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  • Question 1 - A 36 year old man who is overweight with a history of gout,...

    Correct

    • A 36 year old man who is overweight with a history of gout, presents to emergency room with an acutely painful big toe which is red, hot and swollen. However, he is apyrexic and otherwise systemically well. He has been diagnosed with acute gout. The most appropriate first line treatment for him is which of the following?

      Your Answer: NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      The first line treatment for acute gout includes NSAIDs like diclofenac, indomethacin or naproxen. In patients in whom NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated or ineffective, colchicine is an alternative. In those who cannot tolerate or who are resistant to NSAIDs and colchicine, oral or parenteral corticosteroids are an effective alternative. In acute monoarticular gout, intra-articular injection of a corticosteroid can be used occasionally. In acute gout. allopurinol is not used in the actual treatment, but its use should be continued during an acute attack if the patient is already established on long term therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      • Pharmacology
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You review an 83-year-old woman who has stage 5 chronic kidney disease. She...

    Incorrect

    • You review an 83-year-old woman who has stage 5 chronic kidney disease. She has a number of electrolyte problems.
      Which ONE of the following decreases the renal reabsorption of phosphate?

      Your Answer: 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a polypeptide containing 84 amino acids. It is the principal controller of free calcium in the body.
      The main actions of parathyroid hormone are:
      Increases plasma calcium concentration
      Decreases plasma phosphate concentration
      Increases osteoclastic activity (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
      Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
      Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
      Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (via stimulation of 1-alpha hydroxylase)
      Increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (indirectly via increased 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man comes for a visit at the clinic with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes for a visit at the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. On inquiring about drug history, you find out that he has been taking around 8-10 paracetamol to help relieve the pain.

      Out of the following, which one is believed to be the main mechanism of action for paracetamol?

      Your Answer: Selective inhibition of COX-1 receptors

      Correct Answer: Selective inhibition of COX-3 receptors

      Explanation:

      The FDA categorizes Paracetamol as an NSAID (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug) as it is believed to selectively inhibit cyclo-oxygenase 3 (COX-3) receptors in the brain and spinal cord.

      COX-3 is a unique variant of the more known COX-1 and COX-2. It is responsible for the production of prostaglandins in central areas, which sensitizes free nerve endings to the chemical mediators of pain. Therefore, by selectively inhibiting COX-3, paracetamol effectively reduces pain sensation by increasing the pain threshold.
      Acetaminophen does not inhibit cyclooxygenase in peripheral tissues and, therefore, has no peripheral anti-inflammatory effects.
      The antipyretic actions of acetaminophen are likely attributed to direct action on heat-regulating centres in the brain, resulting in peripheral vasodilation, sweating, and loss of body heat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 41-year-old female patient presents with jaundice. She tells you that she is...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old female patient presents with jaundice. She tells you that she is known to have a chronic hepatitis B infection.
      Which of the following hepatitis B serology results is consistent with a patient that is chronically infected? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: HBsAg positive, anti-HBc positive, IgM anti-HBc negative

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus, that is the first serologic marker to appear in a new acute infection.It can be detected as early as 1 week and as late as 9 weeks. It can be detected in high levels in serum during acute or chronic hepatitis B virus infection. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is infectious. The body normally produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the normal immune response to infection. HBsAg is the antigen used to make hepatitis B vaccine.
      Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates recovery and immunity from the hepatitis B virus infection. Anti-HBs also develops in a person who has been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.
      Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc): Appears at the onset of symptoms in acute hepatitis B and persists for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates previous or ongoing infection with hepatitis B virus in an undefined time frame. It is not present following hepatitis B vaccination.
      IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates recent infection with hepatitis B virus (<6 months). Its presence indicates acute infection.
      The following table summarises the presence of hepatitis B markers according to each situation:
      Susceptible to infection:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Negative
      Anti-HBs = Negative

      Immune due to natural infection:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Positive

      Immune due to vaccination:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Negative
      Anti-HBs = Positive

      Acute infection:
      HBsAg = Positive
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Negative
      IgM anti-HBc = Positive

      Chronic infection:
      HBsAg = Positive
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Negative
      IgM anti-HBc = Negative

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent...

    Incorrect

    • A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent home with medications. However, after 48 hours of discharge, she returned to the hospital because there had been no relief from her symptoms. She is pregnant in her second trimester.

      The urine sensitivity test report is still unavailable. Fresh blood tests were sent, and her estimated GFR is calculated to be >60 ml/minute.

      She was prescribed nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release orally twice a day for two days.

      Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines for pregnant women with lower UTIs are:
      1. Prescribe an antibiotic immediately, taking into account the previous urine culture and susceptibility results or avoiding past antibiotics that may have caused resistance
      2. Obtain a midstream urine sample before starting antibiotics and send for urine culture and susceptibility
      – Review the choice of antibiotic when the results are available
      – change the antibiotic according to susceptibility results if the bacteria are resistant, using a narrow-spectrum antibiotic wherever possible

      The first choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is:
      1. Nitrofurantoin
      100 mg modified-release PO BD for 3 days – if eGFR >45 ml/minute

      The second-choice (no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable) are:
      1. Amoxicillin
      500 mg PO TDS for seven days (ONLY if culture results available and susceptible)
      2. Cefalexin
      500 mg BD for seven days
      Alternative second-choices – consult local microbiologist, choose antibiotics based on culture and sensitivity results

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      64.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old asthmatic patient is seen in the Emergency Department following an acute...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old asthmatic patient is seen in the Emergency Department following an acute exacerbation. His symptoms start to improve when your consultant gives him a high dose of IV aminophylline.

      Which of the following is correct mechanism of action of aminophylline ?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase

      Explanation:

      Aminophylline has the following properties:
      Phosphodiesterase inhibitor that increases intracellular cAMP and relaxes smooth muscle in the bronchial airways and pulmonary blood vessels.
      Mast cell stabilization is achieved by using a non-selective adenosine receptor antagonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Lidocaine's antiarrhythmic mode of action is as follows: ...

    Incorrect

    • Lidocaine's antiarrhythmic mode of action is as follows:

      Your Answer: Stimulates vagal activity

      Correct Answer: Blocks inactivated Na+ channels

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is a class 1B antidysrhythmic; combines with fast Na channels and thereby inhibits recovery after repolarization, resulting in decreasing myocardial excitability and conduction velocity. However, in ischaemic areas, where anoxia causes depolarisation and arrhythmogenic activity, many Na+ channels are inactivated and therefore susceptible to lidocaine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old woman presents to your clinic with worsening oedema. She has ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents to your clinic with worsening oedema. She has ischaemic heart disease and heart failure. You decide to add a loop diuretic to her current drug regime to control the oedema. Which of the following is a contraindication to using a loop diuretic?

      Your Answer: Hypotension

      Correct Answer: Anuria

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics are drugs used to manage and treat fluid overload associated with CHF, liver cirrhosis, and renal disease. The drugs commonly used are:

      • Furosemide
      • Bumetanide
      • Torsemide
      • Ethacrynic Acid

      Loop diuretics inhibit the Na-K-Cl pump in the ascending loop of Henle, resulting in salt-water excretion. This relieves congestion and reduces oedema.

      The contra-indications to the use of loop diuretics are:
      1. Anuria
      2. Comatose and precomatose states associated with liver cirrhosis
      3. Renal failure due to nephrotoxic or hepatotoxic drugs
      4. Severe hypokalaemia
      5. Severe hyponatremia
      6. History of hypersensitivity to furosemide, bumetanide, or torsemide (or sulphonamides)

      The following conditions or states are not contraindications, but loop diuretics needs to be used cautiously in these conditions:
      1. Diabetes (but hyperglycaemia less likely than with thiazides)
      2. Gout
      3. Hypotension (correct before initiation of treatment)
      4. Hypovolaemia (Correct before initiation of treatment)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      64.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Factors that affect intracellular [Ca 2+ ] and hence cardiac contractility are called chronotropes.

      Correct Answer: In relaxation, Ca 2+ is transported out of the cell using energy from a Na + gradient.

      Explanation:

      During the AP plateau, Ca2+enters the cell and activates Ca2+sensitive Ca2+release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum allowing stored Ca2+to flood into the cytosol; this is called Ca2+-induced Ca2+release. In relaxation, about 80% of Ca2+is rapidly pumped back into the SR (sequestered) by Ca2+ATPase pumps. The Ca2+that entered the cell during the AP is transported out of the cell primarily by the Na+/Ca2+exchanger in the membrane which pumps one Ca2+ion out in exchange for three Na+ions in, using the Na+electrochemical gradient as an energy source. Increased heart rate increases the force of contraction in a stepwise fashion as intracellular [Ca2+] increases cumulatively over several beats; this is the Treppe effect. Factors that affect intracellular [Ca2+] and hence cardiac contractility are called inotropes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      63.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During her pregnancy, a 28-year-old lady was given an antibiotic. The neonate was...

    Correct

    • During her pregnancy, a 28-year-old lady was given an antibiotic. The neonate was prematurely born with cyanosis and ashen grey coloured skin as a result of this. Other symptoms were hypotonia, low blood pressure, and poor feeding.

      From the  following antibiotics, which one is most likely to cause this side effect?

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Explanation:

      Grey baby syndrome is a rare but causes significant adverse effect caused by the build-up of chloramphenicol in neonates (particularly preterm babies).

      The following are the main characteristics of ‘grey baby syndrome’:

      Skin that is ashy grey in colour.
      Feeding problems
      Vomiting
      Cyanosis
      Hypotension
      Hypothermia
      Hypotonia
      Collapse of the cardiovascular system
      Distension of the abdomen
      trouble breathing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      29.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (3/7) 43%
Endocrine Physiology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/2) 0%
CNS Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/1) 100%
Infections (1/2) 50%
Respiratory Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
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