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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is NOT a function of the commensal intestinal bacterial...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a function of the commensal intestinal bacterial flora:

      Your Answer: Convert conjugated bilirubin to urobilinogen and stercobilinogen

      Correct Answer: Breakdown of haem into bilirubin

      Explanation:

      Commensal intestinal bacterial flora have a role in:Keeping pathogenic bacteria at bay by competing for space and nutrientConverting conjugated bilirubin to urobilinogen (some of which is reabsorbed and excreted in urine) and stercobilinogen which is excreted in the faecesThe synthesis of vitamins K, B12, thiamine and riboflavinThe breakdown of primary bile acids to secondary bile acidsThe breakdown of cholesterol, some food additives and drugs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is true about the extensor carpi radialis longus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the extensor carpi radialis longus?

      Your Answer: It receives its blood supply from the ulnar artery

      Correct Answer: It assists with abduction of the hand at the wrist

      Explanation:

      The majority of extensor carpi radialis longus originates from the lateral supracondylar ridge of humerus (distal third) and anterior aspect of the lateral intermuscular septum of the arm. A small portion of its fibres originate from the common extensor tendon attached to the lateral epicondyle of humerus. The fibres unite into a muscle belly which extends approximately to the middle of the forearm. The muscle belly is then replaced by a flat tendon that travels distally along the lateral surface of the radius, together with the tendon of extensor carpi radialis brevis. Both tendons course towards the radial styloid process, deep to the tendons of abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis muscles. Proximal to the wrist, the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis pass behind the radial styloid process within a common synovial sheath and continue along the radial groove deep to the extensor retinaculum of the wrist. At this level, the tendon of extensor carpi radialis longus is crossed by the tendon of extensor pollicis longus, after which it inserts on the posterior aspect of the base of the second metacarpal bone. Some tendon slips can insert into the first and third metacarpal bones.

      Extensor carpi radialis longus receives innervation from the radial nerve, with contributions mainly from spinal nerves C5-C8. The radial nerve is a branch of the brachial plexus.

      Extensor carpi radialis longus receives blood supply mainly from the radial artery. It directly supplies the distal part of the muscle, while the rest of the muscle receives blood from one of its radial recurrent branches. The brachial artery also supplies a small portion of the muscle via the radial collateral artery.

      Extensor carpi radialis longus primarily acts on the wrist joint to produce two major actions: (1) wrist extension by working synergistically with extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi ulnaris, and (2) hand abduction (radial deviation), with the help of flexor carpi radialis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - All of the following statements are correct with regards to protection of the...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements are correct with regards to protection of the gastric mucosa except which of the following?

      Your Answer: NSAIDs directly stimulate increased parietal cell acid production.

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandin production, which usually inhibits acid secretion and increases mucus and bicarbonate secretion, is inhibited by NSAIDs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      57.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old man suffers from an open femoral shaft fracture after being involved...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man suffers from an open femoral shaft fracture after being involved in a road traffic accident. As a consequence of his injury, the nerve that was damaged innervates the popliteus muscle.

      In which of the following nerves is the popliteus muscle innervated by?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The popliteus muscle is innervated by the tibial nerve (L4, 5 and S1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A young boy is carried by his friends to the Emergency Department in...

    Incorrect

    • A young boy is carried by his friends to the Emergency Department in an unconscious state. He is quickly moved into the resuscitation room.

      He was at a party with friends and has injected heroin. On examination, his GCS is 6/15, and he has bilateral pinpoint pupils and a very low respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute.

      Which of the following is the first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Naloxone 2 mg IV

      Correct Answer: Naloxone 0.8 mg IV

      Explanation:

      Heroin is injected into the veins and is the most commonly abused drug. Acute intoxication with opioid overuse is the most common cause of death by drug overdose.

      The clinical features of opioid overdose are:
      1. Decreased respiratory rate
      2. Reduced conscious level or coma
      3. Decreased bowel sounds
      4. Miotic (constricted) pupils
      5. Cyanosis
      6. Hypotension
      7. Seizures
      8. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema (with IV heroin usage)

      The main cause of death secondary to opioid overdose is respiratory depression, which usually occurs within 1 hour of the overdose. Vomiting is also common, and aspiration can occur.

      Naloxone is a short-acting, specific antagonist of mu(μ)-opioid receptors. It is used to reverse the effects of opioid toxicity.

      It can be given by a continuous infusion if repeated doses are required and the infusion rate is adjusted according to the vital signs. Initially, the infusion rate can be set at 60% of the initial resuscitative IV dose per hour.

      Naloxone has a shorter duration of action (6-24 hours) than most opioids, and so close monitoring according to the respiratory rate and depth of coma with repeated injections is necessary. When repeated doses are needed in opioid addicts, naloxone administration may precipitate a withdrawal syndrome with abdominal cramps, nausea and diarrhoea, but these usually settle within 2 hours.

      An initial dose of 0.4 to 2 mg can be given intravenously and can be repeated at 2 to 3-minute intervals to a maximum of 10mg.

      If the intravenous route is inaccessible, naloxone can be administered via an IO line, subcutaneously (SQ), IM, or via the intranasal (IN) route.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding the glomerular filtration barrier, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the glomerular filtration barrier, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Molecules with molecular weight of 100 kDa or less are filtered freely.

      Correct Answer: The main factor determining whether a substance is filtered or not is molecular weight.

      Explanation:

      Molecular weight is the main factor in determining whether a substance is filtered or not – molecules < 7 kDa in molecular weight are filtered freely e.g. glucose, amino acids, urea, ions but larger molecules are increasingly restricted up to 70 kDa, above which filtration is insignificant. Negatively charged molecules are further restricted, as they are repelled by negative charges, particularly in the basement membrane. Albumin has a molecular weight of 69 kDa and is negatively charged, thus only very small amounts are filtered (and all of the filtered albumin is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule), whereas small molecules such as ions, glucose, amino acids and urea pass the filter without hindrance. This means that ultrafiltrate is virtually protein free, but otherwise has an identical composition of that of plasma. The epithelial lining of the Bowman's capsule consists of a single layer of cells called podocytes. The glomerular capillary endothelium is perforated by pores (fenestrations) which allow plasma components with a molecular weight of < 70 kDa to pass freely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The patients listed below have been diagnosed with a variety of ailments.

    In which...

    Correct

    • The patients listed below have been diagnosed with a variety of ailments.

      In which of the following situations would aspirin be an effective treatment option?

      Your Answer: A 36-year-old with an acute migraine (dose of 900-1000 mg)

      Explanation:

      A study published in the Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews in 2010 found that a single 1000-mg dose of aspirin is effective in treating acute migraine. It was discovered that 24 percent of aspirin users were pain-free after two hours, compared to 11 percent of placebo users. Because the BNF recommends a maximum dose of 900 mg for analgesia and most non-proprietary aspirin comes in a dose of 300 mg, a dose of 900 mg is frequently prescribed in the UK.

      Because aspirin is not recommended for children under the age of 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, it would be inappropriate to give it to the 12-year-old with the viral URTI.

      For uncomplicated dental pain, aspirin is an acceptable option, but not for patients who are taking warfarin. The combination of aspirin’s antiplatelet action and warfarin’s anticoagulation properties puts the patient at high risk of bleeding. Furthermore, aspirin can deplete the therapeutic levels of warfarin by displacing it from plasma proteins. It would be better to use another NSAID or analgesic.

      In gout, aspirin should be avoided because it reduces urate clearance in the urine and interferes with the action of uricosuric agents. Naproxen, diclofenac, and indomethacin are better options.

      Although aspirin is useful for inflammatory pains, the dose of aspirin required for an adequate analgesic effect in severe pain is associated with significant side effects. Naproxen would be a better first-line treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following describes the pulse pressure: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following describes the pulse pressure:

      Your Answer: Systolic - diastolic pressure

      Explanation:

      During systole, the pressure in the left ventricle increases and blood is ejected into the aorta. The rise in pressure stretches the elastic walls of the aorta and large arteries and drives blood flow. Systolic pressure is the maximum arterial pressure during systole. During diastole, arterial blood flow is partly maintained by elastic recoil of the walls of large arteries. The minimum pressure reached before the next systole is the diastolic pressure. The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is the pulse pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding an avulsion fracture, a sudden contraction of which muscle may lead to...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding an avulsion fracture, a sudden contraction of which muscle may lead to fracture of the head of the fibula?

      Your Answer: Semimembranosus

      Correct Answer: Biceps femoris

      Explanation:

      Avulsion fractures of the fibular head are rare and are so-called the arcuate signal. The “arcuate signal” is used to describe an avulsed bone fragment related to the insertion site of the tendon of the biceps femoris associated with the arcuate complex, which consists of the fabellofibular, popliteofibular, and arcuate ligaments. Such lesions are typically observed in direct trauma to the knee with excessive varus and internal rotation forces or indirect trauma with the same direction of the force.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - All of the following statements are incorrect about insulin except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are incorrect about insulin except:

      Your Answer: Insulin release is stimulated initially during eating by the sympathetic nervous system.

      Correct Answer: Proinsulin is cleaved into insulin and C peptide.

      Explanation:

      Proinsulin is synthesised as a single-chain peptide. A connecting peptide (C peptide) within storage granules is removed by proteases to yield insulin.

      Insulin:
      1. is a polypeptide hormone consisting of two short chains (A and B) linked by disulphide bonds.
      2. is produced by beta cells, located centrally within the islets of Langerhans, in the endocrine tissues of the pancreas.
      3. release is stimulated initially during eating by the parasympathetic nervous system and gut hormones such as secretin. However, most output is driven by the rise in plasma glucose concentration that occurs after a meal.
      4. effects are mediated by the receptor tyrosine kinase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      73.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal (1/2) 50%
Physiology (2/5) 40%
Anatomy (1/3) 33%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (1/2) 50%
CNS Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Passmed