FUS is characterized by cytoplasmic inclusions of FUS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 57 - Which condition is most likely to be present when a woman is described...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is most likely to be present when a woman is described as having poor dental hygiene, disheveled hair, and an unkempt appearance during a mental state examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Mental State Exam: Appearance

      The appearance of a patient can provide valuable clues to an underlying disorder. It is important to note that the following examples are not always present, but they can be helpful for educational purposes.

      Individuals experiencing hypomania or mania may tend to wear bright and colorful clothing and may apply unusual of garish makeup. On the other hand, unfashionable and mismatched clothing may indicate schizoid personality traits of autistic spectrum disorders.

      An excessively tidy appearance may suggest an obsessional personality. It is important to consider these cues in conjunction with other aspects of the mental state exam to arrive at an accurate diagnosis. Proper observation and interpretation of a patient’s appearance can aid in the development of an effective treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 58 - What is the most specific biomarker for myocarditis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most specific biomarker for myocarditis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Troponin I

      Explanation:

      Elevated troponin levels typically manifest within a few hours of myocardial injury and persist for a maximum of two weeks.

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 59 - What is the personality trait that is not included in the big five?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the personality trait that is not included in the big five?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carefulness

      Explanation:

      The Big Five Personality Traits, also known as OCEAN, are five broad categories that can be used to describe an individual’s personality. These categories include Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion (also known as Surgency), Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (also known as Emotional Stability). Each of these traits can be further broken down into specific characteristics that help to define an individual’s personality. For example, Openness to Experience includes traits such as imagination, creativity, and a willingness to try new things. Conscientiousness includes traits such as organization, responsibility, and dependability. Extraversion includes traits such as sociability, assertiveness, and energy level. Agreeableness includes traits such as kindness, empathy, and cooperation. Finally, Neuroticism includes traits such as anxiety, moodiness, and emotional instability. Understanding these personality traits can be helpful in a variety of settings, such as in the workplace of in personal relationships.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 60 - The inverse stretch reflex causing muscle relaxation when excessive force is applied to...

    Incorrect

    • The inverse stretch reflex causing muscle relaxation when excessive force is applied to a muscle is mediated by which sensory organ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Golgi tendon organ

      Explanation:

      Both the muscle spindle and Golgi tendon body are proprioceptors. The Golgi tendon reflex is a normal component of the reflex arc of the peripheral nervous system. In a Golgi tendon reflex, skeletal muscle contraction causes the antagonist muscle to simultaneously lengthen and relax. This reflex is also called the inverse myotatic reflex, because it is the inverse of the stretch reflex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
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  • Question 61 - A young female asian patient of yours is found to have an elevated...

    Incorrect

    • A young female asian patient of yours is found to have an elevated serum clozapine assay. She is a non-smoker and is also taking valproic acid in addition to her antipsychotic medication. What is the most likely variable that explains her elevated assay result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asian ethnicity

      Explanation:

      Elevated plasma levels of clozapine have been observed in individuals of Asian ethnicity. Conversely, younger patients, males, and smokers tend to have lower plasma levels. The use of carbamazepine can accelerate the metabolism of clozapine, resulting in decreased serum assay levels. However, it is not recommended to use carbamazepine and clozapine together due to the increased risk of bone marrow suppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 62 - When does babbling typically appear during the process of language acquisition? ...

    Incorrect

    • When does babbling typically appear during the process of language acquisition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6-12 months

      Explanation:

      Linguistic Development and Risk Factors for Delayed Speech and Language

      The development of language skills is an important aspect of a child’s growth. The prelinguistic period, from birth to 12 months, is marked by crying, babbling, and echolalia. From 6 to 12 months, a child responds to their name and can differentiate between angry and friendly tones. By 18 to 24 months, a child can use up to 40-50 words, mainly nouns, and starts to combine words in short phrases. By 36 to 48 months, a child has a vocabulary of 900-1000 words, can use plurals and past tense, and can handle three-word sentences easily.

      However, there are risk factors associated with delayed speech and language development. These include a positive family history, male gender, twins, lower maternal education, childhood illness, being born late in the family order, young mother at birth, and low socioeconomic status. of these, a positive family history is considered the most reliable risk factor. It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are concerns about delayed speech and language.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 63 - Where is serotonin primarily produced in the body? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is serotonin primarily produced in the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raphe nuclei

      Explanation:

      Serotonin: Synthesis and Breakdown

      Serotonin, also known as 5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), is synthesized in the central nervous system (CNS) in the raphe nuclei located in the brainstem, as well as in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract in enterochromaffin cells. The amino acid L-tryptophan, obtained from the diet, is used to synthesize serotonin. L-tryptophan can cross the blood-brain barrier, but serotonin cannot.

      The transformation of L-tryptophan into serotonin involves two steps. First, hydroxylation to 5-hydroxytryptophan is catalyzed by tryptophan hydroxylase. Second, decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is catalyzed by L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase.

      Serotonin is taken up from the synapse by a monoamine transporter (SERT). Substances that block this transporter include MDMA, amphetamine, cocaine, TCAs, and SSRIs. Serotonin is broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) and then by aldehyde dehydrogenase to 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 64 - What factors affect the statistical power of a study? ...

    Incorrect

    • What factors affect the statistical power of a study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sample size

      Explanation:

      A study that has a greater sample size is considered to have higher power, meaning it is capable of detecting a significant difference of effect that is clinically relevant.

      The Importance of Power in Statistical Analysis

      Power is a crucial concept in statistical analysis as it helps researchers determine the number of participants needed in a study to detect a clinically significant difference of effect. It represents the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, which means avoiding a Type II error. Power values range from 0 to 1, with 0 indicating 0% and 1 indicating 100%. A power of 0.80 is generally considered the minimum acceptable level.

      Several factors influence the power of a study, including sample size, effect size, and significance level. Larger sample sizes lead to more precise parameter estimations and increase the study’s ability to detect a significant effect. Effect size, which is determined at the beginning of a study, refers to the size of the difference between two means that leads to rejecting the null hypothesis. Finally, the significance level, also known as the alpha level, represents the probability of a Type I error. By considering these factors, researchers can optimize the power of their studies and increase the likelihood of detecting meaningful effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 65 - What is the most frequently occurring genetic mutation in individuals with early onset...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently occurring genetic mutation in individuals with early onset familial Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PSEN1

      Explanation:

      Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 66 - A community center in a low-income neighborhood notices a rise in delinquent behavior...

    Incorrect

    • A community center in a low-income neighborhood notices a rise in delinquent behavior among teenagers. To address this issue, they implement a comprehensive program aimed at preventing the development of mental health disorders. What type of prevention strategy is being utilized in this community center?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indicated prevention

      Explanation:

      The four types of prevention strategies for mental health are indicated, universal, selective, and tertiary. Indicated prevention focuses on individuals who show early signs of biological markers of mental disorder but do not meet diagnostic criteria. Universal prevention targets the general public of a whole population group. Selective prevention targets individuals of subgroups with higher risk factors. Tertiary prevention aims to manage long-term health problems in individuals who already have a mental disorder, with the goal of preventing further deterioration and improving quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Prevention Of Psychological Disorder
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  • Question 67 - Which of the subsequent medical conditions was wrongly attributed to political dissidents during...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the subsequent medical conditions was wrongly attributed to political dissidents during the Soviet era?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sluggish schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      While sluggish schizophrenia was a term misused to categorize political dissidents in the USSR, secondary schizophrenia refers to symptoms of schizophrenia that arise from another disorder and was not utilized in the same context. It is important to note that other countries have also engaged in the misuse of psychiatry for political purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 68 - What is the accurate statement about the pathology of schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about the pathology of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain volume of affected individuals is often reduced

      Explanation:

      While ventricular enlargement is often observed in individuals with schizophrenia, it is not a definitive indicator of the condition as it can also be present in other disorders.

      Schizophrenia is a pathology that is characterized by a number of structural and functional brain alterations. Structural alterations include enlargement of the ventricles, reductions in total brain and gray matter volume, and regional reductions in the amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus, and temporal lobes. Antipsychotic treatment may be associated with gray matter loss over time, and even drug-naïve patients show volume reductions. Cerebral asymmetry is also reduced in affected individuals and healthy relatives. Functional alterations include diminished activation of frontal regions during cognitive tasks and increased activation of temporal regions during hallucinations. These findings suggest that schizophrenia is associated with both macroscopic and functional changes in the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 69 - What gene has been associated with dyslexia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What gene has been associated with dyslexia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DCDC2

      Explanation:

      Genetics and Dyslexia: Insights from a Genome-wide Association Study

      Dyslexia is a learning disorder characterized by difficulty in reading despite adequate intelligence and educational opportunities. It is believed to have a genetic component, with heritability estimates ranging from 40-60%. Recent research has identified several candidate genes associated with dyslexia, including DCDC2, DYX1C1, KIAA0319, GCFC2, MRPL19, and ROBO1.

      A genome-wide association study conducted by Gialluisi (2020) sheds new light on the genetic correlates of dyslexia. The study identified several genetic variants associated with dyslexia, including those located in of near the candidate genes mentioned above. These findings provide further evidence for the genetic basis of dyslexia and may help to improve our understanding of the underlying biological mechanisms involved in the disorder.

      Overall, the study highlights the importance of genetics in dyslexia and underscores the need for continued research in this area. By identifying specific genetic variants associated with dyslexia, researchers may be able to develop more targeted interventions and treatments for individuals with this disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 70 - What condition is identified by the combination of Parkinsonism, cerebellar ataxia, and autonomic...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is identified by the combination of Parkinsonism, cerebellar ataxia, and autonomic failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multisystem atrophy

      Explanation:

      Multisystem Atrophy: A Parkinson Plus Syndrome

      Multisystem atrophy is a type of Parkinson plus syndrome that is characterized by three main features: Parkinsonism, autonomic failure, and cerebellar ataxia. It can present in three different ways, including Shy-Drager Syndrome, Striatonigral degeneration, and Olivopontocerebellar atrophy, each with varying degrees of the three main features.

      Macroscopic features of multisystem atrophy include pallor of the substantia nigra, greenish discoloration and atrophy of the putamen, and cerebellar atrophy. Microscopic features include the presence of Papp-Lantos bodies, which are alpha-synuclein inclusions found in oligodendrocytes in the substantia nigra, cerebellum, and basal ganglia.

      Overall, multisystem atrophy is a complex and debilitating condition that affects multiple systems in the body, leading to a range of symptoms and challenges for patients and their caregivers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 71 - Which of the following is not a way in which galantamine works? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a way in which galantamine works?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits butyrylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      In the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease, acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as galantamine are utilized to enhance central acetylcholine levels. Although they share this common mechanism of action, there are variations in how they function. Unlike galantamine, rivastigmine has the ability to inhibit butyrylcholinesterase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 72 - What category of preventive approach does the initiative promoting physical activity to decrease...

    Incorrect

    • What category of preventive approach does the initiative promoting physical activity to decrease depression fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary

      Explanation:

      Principles of Prevention for Depression

      Depression can be prevented through various principles of prevention. According to an article on depression prevention, there are different levels of prevention that aim to reduce the incidence, prevalence, and associated disability of depression.

      Primary prevention focuses on reducing the occurrence of depression in the general population. This can be achieved through public health campaigns, education, and awareness programs.

      Secondary prevention targets subgroups of the population who are identified as at risk for depression. This can include individuals with a family history of depression, those who have experienced traumatic events, of those with chronic illnesses.

      Tertiary prevention aims to reduce the disability associated with depression. This can involve providing support and treatment to individuals who have already developed depression, in order to prevent further complications and improve their quality of life.

      Universal prevention targets the entire population, while selective prevention targets specific subgroups. Indicated prevention targets individuals who are at a prodromal stage of depression, meaning they are showing early signs of the illness.

      By implementing these principles of prevention, it is possible to reduce the incidence, prevalence, and disability associated with depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 73 - What intervention is most effective in improving disrupted sleep-wake patterns in individuals with...

    Incorrect

    • What intervention is most effective in improving disrupted sleep-wake patterns in individuals with major depressive disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Agomelatine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants typically interfere with the natural pattern of sleep, especially by reducing REM sleep. However, Agomelatine has been found to enhance disrupted sleep-wake cycles in individuals with major depressive disorder.

      Agomelatine: A New Drug for Depression Treatment

      Agomelatine is a recently developed medication that is used to treat depression. Its mechanism of action involves acting as an agonist at melatonin M1 and M2 receptors, while also acting as an antagonist at 5HT2C receptors. The effects of melatonin appear to promote sleep, while the 5HT2C antagonism leads to the release of dopamine and norepinephrine in the frontal cortex. Interestingly, serotonin levels do not appear to be affected by this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 74 - You are asked to evaluate a woman on a general medical ward who...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to evaluate a woman on a general medical ward who has been admitted for a chest infection. The medical team suspects that she may be experiencing depression and has initiated treatment. You notice that her QTc interval measures at 490 msec and are concerned about the medications she is taking. If she were to be prescribed any of the following medications, which one would be the most likely culprit for her prolonged QTc?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 75 - What conditions can be identified through administering a clock drawing test? ...

    Incorrect

    • What conditions can be identified through administering a clock drawing test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constructional dyspraxia

      Explanation:

      The clock drawing test (CDT) is primarily utilized as a tool for screening cognitive impairment and dementia, as well as measuring spatial dysfunctions and neglect. However, it is not effective in detecting abnormal time perception, disorientation, of poor attention. For identifying disorientation to time, place, and person, the mini-mental state examination (MMSE) is a more suitable screening tool. Additionally, while abnormal clock drawing may occur in other cognitive impairments, CDT is not utilized for detecting episodic memory loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cognitive Assessment
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  • Question 76 - If lithium is taken in combination with one of the following medications used...

    Incorrect

    • If lithium is taken in combination with one of the following medications used to treat high blood pressure, which one is most likely to cause lithium toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Captopril

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors, which typically have names ending in -pril such as perindopril and ramipril, as well as ACE II receptor antagonists like losartan and candesartan, have been found to elevate lithium levels.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 77 - What is a correct statement about Kohlberg's theory of moral development? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a correct statement about Kohlberg's theory of moral development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is biased towards western cultures

      Explanation:

      Kohlberg’s study of moral development did not include a sufficient representation of girls, which is a significant limitation of his theory.

      Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development

      Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.

      The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.

      The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.

      It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 78 - A hoarse voice and difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) are symptoms of a lesion in...

    Incorrect

    • A hoarse voice and difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) are symptoms of a lesion in which cranial nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vagus

      Explanation:

      Lesions of the vagus nerve commonly result in the following symptoms: a raspy of weak voice, difficulty swallowing, absence of the gag reflex, deviation of the uvula away from the affected side, and an inability to elevate the palate.

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 79 - What are the differences between CT and MRI? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the differences between CT and MRI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CT is very good for imaging bone structures

      Explanation:

      Neuroimaging techniques can be divided into structural and functional types, although this distinction is becoming less clear as new techniques emerge. Structural techniques include computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which use x-rays and magnetic fields, respectively, to produce images of the brain’s structure. Functional techniques, on the other hand, measure brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow of oxygen consumption. These include functional MRI (fMRI), emission tomography (PET and SPECT), perfusion MRI (pMRI), and magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS). Some techniques, such as diffusion tensor imaging (DTI), combine both structural and functional information to provide a more complete picture of the brain’s anatomy and function. DTI, for example, uses MRI to estimate the paths that water takes as it diffuses through white matter, allowing researchers to visualize white matter tracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 80 - Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for interacting with the motor...

    Incorrect

    • Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for interacting with the motor cortex and planning and programming movements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebrocerebellum

      Explanation:

      The cerebrocerebellum is the largest functional subdivision of the cerebellum, comprising of the lateral hemispheres and the dentate nuclei. It is involved in the planning and timing of movements, and in the cognitive functions of the cerebellum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
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  • Question 81 - What is the enzyme that shows increased levels in Neuroleptic malignant syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the enzyme that shows increased levels in Neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CPK

      Explanation:

      Elevated levels of creatine phosphokinase (CPK) are observed in NMS.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 82 - A teenager with schizophrenia is started on clozapine and experiences a complete response....

    Incorrect

    • A teenager with schizophrenia is started on clozapine and experiences a complete response. However, they gain a considerable amount of weight and are eager to find a solution. Despite attempts to lower the dosage, relapse occurs. What medication has been proven to decrease weight when combined with clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 83 - What statistical test would be appropriate to compare the mean blood pressure measurements...

    Incorrect

    • What statistical test would be appropriate to compare the mean blood pressure measurements of a group of individuals before and after exercise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paired t-test

      Explanation:

      Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 84 - A 45-year-old woman who is on methadone treatment for opioid addiction needs to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman who is on methadone treatment for opioid addiction needs to take antipsychotic medication for a new episode of psychosis. She has had a positive response to haloperidol in the past. What is the most crucial test to monitor potential side effects of this medication combination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      When using methadone and haloperidol together, it is important to closely monitor the QTc interval due to their significant effect on it. EEG and electrolyte screening are not necessary. While liver function tests may be useful to perform periodically, they are not the primary concern with this combination. It is important to be cautious of respiratory depression when using high doses of methadone in combination with other sedative medications, but respiratory function tests are unlikely to provide helpful information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 85 - A 35-year-old woman has just started taking antipsychotic medication for the first time...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has just started taking antipsychotic medication for the first time after being diagnosed with schizophrenia. Her spouse asks you when they can expect to see the most significant improvement in her symptoms.

      Your advice would be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Within week 1

      Explanation:

      The onset of antipsychotic effect is noticeable within the first week of treatment, as reported by a large meta-analysis of almost 7,500 patients. This study found that there was a significant improvement of nearly 22% in the first two weeks of treatment, which contradicts the previous belief that it may take two to four weeks for antipsychotic action to take effect. The reduction in BPRS scores was as follows: 13.8% within the first week, 8.1% in the second week, 4.2% in the third week, and 4.7% in the fourth week.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 86 - How would you describe the delusional world of a woman who seems to...

    Incorrect

    • How would you describe the delusional world of a woman who seems to lack any grasp of reality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autistic

      Explanation:

      Delusional Structure

      Delusions can be categorized based on their logical consistency and organization. Logical delusions are consistent with logical thinking, while paralogical delusions are not. Delusions can also be organized, integrated into a formed concept, of unorganized. Highly organized, logical delusions are referred to as systematized.

      The relationship between delusional beliefs and reality can also be described in different ways. Polarized delusions mix fact and delusion together, while juxtaposed delusions exist side by side with facts but do not interact. Autistic delusions completely disregard actual reality, and the patient lives in a delusional world.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 87 - What statement accurately describes the Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes the Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can be used in both males and females

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management

      Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 88 - Which defense mechanism is the least advanced of developed in terms of maturity?...

    Incorrect

    • Which defense mechanism is the least advanced of developed in terms of maturity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Projection

      Explanation:

      Projection is classified as an underdeveloped defense mechanism, as it is considered immature. Freud proposed the idea that defenses evolve along a spectrum of personality growth. As an illustration, as time passes and the connections between the frontal lobe and the limbic system continue to myelinate, the defense mechanism commonly seen in adolescence, acting out (such as impulsive and momentarily soothing outbursts), may give rise to reaction formation and potentially even altruism in the future.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 89 - Which of the following do not pass through the cavernous sinus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following do not pass through the cavernous sinus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CN 2

      Explanation:

      Oculomotor nerve (N3), trochlear nerve (N4), ophthalmic and mandibular divisions of the trigeminal nerve (N5) pass along its lateral border. The abducent nerve (N6) passes through it along with the internal carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
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  • Question 90 - What is the initial stage in Mahler's model of child development that aligns...

    Incorrect

    • What is the initial stage in Mahler's model of child development that aligns with the first four weeks of a newborn's life?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autistic

      Explanation:

      Mahler’s Separation-Individuation theory of child development proposes that personality development occurs in distinct stages. The first stage, the Autistic phase, occurs during the first few weeks of life, where the child is mostly sleeping and cut off from the world. The second stage, the Symbiotic phase, lasts until around six months of age, where the child sees themselves and their mother as a single unit. The third stage, Separation-Individuation, has four subphases. The first subphase, Differentiation, occurs between six to ten months, where the child begins to see themselves as an individual and experiences separation anxiety. The second subphase, Practicing, occurs between ten to sixteen months, where the child explores connections with the external world and people other than the mother. The third subphase, Rapprochement, occurs between sixteen to twenty-four months, where the child struggles to balance their desire for independence and proximity to the mother, often resulting in tantrums and the use of transitional objects. The fourth subphase, Object constancy, occurs between twenty-four to thirty-six months, where the child accepts the idea of object constancy and is more comfortable with the mother being separate for periods of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 91 - Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for duloxetine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for duloxetine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blocks 5HT2A, 5HT2C and 5HT3 serotonin receptors

      Explanation:

      Duloxetine boosts serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine levels by functioning as a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). On the other hand, Mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and specific serotonergic agent (NaSSA) that acts as an alpha 2 antagonist, increasing serotonin and norepinephrine levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 92 - What is a true statement about clozapine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It affects adrenergic receptors

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 93 - What is the accurate statement about the impact of antidepressants on the heart?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about the impact of antidepressants on the heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The arrhythmogenic potential of antidepressants is dose-related

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects

      SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.

      Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 94 - At what stage of cognitive development, as per Jean Piaget, do children exhibit...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage of cognitive development, as per Jean Piaget, do children exhibit egocentric behavior?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Preoperational stage

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s theory of cognitive development highlights that Preoperational children are egocentric, meaning they view the world solely from their own perspective and cannot comprehend that others may have different viewpoints. Piaget believed that cognitive development is a result of the interplay between innate abilities and environmental factors, and progresses through four distinct stages: the sensorimotor stage, Preoperational stage, concrete operational stage, and formal operational stage. While Piaget’s theory has greatly contributed to our understanding of cognitive development, it has also faced criticism over time. Other notable theories in this field include Vygotsky’s theory, Bruner’s theory, and the information-processing approach. Vygotsky’s theory, for instance, examines human development across three levels: cultural, interpersonal, and individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 95 - The tectum as part of the Midbrain contains which structure important in visual...

    Incorrect

    • The tectum as part of the Midbrain contains which structure important in visual reflexes.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior colliculus

      Explanation:

      The tectum is a part of the midbrain, specifically, the dorsal part of the midbrain. The tectum consists of the superior and inferior colliculi. The superior colliculus is involved in preliminary visual processing and control of eye movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
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  • Question 96 - A caregiver at a residential home asks if it's okay to secretly give...

    Incorrect

    • A caregiver at a residential home asks if it's okay to secretly give medication to an elderly resident with moderate dementia who has been refusing their medication for the past two days. What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should arrange a full team discussion to consider the patient's best interests

      Explanation:

      While there are situations where covert administration of medication may be necessary, it is important to approach this practice with caution due to its controversial nature. In cases where covert medication is deemed necessary to improve a patient’s mental health, it is recommended to convene a ‘best interests meeting’ involving the multidisciplinary team and family. The patient’s capacity should be taken into account, regardless of whether they are detained of not. While the views of the patient’s next of kin should be considered, they should not be the sole determining factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 97 - Can you identify the brain structure that is not found in both cerebral...

    Incorrect

    • Can you identify the brain structure that is not found in both cerebral hemispheres?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pineal gland

      Explanation:

      Neuroanatomical Structures

      The pineal gland is a unique structure in the brain that is not present bilaterally. It is a small endocrine gland responsible for producing melatonin, a hormone derived from serotonin. Along with the pituitary gland and circumventricular organs, the pineal gland is one of the few unpaired structures in the brain.

      In contrast, the caudate nucleus is a paired structure located within the basal ganglia. It is present bilaterally and plays a crucial role in motor control and learning.

      The midbrain contains the Mammillary body, which is also a paired structure involved in long-term memory formation. These structures work together to help us remember and recall past experiences.

      Finally, the supraoptic nucleus is duplicated in each cerebral hemisphere. This structure is involved in regulating water balance and plays a critical role in maintaining homeostasis in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 98 - What is the truth about the genetic factors involved in schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the truth about the genetic factors involved in schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The candidate gene COMT is located on chromosome 22

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is a complex disorder that is associated with multiple candidate genes. No single gene has been identified as the sole cause of schizophrenia, and it is believed that the more genes involved, the greater the risk. Some of the important candidate genes for schizophrenia include DTNBP1, COMT, NRG1, G72, RGS4, DAOA, DISC1, and DRD2. Among these, neuregulin, dysbindin, and DISC1 are the most replicated and plausible genes, with COMT being the strongest candidate gene due to its role in dopamine metabolism. Low activity of the COMT gene has been associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and schizophrenia. Neuregulin 1 is a growth factor that stimulates neuron development and differentiation, and increased neuregulin signaling in schizophrenia may suppress the NMDA receptor, leading to lowered glutamate levels. Dysbindin is involved in the biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles, and its expression is decreased in schizophrenia. DISC1 encodes a multifunctional protein that influences neuronal development and adult brain function, and it is disrupted in schizophrenia. It is located at the breakpoint of a balanced translocation identified in a large Scottish family with schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, and other major mental illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 99 - What is the main way in which galantamine works? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main way in which galantamine works?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Competitive and reversible inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 100 - How can the ICD-11 diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern be identified?...

    Incorrect

    • How can the ICD-11 diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern be identified?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transient, psychotic-like features

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that the question is asking for the option that is the most suggestive of a diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern in the ICD-11. The correct answer is ‘transient, psychotic-like features’ as this is a qualifying element of the diagnosis. While the other options may also be present in individuals with this condition, they are not defining features.

      Personality Disorder (Borderline)

      History and Terminology

      The term borderline personality disorder originated from early 20th-century theories that the disorder was on the border between neurosis and psychosis. The term borderline was coined by Adolph Stern in 1938. Subsequent attempts to define the condition include Otto Kernberg’s borderline personality organization, which identified key elements such as ego weakness, primitive defense mechanisms, identity diffusion, and unstable reality testing.

      Features

      The DSM-5 and ICD-11 both define borderline personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity. Symptoms include efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, suicidal behavior, affective instability, chronic feelings of emptiness, difficulty controlling temper, and transient dissociative symptoms.

      Abuse

      Childhood abuse and neglect are extremely common among borderline patients, with up to 87% having suffered some form of trauma. The effect of abuse seems to depend on the stage of psychological development at which it takes place.

      comorbidity

      Borderline PD patients are more likely to receive a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, panic disorder, PTSD, OCD, eating disorders, and somatoform disorders.

      Psychological Therapy

      Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT), Mentalization-Based Treatment (MBT), Schema-Focused Therapy (SFT), and Transference-Focused Psychotherapy (TFP) are the main psychological treatments for BPD. DBT is the most well-known and widely available, while MBT focuses on improving mentalization, SFT generates structural changes to a patient’s personality, and TFP examines dysfunctional interpersonal dynamics that emerge in interactions with the therapist in the transference.

      NICE Guidelines

      The NICE guidelines on BPD offer very little recommendations. They do not recommend medication for treatment of the core symptoms. Regarding psychological therapies, they make reference to DBT and MBT being effective but add that the evidence base is too small to draw firm conclusions. They do specifically say Do not use brief psychotherapeutic interventions (of less than 3 months’ duration) specifically for borderline personality disorder of for the individual symptoms of the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurosciences (11/16) 69%
Psychopharmacology (3/5) 60%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (3/4) 75%
History Of Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Substance Misuse/Addictions (1/1) 100%
Diagnosis (2/2) 100%
Psychological Development (1/2) 50%
Neuro-anatomy (2/3) 67%
Classification And Assessment (4/4) 100%
Genetics (3/5) 60%
Descriptive Psychopathology (1/1) 100%
Social Psychology (0/1) 0%
Prevention Of Psychological Disorder (1/1) 100%
General Adult Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Passmed