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  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old woman presents to your clinic with cyclical mastalgia. Physical examination reveals...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to your clinic with cyclical mastalgia. Physical examination reveals that her breasts are normal. She has a family history of her mom who developed breast cancer at the age of 45 years and subsequently died from metastases. She states that her patient's maternal grandmother also had breast cancer before the age of 50.

      The patient is on the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and no other medications. She is generally healthy overall. Recent mammography results are also normal. An ultrasound of the breasts shows an uncomplicated cyst with no concerning features in the right breast.

      Apart from advice about the use of simple analgesics and evening primrose oil for her mastalgia, which one of the following is the most appropriate management in the patient's follow-up regimen?

      Your Answer: Remain on the OCP, six-monthly clinical review, yearly mammography and ultrasound.

      Explanation:

      This is a case of a woman who presented with cyclical breast pain that is on an OCP and with a family history of breast cancer. Those with a family history of breast cancer in more than one blood relative (parent, sibling, grandparent) have a significantly higher chance of developing breast cancer than women with no family history. Regular six-monthly clinical review and yearly mammographic screening, with or without ultrasound screening, should start at least five years before the age of the diagnosis in the blood relatives.

      The consensus now is that any additional risk of breast cancer from the oestrogen in the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) is less than the risk of unwanted pregnancy when using alternative, and perhaps less effective, contraception. Thus, the patient would not be advised to stop the OCP.

      With two blood relatives that developed breast cancer before the age of 50, this patient is in a high-risk group of developing breast cancer. Even so, 50% of such high-risk women will not develop a breast cancer in their lifetime. There are specialised familial cancer screening clinics are available for high-risk women where genetic testing can be discussed further. Women at high risk may electively have a bilateral subcutaneous mastectomy performed prophylactically which will bring the risk of breast cancer development to an irreducible minimum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old lady (gravida 0, para-O) presents with occasional lower abdomen discomfort. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old lady (gravida 0, para-O) presents with occasional lower abdomen discomfort. She is not sexually active and her periods last between 32 and 35 days. Her most recent regular menstrual period began three weeks ago. A pelvic ultrasound was performed which shows a normal uterus, left ovary, and a thin unilocular cyst in the right ovary around 4 cm in size. The most likely cause of this ultrasound finding is?

      Your Answer: A developing follicle which is about to ovulate.

      Correct Answer: A follicular cyst.

      Explanation:

      If one believes that this cycle will last 35 days, the cyst in the left ovary was discovered at mid-cycle.
      It’s too huge to be a ruptured pre-ovulatory follicle, and it doesn’t exhibit the characteristics of a corpus luteum, a benign cystic teratoma, or an endometrioma.

      As a result, a follicular cyst is the most likely diagnosis.

      A benign cyst is almost always seen on ultrasound as a unilocular, thin-walled cystic formation.

      The presence of solid materials in a multiloculated cystic structure strongly suggests the presence of a malignant mass.
      In a 25-year-old woman, this would be unusual, but not unheard of.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia....

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. She has been using an IUCD for one year now and wants to know the cause of her current condition. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Correct Answer: PID

      Explanation:

      IUCD is a risk factor for PID and PID has the clinical picture already described. However, fibroids should also be excluded since they may present in the same way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - On the sixth day of her menstrual cycle, a 25-year-old lady comes to...

    Incorrect

    • On the sixth day of her menstrual cycle, a 25-year-old lady comes to your clinic with slight lower abdomen pain. She has no children and lives with her male companion. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, her pulse is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.5°C.

      On vaginal examination, no adnexal lump is palpated, however cervical motion pain is noticed.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasonography

      Correct Answer: Cervical swabs for culture

      Explanation:

      Pain upon movement of the cervix with the health care provider’s gloved fingers is suggestive of an inflammatory process of the pelvic organs. CMT, when present, is classically found on bimanual examination of the cervix and uterus. While CMT is often associated with pelvic inflammatory disease, it can be present in other disease entities such as ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, ovarian torsion, appendicitis, and perforated abdominal viscus.

      PID is not a singular disease entity but describes a spectrum of disease. It is an upper genital tract infection, which may affect the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and peritoneum. PID can begin as cervicitis, progress to endometritis, followed by involvement of the fallopian tubes as pyosalpinx, and ultimately involve the ovary as a tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA). The two most common causative pathogens are N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis although the infection is often polymicrobial.

      Documentation of infection with either of these two organisms must be done by cervical swabs for culture.

      Transvaginal ultrasound or CT scan can be done to confirm diagnosis however the absence of findings in these investigations doesn’t rule out the possibility of PID.

      Urinalysis can be done to exclude urinary tract infection, one of the possible differential diagnosis for PID.

      Thyroid stimulating hormone has no role in the diagnosis of PID.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 25 year old female who was on sodium valproate for epilepsy came...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female who was on sodium valproate for epilepsy came for the advice about contraception. Which of the following is accurate?

      Your Answer: She can use COCP if anticonvulsant is changed to carbamazepine.

      Correct Answer: She can use COCP

      Explanation:

      There are no interactions between the combined oral contraceptive pill, progesterone-only pill, medroxyprogesterone injections or levonorgestrel implants and the AEDs valproic acid (sodium valproate), vigabatrin, lamotrigine, gabapentin, tiagabine, levetiracetam, zonisamide, ethosuximide and the benzodiazepines. So she can use COCP along with Sodium valproate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 46-year-old woman complains of ulceration with bloody discharge around her right nipple...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old woman complains of ulceration with bloody discharge around her right nipple accompanied by redness, excoriations, and severe itchiness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease of the breast

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of the breast is a type of cancer that outwardly may have the appearance of eczema, with skin changes involving the nipple of the breast. Symptoms may include redness of the nipple skin and crusting may occur around the area. In more advance cases, symptoms may include itching or a burning pain in the nipple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 24-year-old on combined oral contraceptive pills for the last 3 years. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old on combined oral contraceptive pills for the last 3 years. She complains of migraine two to three times a month for the last 6 months.
      What should be best appropriate advice to her?

      Your Answer: Discontinue combined oral contraceptive pills

      Correct Answer: Stop combined oral contraceptive pills and prescribe progestogen only pills

      Explanation:

      While on combination oral contraceptive tablets, this patient had a migraine. After a conversation about adverse effects, stop the combo medications and prescribe her progestogen-only pills.
      The following are reasons why progestogen-only pills should be your first choice:
      1-Age of 45 or more years
      2-Smokers who are 45 years old or older
      3-Oestrogen contraindications
      4-Melitus Diabetes
      5-A headache (combined oral contraceptive pills have absolute contraindication)
      6-Hypertension under control
      7-Lactation
      8-Chloasma.

      Pregnancy, undetected genital tract bleeding, and concurrent use of enzyme-inducing medications are all contraindications to using progestogen-only pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old female presents to a gynaecologist with a complaint of abnormal vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to a gynaecologist with a complaint of abnormal vaginal bleeding, usually postcoital. On pelvic examination, the cervix of was found to be of an unusually bright red colour and its texture was rougher than normal. Which of the following will you choose as the next step in the management of this condition?

      Your Answer: Cervical smear (2nd line)

      Explanation:

      Before considering invasive procedures, a cervical smear must first be performed. Antibiotics can only be given when inflammation has been confirmed and culture results have identified the organism causing the inflammation. Endometrial ablation, colposcopy and vaginal US are all invasive procedures that are not relevant in the immediate management of this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came for pre-pregnancy counselling. Which of the following is the most suitable advise for her?

      Your Answer: She should aim to have a pre-pregnancy HbA1c of <48 mmol/mol (6.5%)

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines women with type I diabetes, who are expecting a child should aim to keep their HbA1c level[1] below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) without causing problematic hypoglycaemia. Women with diabetes whose HbA1c level is above 86 mmol/mol (10%) should be strongly advised not to get pregnant because of the associated risks. The risks are higher with chronic diabetes. There is an increased risk to the foetus or mother due to diabetes in pregnancy. Women who are waiting to become pregnant should take folic acid (5 mg/day) until 12 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of having a baby with a neural tube defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence....

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence. She is otherwise healthy and there is a history of a large amount of fluid intake daily as she believes it lowers her risk of genitourinary infections.
      Urinalysis and urine culture are performed which come back negative. The diagnosis of urge incontinence was suggested by physical examination and confirmed by cystometry.

      What should be the appropriate next step of management for such a patient?

      Your Answer: Instruct her to eliminate excess water and caffeine from her daily fluid intake.

      Explanation:

      Urge incontinence is involuntary pee loss accompanied by a strong desire to urinate. The most common cause of urge incontinence is detrusor or bladder dyssynergia, which is characterized by an involuntary contraction of the bladder during urine distension.

      Bladder training, eliminating excess coffee and fluid intake, biofeedback, and pharmacological therapy are all options for treating urge incontinence. Treatment with anticholinergic medicines (oxybutynin chloride), -sympathomimetic agonists (metaproterenol sulphate), Valium, antidepressants (imipramine hydrochloride), and dopamine agonists (Parlodel) has proven successful if conservative approaches fail.

      The detrusor muscle will be relaxed by these pharmacologic drugs. Oestrogen therapy may improve urine control in postmenopausal women who are not on oestrogen replacement therapy. Kegel exercises can help women with stress urinary incontinence strengthen their pelvic musculature and improve bladder control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new partner and she are arranging a trip to Thailand. She has no contraindications.

      What is the best piece of advice?

      Your Answer: Oral contraceptive pills and condoms

      Explanation:

      OCPs should be started in this patient as well as condoms to prevent likely sexually transmitted infections.

      Condoms alone are not effective for prevention of pregnancy.

      OCPs alone do not prevent from sexually transmitted infections.

      It is not appropriate to inform the parents and the patient hasn’t refused any advice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old woman complains of a hard, irregular lump in her right breast...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman complains of a hard, irregular lump in her right breast that presented after a car accident 2 weeks ago. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Since the car crash happened two weeks prior, breast trauma is suggested and thus fat necrosis is the most probable diagnosis. Phyllodes tumours are typically a firm, palpable mass. These tumours are very fast-growing, and can increase in size in just a few weeks. Occurrence is most common between the ages of 40 and 50, prior to menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A 19-year-old university student presents to the emergency department.

    She complains of a fever...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old university student presents to the emergency department.

      She complains of a fever and purulent vaginal discharge.

      She add that's four days ago, she underwent a suction curettage for an unwanted pregnancy which occurred after a university party.

      On examination, she has a temperature of 38.4°C.

      Which organism is the most probable cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Mixed infection with Chlamydia trachoma and vaginal pathogens.

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause of her presentation is a mixed infection with Chlamydia trachoma and vaginal pathogens.

      Her most likely diagnosis is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) as suggested by a purulent vaginal discharge alongside a fever which indicates a systemic infection.

      The most common causative organisms in PID after sexual activity are chlamydia and gonorrhoea, of which chlamydia has a much higher prevalence.

      Chlamydia has also been shown to be present in about 15% of subjects who underwent pregnancy termination with no constant sexual partner.

      PID occurring after a gynaecologic surgical procedure is most commonly a result of mycoplasma or vaginal pathogens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A 19-year-old female books an appointment at the antenatal clinic at 13 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female books an appointment at the antenatal clinic at 13 weeks gestation.

      One week ago, she had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done which showed grade 3 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN3).

      What is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy and cone biopsy.

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy.

      Explanation:

      The best next step in her management is a colposcopy.

      Patients diagnosed with high-grade lesions (CIN 2 or 3) or adenocarcinoma in situ (AIS) during pregnancy should undergo surveillance via colposcopy and age-based testing (cytology/HPV) every 12-24 weeks.

      Cone biopsy and long loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ biopsy) are not recommended if the lesion extends up the canal and out of the vision of the colposcope.
      It is not necessary to terminate the pregnancy.

      Because repeat colposcopic examination during pregnancy offers all of the information needed, the repeat Pap smear is best done after the pregnancy has ended.

      Unless colposcopy indicates aggressive cancer at an earlier time, the ultimate therapy required is usually not decided until the postpartum visit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of irritability around her period. Her breasts are tender, swollen and painful around the time which also contributes to her irritability. She is not active sexually and doesn't plan on having any relationships in the future.

      What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer: Primrose oil

      Explanation:

      PMS is a condition, which is associated with somatic, emotional and behavioural symptoms during the women menstruation. Oenothera biennis with the common name of “evening primrose” is containing a valuable fixed oil with commercial name of EPO. Evening primrose oil has two types of omega-6-fatty acid including linoleic acid (60%–80%) and γ-linoleic acid (8%–14%). Essential fatty acids are considered as essential compounds for body health, especially among women. Evening primrose oil’s is effective in women health, but the immediate response should not be expected from it, therefore, it should be regularly used up to 4 or 6 months.

      Oral contraceptive pills are only used when other treatments fail.
      SSRI are only indicated in cases of persistent mood changes like depression.
      Local anaesthetics have no role in the management of PMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman who recently got married presents to your clinic.

    She has...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman who recently got married presents to your clinic.

      She has a history of extremely irregular menstrual cycles with the duration varying between four and ten weeks.

      She had attended her routine review appointment one week prior to her current presentation.

      At that time she had stated that her last period had occurred six weeks previously.

      You had recommended the following tests for which the results are as shown below:

      Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): 3 IU/L (<13)
      Serum luteinising hormone (LH): *850 IU/L (4-10 in follicular phase, 20-100 at mid-cycle)
      Serum prolactin (PRL): 475 mU/L (50-500)

      Which one of the following is the most probable reason for her amenorrhoea?

      Your Answer: Early pregnancy.

      Explanation:

      All of the options provided could cause amenorrhoea and therefore need to be evaluated.

      The luteinising hormone (LH) level reported here is exceedingly elevated. A patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is unlikely to have such a raised level, but it could be because of a LH-producing adenoma. Such tumours are, however, extremely rare.

      Early pregnancy (correct answer) is the most likely cause of this woman’s elevated LH level. This would be due to the presence of beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) hormone that is produced during pregnancy.

      LH and beta-HCG both have similar beta-subunits and cross-reactions are commonly noted in LH assays.

      The serum prolactin (PRL) level is at the upper end of the normal range and this correlates to the levels observed in the early stages of pregnancy.

      The follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels remain low during early pregnancy.

      If her amenorrhea had been caused by stress from her recent marriage, the LH level would have been normal or low.

      If the cause was premature ovarian failure, the FSH level would have been significantly higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been ongoing for twelve months. She states that she has been thinking about starting a family and was wondering if ovulation induction therapy was an option for her.

      Which one of the following would be most valuable in predicting a poor response to ovulation induction therapy?

      Your Answer: Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

      Explanation:

      The tests listed can all be performed during the work-up of a woman with secondary amenorrhoea. They are useful in that they cam diagnosis the most likely cause for the amenorrhoea as well as guide the treatment required if the patient wanted to become pregnant. Of these, the hormone test best able to predict a poor response to ovulation-induction therapy is the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) assay. If there are high levels of FSH, most of the ovulation-induction therapies are ineffective, although the rare spontaneous pregnancy can occur.

      To maximise the chance of pregnancy in patients with elevated FSH levels, the most effective technique is an ovum donation from a young woman. The ovum would be fertilised in the laboratory and transferred to the uterus of the woman with the high FSH level after administering hormonal preparation of her uterus.

      If the FSH level is normal, ovulation-induction therapy is usually effective. For these patients, correction of thyroid function will be necessary if the thyroid function is not normal. Dopamine agonist therapy is indicated if the prolactin level is elevated. Clomiphene or gonadotrophin therapy can be used where the luteinising and oestradiol levels are low, normal, or minimally elevated.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old lady complains of a mild discomfort in her lower abdomen. She...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old lady complains of a mild discomfort in her lower abdomen. She attained menopause 6 years ago whereas her last vaginal examination 2 years prior, was normal. She now has a palpable mass measuring 8cm in diameter in the left ovarian area.

      Which is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Admission to hospital for early surgical exploration.

      Explanation:

      This lady should be admitted to hospital for early surgical exploration. Taking into account her age, mild abdominal discomfort and a palpable lower abdominal mass, it is imperative that ovarian malignancy be ruled out as soon as possible. Patients with ovarian malignancy often present in advanced stages of cancer as the symptoms tend to be occult and non-specific. Other things to include in her workup would be her CA125 level. Any form of hormonal therapy is contraindicated until ovarian malignancy has been ruled out. A pap smear is not relevant here since we are suspecting an ovarian malignancy rather than cervical. Evaluation of her mass takes priority over an assessment for osteoporosis.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 19 - A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of headache,...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of headache, irritability, abdominal bloating, anxiety, and breast tenderness around 4 to 5 days before menstruation for the last 8 months. There's also a limitation on daily activities and she has to take a week off from work. The patient's symptoms are relieved completely with the onset of menstruation.

      Which of the following suggests an appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Premenstrual syndrome

      Explanation:

      This patient meets the diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome.
      Affective and somatic symptoms over the five days before menses in each of the three previous menstrual cycles are diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome.
      Affective symptoms include:
      – Depression.
      – Anger outbursts.
      – Irritability.
      – Anxiety.
      – Confusion.
      – social withdrawal.
      Somatic symptoms include:
      – breast tenderness
      – abdominal bloating
      – headache and swelling of extremities.
      Symptoms normally disappear within four days of menstruation and are present even when no medical therapy, drugs, or alcohol are used.

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome marked by intense melancholy, emotional lability with frequent crying, loss of interest in daily activities, reduced focus, exhaustion, sleeplessness, and a sense of being overwhelmed or out of control.
      Symptoms must have been present for the majority of the previous 12 months, interfering with daily activities.

      The diagnoses of generalised anxiety disorder and depression alone are doubtful.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A 46-year-old mother of three teenagers has been using the combination oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old mother of three teenagers has been using the combination oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive pill for ten years and has had regular light menstrual cycles during that time. She stopped taking it three months ago. She hasn't had a period since then, except the one she had right after she stopped. She is quite worried and believes she is pregnant, even though she has no additional symptoms that point to this conclusion. A large retroverted uterus is discovered during a vaginal examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate piece of advice?

      Your Answer: Review in four weeks time if she still has not menstruated.

      Correct Answer: A pregnancy test should be performed.

      Explanation:

      Despite the fact that pregnancy at her age is uncommon, the best advise you can give her is to take a pregnancy test.

      If the test results show she is not pregnant, she can next decide whether to restart the oral contraceptive pill (0CP) or simply weep until the post-pill amenorrhoea goes away.

      Although an increased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level may indicate ovarian failure, it does not guarantee that no more periods will occur and does not rule out the possibility of a future pregnancy.

      Obviously, she should be recommended to use a contraceptive method like condoms until the cause of her amenorrhoea is determined.
      Other hormonal tests, such as luteinizing hormone and prolactin testing, may be required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - A 24-year-old nulliparous lady has lately started having sexual encounters. She seeks your...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old nulliparous lady has lately started having sexual encounters. She seeks your advice since she is experiencing painful coitus at the vaginal introitus. It's accompanied by painful involuntary pelvic muscular contractions. The pelvic examination is normal except for confirmation of these findings.

      The most prevalent cause of this ailment is one of the following?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Correct Answer: Psychogenic causes

      Explanation:

      Vaginismus is an uncontrollable painful spasm of the pelvic muscles and vaginal exit that this patient has. It’s mainly caused by psychological factors. It’s important to distinguish it from frigidity, which indicates a lack of sexual desire, and dyspareunia, which is characterized as pelvic and/or back pain or other discomfort linked with sexual activity. Endometriosis, pelvic adhesions, and ovarian neoplasms are all common causes of dyspareunia. Vaginismus pain can be psychogenic, or it might be caused by pelvic diseases like adhesions, endometriosis, or leiomyomas. Organic vulvar or pelvic reasons (such as atrophy, Bartholin gland cyst, or abscess) are extremely rare, hence vaginismus is mostly treated with psychotherapy.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old female presents with a complaint of bloating and abdominal distension. History...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female presents with a complaint of bloating and abdominal distension. History reveals she underwent hysterectomy 3 months ago. Which investigation should be carried out in this case?

      Your Answer: Plain X-ray abdomen

      Explanation:

      A complication of bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and hysterectomy is the formation of adhesions in the GIT that can cause intestinal obstruction. Abdominal X-ray is sufficient to visualize any obstruction in the GIT.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes that last for about three days each month.

      These symptoms have been ongoing for the past 12 months.

      She reports that pubertal breast changes started about four years ago, however she has not yet had her first period.

      On examination of her abdomen there is no evidence of any suprapubic mass or tenderness when she is not in pain.

      Blood tests indicate that she is ovulating.

      From the following developmental abnormalities, identify the one that is most likely to be the cause of her abdominal pain.

      Your Answer: An absent vagina but normal uterus.

      Correct Answer: Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis.

      Explanation:

      The clinical evaluation indicates that the patient is ovulating but has not started menstruating. These observations suggest that the pain she is experiencing on a monthly basis could be related to ovulation or there could be an obstruction preventing the flow of menstrual blood from the uterus.

      Uterine or vaginal anomalies that can obstruct menstrual flow include imperforate hymen, absent vagina, a transverse vaginal septum, or cervical obstruction.

      If the cause was an obstruction to the flow, the retained menstrual products would have developed into a suprapubic mass (hematometra/ haematocolpos). However, no palpable mass was detected on abdominal examination.

      Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis (correct answer) is the only condition that would result in no endometrial development; consequently there was no palpable mass observed and no menstrual loss that could be shed was present. A pelvic (lower abdominal) ultrasound examination can confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to conceive for the last 2 years. Pelvic ultrasound shows 3-4 follicles in both ovaries. An endocrinological profile is ordered showing low oestrogen, elevated FSH, and LH.
      What is the most suitable advice for her?

      Your Answer: Oral contraceptive pills

      Correct Answer: In-vitro fertilization

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause has been diagnosed biochemically in this patient. Menopause is considered premature when it happens without warning in a woman under the age of 40.
      Follicular development is common in ultrasonography investigations of women with primary ovarian failure, but ovulation is rare. So this woman isn’t ovulating.

      Exogenous oestrogen treatment in physiologic amounts does not appear to improve the rate of spontaneous ovulation.
      Women with primary ovarian failure from any cause may be candidates for donor oocyte in vitro fertilisation (IVF).

      Oestrogens, clomiphene citrate, and danazol are examples of treatment approaches that have been shown to be ineffective in patients with premature ovarian failure.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 25 - A cervical screening test for HPV non-16 and 18 types, as well as...

    Correct

    • A cervical screening test for HPV non-16 and 18 types, as well as a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion on reflex liquid-based cytology, was positive for a young doctor from a nearby hospital.
      What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer: Repeat cervical screening test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      On reflex liquid-based cytology, this patient had a cervical screening test that revealed HPV non-16 and 18 kinds, as well as a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. In a year, she should be provided a cervical screening test. If HPV non-16/18 kinds are discovered in 12 months, she will need a colposcopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 26 - In which of the following situations are mini-pills unsafe to use? ...

    Correct

    • In which of the following situations are mini-pills unsafe to use?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cysts

      Explanation:

      Progestin only pills increase the risk of developing follicular cysts. Sonographic studies have observed that follicular cysts are more common in POP users than women not using hormones. The follicular changes tend to increase and regress over time. No intervention is required in asymptomatic women, other than reassurance. POP users who have persistent concerns about ovarian follicular changes should be offered another method of contraception.

      All other options are not contraindications to the use of mini-pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 27 - Which stage of the menstrual cycle in best suited for the insertion of...

    Incorrect

    • Which stage of the menstrual cycle in best suited for the insertion of IUD?

      Your Answer: After ovulation

      Correct Answer: During the first 7 days of your menstrual cycle, which starts with the first day of bleeding

      Explanation:

      it is imperative to elucidate the patient’s risk for current pregnancy and time within her current menstrual cycle prior to IUD insertion. A negative urine pregnancy test is a prerequisite to placement of an IUD. Pregnancies occurring with IUDs in place have an increased incidence of complications, including spontaneous abortion and septic abortion.

      For this reason, many providers prefer to time IUD insertion within the first 5-7 days of the menstrual cycle, further assuring that the patient is not newly pregnant.

      All other options take risk of the patient being pregnant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 28 - A 29-year-old lady taking oral contraceptives came to your clinic with her boyfriend....

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old lady taking oral contraceptives came to your clinic with her boyfriend. She got severe diarrhoea and vomiting after eating a hamburger at a local eatery while on the road. She has taken her pills as prescribed.

      What is your contraception advice?

      Your Answer: Use condoms for 7 days and continue usual pills

      Explanation:

      The CDC recommends that:
      If diarrhoea occurs within 24 hours of taking oral birth control or continues for 24 to 48 hours after taking a pill, an additional dose is not needed.
      If diarrhoea lasts more than 48 hours Use backup birth control, such as condoms, or avoid sexual intercourse until pills have been taken for seven diarrhoea-free days.

      All other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 29 - A woman comes to your office two weeks after undergoing a total vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A woman comes to your office two weeks after undergoing a total vaginal hysterectomy with anterior colporrhaphy and the Burch surgery for uterine prolapse and stress urine incontinence.

      Throughout the day, she complains of a continual loss of urine. She denies having any dysuria or urgency. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Correct Answer: Vesicovaginal fistula

      Explanation:

      Vesicovaginal fistula (VVF) is a subtype of female urogenital fistula (UGF). VVF is an abnormal fistulous tract extending between the bladder and the vagina that allows the continuous involuntary discharge of urine into the vaginal vault. The uncontrolled leakage of urine into the vagina is the hallmark symptom of patients with UGFs. Patients may complain of urinary incontinence or an increase in vaginal discharge following pelvic surgery or pelvic radiotherapy with or without antecedent surgery. The drainage may be continuous; however, in the presence of a very small UGF, it may be intermittent. Increased postoperative abdominal, pelvic, or flank pain; prolonged ileus; and fever should alert the physician to possible urinoma or urine ascites and mandates expeditious evaluation. Recurrent cystitis or pyelonephritis, abnormal urinary stream, and haematuria also should initiate a workup for UGF.

      Urinary trace infection presents with dysuria and urgency.
      Detrusor instability causes urge incontinence.
      Neurogenic bladder from diabetic neuropathy would also have urgency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - A woman presents with pain and oedema of one leg, 3 days after...

    Incorrect

    • A woman presents with pain and oedema of one leg, 3 days after an obstructed labour. Upon examination the leg is cold and pale. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Embolus

      Explanation:

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) during pregnancy and the postpartum window occurs at a 6-10-fold higher rate compared with age-matched peers and is a major cause of morbidity and mortality. Hypercoagulability persists for 6-8 weeks after delivery with the highest risk of PE being during the postpartum period. The lack of randomized trials in pregnant women leads to variability in practice, which are largely based on expert consensus or extrapolation from non-pregnant cohorts. The standard treatment of VTE in pregnancy is anticoagulation with low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), which like unfractionated heparin does not cross the placenta and is not teratogenic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (21/29) 72%
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