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Question 1
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents for transsphenoidal surgery following a diagnosis of pituitary macroadenoma.
Which of the following is the most common visual field defect caused by such lesions?Your Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia
Explanation:Pituitary tumours that compress the optic chiasma primarily affect the neurones that decussate at this location. Bitemporal hemianopia is caused by neurones that emerge from the nasal half of the retina and transmit the temporal half of the visual field.
The axons of ganglion cells in the retina form the optic nerve.
It exits the orbit through the optic foramen and projects to the thalamic lateral geniculate body. The optic chiasma forms above the sella turcica as the nasal fibres decussate along the way. The optic radiation travels from the lateral geniculate body to the occipital cortex.
Lesions at various points along this pathway cause the following visual field defects:
Scotoma implies partial retinal or optic nerve damage.
Monocular vision loss occurs when the optic nerve is completely damaged.
Pathology at the optic chiasma causes bitemporal hemianopia.
Cortical blindness with occipital cortex pathology and homonymous hemianopia with lesions compromising the optic radiation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors?
Your Answer: In the spinal cord, kappa receptors are predominantly localised in lamina IX
Correct Answer: Binding with an opioid agonist increases potassium conductance
Explanation:Opioid receptors are a large family of seven transmembrane domain receptors. They are of four types:
1) Delta opioid receptor
2) Mu opioid receptor
3) Kappa opioid receptor
4) Orphan receptor-like 1
They contain about 372-400 amino acids and thus their molecular weight is different.
Opioid receptor activation reduces the intracellular cAMP formation and opens K+ channels (mainly through µ and δ receptors) or suppresses voltage-gated N-type Ca2+ channels (mainly κ receptor). These actions result in neuronal hyperpolarization and reduced availability of intracellular Ca2+ which results in decreased neurotransmitter release by cerebral, spinal, and myenteric neurons (e.g. glutamate from primary nociceptive afferents).
However, other mechanisms and second messengers may also be involved, particularly in the long-term
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man, presents to the hospital with bilateral inguinal hernias.
After examination and investigation, the surgical team decides to perform a laparoscopic hernia repair using the extraperitoneal approach. After making an infraumbilical incision, the surgeons perform the repair by placing a prosthetic mesh over the affected area, after shifting the inferior aspect of the rectus abdominis muscle anteriorly.
Name the structure that would like posterior to the mesh?Your Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Correct Answer: Peritoneum
Explanation:This question is asking which structure would lie posterior to the rectus abdominis muscle and not the prosthetic mesh, as only peritoneum lies posterior to mesh during a total extraperitoneal (TEP) hernia repair.
The region of the repair lies below the arcuate line, meaning that the transversalis fascia and peritoneum lie posterior to the rectus abdominis.
The bucks fascia lies within the penis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which measure of central tendency is most useful for a continuous, non-skewed data?
Your Answer: Median
Correct Answer: Mean
Explanation:Mean, also known as the average, is the most common measure of central tendency. It is the sum of all observed values divided by the number of observation. It is not useful for skewed data, which has an abnormal distribution. It is useful, instead, for numerical data that have symmetric distribution. It reflects the contributions of each data in the group, and are sensitive to outliers.
The median is the value that falls in the middle position when the observations are ranked in order from the smallest to the largest. If the number of observations is odd, the median is the middle number. If it is even, the median is the average of the two middle numbers. Unlike the mean, the median is useful on skewed data, and can be used for ordinal or numerical data if skewed.
The mode is the value that occurs with the greatest frequency in a set of observations, and is utilized for bimodal distribution.
The variance and the standard deviation are not measures of central tendency, but of dispersion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 5
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are true about blood clotting except:
Your Answer: Platelet adhesion to disrupted endothelium is dependent upon von Willebrand factor
Correct Answer: Administration of aprotinin during liver transplantation surgery prolongs survival
Explanation:Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
Minor role in clotting
Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
Factor 12 activates Factor 11
Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 102. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
In tissue damage:
Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 103. Common pathway
Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.4. Fibrinolysis
Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 6
Correct
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A patient's ECG is abnormal, with an abnormal broad complex QRS complexes. This means either a ventricular origin problem or aberrant conduction. The normal resting membrane potential of the heart's ventricular contractile fibres is which of the following?
Your Answer: -90mV
Explanation:The cardiac muscle’s contractile fibres have a much more stable resting potential than its conductive fibres. In the ventricular fibres it is -90mV and in the atrial fibres it is -80mV.
The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms. (QRS complex)Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter (SpO2) readings?
Your Answer: Heavy smoker
Explanation:A pulse oximeter is a piece of medical equipment used as a non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of blood.
It works by measuring the ratio of absorption of red and infrared light in a section of blood flow, as red light is largely absorbed by deoxygenated blood, and infrared light is largely absorbed by oxygenated blood.
Pulse oximetry relies on photoplethysmography (PPG) waveforms. The oximeter has 2 sides, with different functions. One side houses light-emitting diodes which are responsible for transmitting 2 light wavelengths, 660nm for red light and 940nm for near infrared light. The other side is a photodetector. The light emitted travels through the body and the amount that is not absorbed is measured by the photodetector.
Smokers often have increased levels of carboxy haemoglobin (COHb). This leads to artificial increases in pulse oximeter readings as it is unable to differentiate between COHb and oxyhaemoglobin (O2HB) as they both absorb red light at 660nm. Every 1% increase of circulating carboxyhaemoglobin, results in a correlative 1% increase in oximeter readings.
Prilocaine toxicity will cause an artificial decrease in oximeter readings. This is because prilocaine metabolites cause methemoglobinemia (MetHB), which are dysfunctional haemoglobins unable to properly transport oxygen. In this case, a laboratory multiwavelength co-oximeter is recommended for a more accurate reading.
Anaemia will not affect oximeter readings as long as haemoglobins in the blood are normal.
Sickle cell disease does not affect oximeter readings despite its ability to cause hypoxia and shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right.
Brown-red fingernail polish will cause an underestimation of pulse oximeter readings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 8
Correct
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The plateau phase of the myocardial action potential is as a result of:
Your Answer: Slow influx of calcium
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 9
Correct
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A caudal epidural block is planned for a 6-year-old child scheduled for an inguinoscrotal hernia repair under general anaesthesia. The weight of the child is 20kg.
The most important safety aspect the anaesthetist must keep in mind while performing the block is?Your Answer: Limiting the bupivacaine dose to no more than 40 mg
Explanation:Choosing an appropriate dose of local anaesthetic to reduce the chance of toxicity is the most important safety aspect in performing a caudal block.
The caudal will have to be inserted following induction of anaesthesia as performing it in an awake child is not a viable option.
The patient is placed in the lateral position and the sacral hiatus is identified. Under strict asepsis, a needle ( usually a 21-23FG needle) is advanced at an angle of approximately 55-65° to the coronal plane at the apex of the sacrococcygeal membrane. When there is loss of resistance, thats the endpoint. The needle must first be aspirated before anaesthetic agent is injected because there is a risk (1 in 2000) of perforating the dura or vascular puncture.
Alternatively, a 22-gauge plastic cannula can be used. Following perforation of the sacrococcygeal membrane, the stilette is removed and only the blunter plastic cannula is advanced. This reduces the risk of intravascular perforation.
Eliciting an appropriate end motor response at an appropriate current strength when the caudal and epidural spaces are stimulated helps in improving the efficacy and safety of neural blockade. A 22G insulated needle is advanced in the caudal canal until a pop is felt. If the needle is placed correctly, an anal sphincter contractions (S2 to S4) is seen when an electrical stimulation of 1-10 mA is applied.
The application of ultrasound guidance in identification of the caudal epidural space has been shown to prevent inadvertent dural puncture and to increase the safety and efficacy of the block in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Monitoring of which of the following is indicated in the prevention of propofol infusion syndrome?
Your Answer: Blood glucose
Correct Answer: Lactate
Explanation:Propofol infusion syndrome (PRIS) is characterized by lactic acidosis, bradyarrhythmia, rhabdomyolysis, cardiac and renal failure, and often leads to death. So, lactate monitoring is advised in patients with propofol infusion syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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