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Question 1
Incorrect
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Following an acute appendicectomy, a 6-year-old child is admitted to the recovery unit.
Your consultant has requested that you prescribe maintenance fluids for the next 12 hours. The child is 21 kg in weight.
What is the most suitable fluid volume to be prescribed?Your Answer: 61 ml
Correct Answer: 732 ml
Explanation:After a paediatric case, you’ll frequently have to calculate and prescribe maintenance fluids. The ‘4-2-1 rule’ should be used as a guideline:
1st 10 kg – 4 ml/kg/hr
2nd 10 kg – 2 ml/kg/hr
Subsequent kg – 1 ml/kg/hrHence
1st 10 kg = 4 × 10 = 40 ml
2nd 10 kg = 2 × 10 = 20 ml
Subsequent kg = 1 × 1 = 1 ml
Total = 61 ml/hr61 × 12 = 732 ml over 12 hrs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A trail has analysed that a new screening test may increase the survival time of ovarian cancer patients. But analyst say that the apparent increase in the patients survival time is just because of earlier detection instead of actual improvement.
What kind of bias is in this experiment?Your Answer: Selection bias
Correct Answer: Lead time bias
Explanation:Observation bias occurs when the behaviour of an individual changes that results from their awareness of being observed.
Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status.
Attrition bias is a systematic error caused by unequal loss of participants from a randomized controlled trial (RCT). In clinical trials, participants might dropout due to unsatisfactory treatment or efficacy, intolerable adverse events, or even death.
Selection bias introduced when the individuals are not chosen randomly to take a part in the study. It usually occurs when the research decides who is going to be studied, they are not the representative of the population.
Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected by a screening test at an earlier time point rather than it would have been diagnosed by its clinical appearance. In this bias, earlier detection improves the survival time in the intervention group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old patient is brought to ER with a chief complaint of chest pain for two hours. Chest pain was tightness in nature, located in the centre of the chest and radiate into the neck and left arm. The patient otherwise looks fit and well.
Just after admitting the patient, he suffered VF cardiac arrest and is immediately defibrillated with the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC).
On clinical examination following was the finding:
BP: 82/45 mmHg
Heart rate: 120 beats/min
Oxygen saturation on air: 25%
Heart sounds: Normal
There is no sign of pulmonary oedema. The patient is anxious, cold, and clammy.
A 12 lead ECG was done which revealed a sinus rhythm of 120 with ST-segment depression and T wave inversion in leads II, III, and aVF. Which of the following is considered best for the initial treatment of the patient?Your Answer: Inhaled high flow oxygen
Correct Answer: Oral aspirin
Explanation:This is a classical case of unstable angina or NSTEMI (Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction). As soon as the diagnosis of unstable angina or NSTEMI is made the initial treatment is Aspirin and antithrombin therapy.
Betablocker is known to reduce mortality from acute myocardial infarction by reducing oxygen demand. If there is no contraindication (heart block, bradycardia, hypotension, severe left ventricular dysfunction, and asthma), a beta-blocker should be given early. This patient has hypotension and therefore metoprolol is contraindicated.
If three doses of nitroglycerine tablets or Nitrolingual sprays and intravenous beta-blockers too cannot relieve the symptoms intravenous Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN) should be considered provided that there is no hypotension. But in this case, the patient is hypotensive, and therefore, it is contraindicated.
If the symptoms are not relieved after three serial doses of nitroglycerine or if symptoms recur despite adequate anti-anginal treatment morphine sulphate is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Regarding gas laws, which one best explains the ability of a Bourdon gauge to measure temperature?
Your Answer: Gay-Lussac's law
Correct Answer: Charles's law
Explanation:Charles’ Law states that there is a direct correlation between temperature and volume, where pressure and amount gas are constant. As temperature increases, volume also increases.
Boyle’s Law states that Pressure is inversely proportional to volume, assuming that temperature and amount of gas are constant. As volume increases, pressure decreases. In Dalton’s law of partial pressure, the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of the gases in mixture.
According to Henry’s Law for concentration of dissolved gases, at a constant temperature, the amount of a given gas that dissolves in a given type and volume of liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas in equilibrium with that liquid. An equivalent way of stating the law is that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid.
Gay-Lussac’s Law states that the pressure of a given mass of gas varies directly with the absolute temperature of the gas, when the volume is kept constant. This law is very similar to Charles’ Law, with the only difference being the type of container. Whereas the container in a Charles’ Law experiment is flexible, it is rigid in a Gay-Lussac’s Law experiment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: Decreases gastric transit time
Correct Answer: It can increase or decrease cAMP levels
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.
It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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Calculation of the left ventricular ejection fraction is determined by which of the following equations?
Your Answer: Stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 7
Correct
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A 61-year-old woman with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the ER with type II respiratory failure. There is a suspicion of myasthenic crisis.
She is in a semiconscious state. Her blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, pulse is 110 beats per minute, temperature is 37°C, and oxygen saturation is 84 percent.
With a PaCO2 of 75 mmHg (10 kPa) breathing air, blood gas analysis confirms she is hypoventilating.
Which of the following values is the most accurate representation of her alveolar oxygen tension (PAO2)?Your Answer: 7.3
Explanation:The following is the alveolar gas equation:
PAO2 = PiO2 − PaCO2/R
Where:
PAO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.
PiO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen inhaled.
PaCO2 stands for partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arteries.
The amount of carbon dioxide produced (200 mL/minute) divided by the amount of oxygen consumed (250 mL/minute) equals R = respiratory quotient. With a normal diet, the value is 0.8.By subtracting the partial pressure exerted by water vapour at body temperature, the PiO2 can be calculated:
PiO2 = 0.21 × (100 kPa − 6.3 kPa)
PiO2 = 19.8Substituting:
PAO2 = 19.8 − 10/0.8
PAO2 = 19.8 − 12.5
PAO2 = 7.3k Pa -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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The solutions that contains the most sodium is?
Your Answer: 3500 mL 0.9% N saline
Explanation:Sodium concentration for different fluids
3% N saline 513 mmol/L
5% N saline 856 mmol/L
0.9% N saline 154 mmol/L
Hartmann’s solution 131 mmol/L
0.45% N saline with 5% glucose 77 mmol/LThis means that:
500 mL 5% N saline contains 428 mmol of sodium
1000 mL 3% N saline contains 513 mmol of sodium
3500 mL 0.9% N saline contains 539 mmol of sodium
4000 mL Hartmann’s contains 524 mmol of sodium
6000 mL 0.45% N saline with 5% glucose contains 462 mmol of sodium. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to the cardiology clinic. He has a transthoracic echo performed to help in assessing the function of his heart.
How can this echo aid in calculating cardiac output?Your Answer: (end diastolic LV volume - end systolic LV volume) / heart rate
Correct Answer: (end diastolic LV volume - end systolic LV volume) x heart rate
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 10
Correct
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During positive pressure ventilation using positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP), there is usually an associated reduction in cardiac output
Which of the following is responsible?
Your Answer: Reduced venous return to the heart
Explanation:The option that is most responsible is the progressive decrease in venous return of blood to the right atrium. The heart rate does not usually change with PEEP so the fall in cardiac output is due to a reduction in left ventricular (LV) stroke volume (SV).
Note that the interventricular septum does shift toward the left and there is an increased pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) from overdistention of alveolar air sacs that contribute to the reduction in cardiac output. Any increase in PVR will be associated with reduced pulmonary vascular capacitance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man will be operated on for an arterial bypass procedure to treat claudication and foot ulceration. The anterior tibial artery will be the target for distal arterial anastomosis.
Which structure is NOT closely related to the anterior tibial artery?Your Answer: Deep peroneal nerve
Correct Answer: Tibialis posterior
Explanation:The anterior tibial artery originates from the distal border of the popliteus. In the posterior compartment, it passes between the heads of the tibialis posterior and the oval aperture of the interosseous membrane to reach the anterior compartment.
On entry into the anterior compartment, it runs medially along the deep peroneal nerve.
The upper third of the artery courses between the tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus muscles, while the middle third runs between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus muscles.At the ankle, the anterior tibial artery is located approximately midway between the malleoli. It continues on the dorsum of the foot, lateral to extensor hallucis longus, as the dorsalis pedis artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Incorrect
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After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg. The standard deviation was found to be 3 kg. What is the percentage of patients that lie between 9 and 27 kg?
Note: Assume that the curve is normally distributed.Your Answer: 68.30%
Correct Answer: 99.70%
Explanation:9 & 27 can be obtained by subtracting and adding 9 from the mean. 9 is three times the standard deviation and we know that 99.7% values lie within 3 standard deviations from the mean. We can find the interval for 99.7% to verify in the following way:
For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:
1. Multiply the standard error by 3.
2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.
3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.
4. The range turns out to be 9-27 kg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Drug toxicity when using bupivacaine is most likely to occur when this local anaesthetic technique is performed.
Your Answer: Brachial plexus block
Correct Answer: Intercostal nerve block
Explanation:An intercostal nerve block is used for therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Intercostal nerve blocks manage acute and chronic pain in the chest area. Common indications are chest wall surgery and shingles or postherpetic neuralgia.
An intercostal nerve block is also an effective option for the management of pain associated with chest trauma and rib fractures. These blocks have been shown to improve oxygenation and respiratory mechanics, and offer pain relief that is comparable to that of epidural analgesia.
This technique, however, is limited by the relatively large doses of local anaesthetic required, and relatively high intravascular uptake from the intercostal space, increasing risk of local anaesthetic toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is not true regarding Adrenaline?
Your Answer: Acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels, causing vasodilation
Correct Answer: Exerts its effect by decreasing intracellular calcium
Explanation:Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.
They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (?1, ?2,?1, ?2, ?3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).
May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low?
Your Answer: It has a clearance that is insensitive to changes in liver blood flow
Explanation:The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a low hepatic extraction ratio:
Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on drug clearance.
When given orally, drug clearance is extremely sensitive to changes in protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion, and there is no first-pass metabolism.Warfarin and phenytoin are two drugs with low hepatic extraction ratios.
The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a high hepatic extraction ratio:
When taken orally, undergo extensive first-pass metabolism; drug clearance is dependent on liver blood flow, and drug clearance is less sensitive to changes in protein binding and intrinsic metabolism.
Morphine, lidocaine, propranolol, and etomidate are examples of drugs with high hepatic extraction ratios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Krebs' cycle (also known as the tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle)?
Your Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule
Explanation:Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions in which acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA) is metabolised and this results in carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms production.
This series of reactions occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells, not the cytoplasm. The cycle requires oxygen and so, cannot function under anaerobic conditions.
It is the common pathway for carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids oxidation and is required for high energy phosphate bond formation in adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
When pyruvate enters the mitochondria, it is converted into acetyl-CoA. This represents the formation of a 2 carbon molecule from a 3 carbon molecule. There is loss of one CO2 but formation of one NADH molecule. Acetyl-CoA is condensed with oxaloacetate, the anion of a 4 carbon acid, to form citrate which is a 6 carbon molecule.
Citrate is then converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.
The only 5 carbon molecule in the cycle is alpha-ketoglutarate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: At higher rates of infusion, ? effects predominate leading to increased systemic vascular resistance and venous return
Correct Answer: Urine output decreases due to inhibition of proximal tubule Na+ reabsorption
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of Dopamine dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline
Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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Regarding management of chronic pain, which of the following describes the mode of action of gabapentin?
Your Answer: Modulation of voltage dependent calcium channels and NMDA receptor transmission
Explanation:Gabapentin is an amino acid-like molecules that was originally synthesized as an analogue of GABA but is now known not to act through GABA mechanisms. It is used in the treatment of focal seizures and various nonepilepsy indications, such as neuropathic pain, restless legs syndrome, and anxiety disorders.
Despite its close structural resemblance to GABA, gabapentin does not act through effects on GABA receptors or any other mechanism related to GABA-mediated neurotransmission. Rather gabapentin binds avidly to ?2?, a protein that serves as an auxiliary subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels. Moreover, it binds to NMDA receptor to modulate its transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 5-year old male has ingested a peanut and has developed urticaria, vomiting and hypotension. The pathogenesis of this condition is derived from predominant cells of which cell line?
Your Answer: Megakaryocyte
Correct Answer: Common myeloid progenitor
Explanation:A is correct. Common myeloid progenitor cells are involved in the anaphylaxis reaction.
B is incorrect. The common lymphoid lineage gives rise to T-cells, B-cell and NK cells.
C is incorrect as megakaryocytes give rise to platelets.
D is incorrect – Neural crest cells give rise to various cells throughout the body, including melanocytes, enterochromaffin cells and Schwann cells. However, they do not give rise to mast cells.
E is incorrect. Reticulocytes give rise to erythrocytes.This is a classic case of anaphylaxis. In this situation, IgE previously raised against antigens (in this case peanut antigen) bind to mast cells, and this causes them to degranulate.
There is release of vasoactive substances like histamine into the blood, and this is responsible for the symptoms seen. Therefore, the main type of cells involved in the pathogenesis of the disease is mast cells. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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The most abundant intracellular ion is?
Your Answer: Sodium
Correct Answer: Phosphate
Explanation:Phosphate is the principal anion of the intracellular fluid, most of which is bound to either lipids or proteins. They dissociate or associate with different compounds, depending on the enzymatic reaction, thus forming a constantly shifting pool.
Calcium and magnesium are also present intracellularly, however in lesser amounts than phosphate.
Sodium is the most abundant extracellular cation, and Chloride and is the most abundant extracellular anion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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