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  • Question 1 - The normal lining of the fallopian tube is: ...

    Correct

    • The normal lining of the fallopian tube is:

      Your Answer: Columnar epithelium with cilia

      Explanation:

      The Fallopian tubes, also known as, uterine tubes, and salpinges, are two very fine tubes lined with ciliated columnar epithelia, leading from the ovaries of female mammals into the uterus, via the uterotubal junction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic for her routine annual check-up and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic for her routine annual check-up and Pap smear. She has a single partner who uses condoms during contraception. Her menstrual cycle is regular and around four weeks long. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She is otherwise healthy with no symptoms suggesting a problem with her genital tract. Per vaginal examination is performed revealing a 4 cm cystic swelling in the right ovary. What would be the best next step of management?

      Your Answer: Advise her that the mass is a physiologic cyst and that no treatment or further review is required.

      Correct Answer: See her again in six weeks and arrange an ultrasound examination if the cyst is still present.

      Explanation:

      Because of the high possibility of spontaneous resolution and the fact that if the cystic mass was verified ultrasonically, a conservative policy would almost probably be proposed for at least another six weeks, an ultrasound examination is not necessary at this time. If the cyst is still present at the six-week check, an ultrasound examination is required, as it is likely that the cyst is a benign tumour or possibly endometriosis. It’s quite improbable that it’s cancer.
      Additional tests, such as computed tomography (CT) examination and potentially surgical removal or drainage, may be required in the future, although not at this time.
      This cyst in a young lady is almost probably of physiological origin, especially given its size. The woman should be informed, but a follow-up examination is required. The most suitable next action is to return in six weeks, as the cyst is most likely physiologic and will most likely dissipate naturally by then. The following appointment should not take place during the same menstrual cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      8899.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 33 year old pregnant lady was brought into the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old pregnant lady was brought into the emergency department with per vaginal bleeding. She has been having labour pains for the last 2 hours. O/E: her cervix was 2cm dilated. Which stage of labour is she in now?

      Your Answer: Latent phase

      Correct Answer: First stage

      Explanation:

      There are 3 stages of labour. The 1st stage of labour starts from labour contractions till the time the cervix is fully dilated. Stage 2 is from complete cervical dilatation until the baby is born. The 3rd stage is from the birth of the baby, until the time the placenta is expelled.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - All of the following are characteristic features of normal labour, except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are characteristic features of normal labour, except:

      Your Answer: Moderate bleeding

      Explanation:

      Normal labour is characterized by spontaneous onset, rhythmical uterine contractions along with vertex presentation. Cervical dilatation starts from the 1st stage of labour and intensity of the uterine contractions increases with passing time. Bleeding occurs after the child is expelled and the average loss is about 250-500 ml in a normal vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of irritability around her period. Her breasts are tender, swollen and painful around the time which also contributes to her irritability. She is not active sexually and doesn't plan on having any relationships in the future.

      What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer: Primrose oil

      Explanation:

      PMS is a condition, which is associated with somatic, emotional and behavioural symptoms during the women menstruation. Oenothera biennis with the common name of “evening primrose” is containing a valuable fixed oil with commercial name of EPO. Evening primrose oil has two types of omega-6-fatty acid including linoleic acid (60%–80%) and γ-linoleic acid (8%–14%). Essential fatty acids are considered as essential compounds for body health, especially among women. Evening primrose oil’s is effective in women health, but the immediate response should not be expected from it, therefore, it should be regularly used up to 4 or 6 months.

      Oral contraceptive pills are only used when other treatments fail.
      SSRI are only indicated in cases of persistent mood changes like depression.
      Local anaesthetics have no role in the management of PMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38 weeks gestation. During her previous pregnancy she delivered a healthy baby through caesarean section. The current pregnancy had been uneventful without any remarkable problems in antenatal visits except for the first trimester nausea and vomiting.

      On arrival, she had a cervical dilation of 4 cm and the fetal head was at -1 station. After 5 hours, the cervical length and fetal head station are still the same despite regular uterine contractions. Suddenly, there is a sudden gush of blood, which is approximately 1000 ml and the fetal heart rate have dropped to 80 bpm on CTG.

      Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Ruptured uterus

      Explanation:

      Due to the previous history of caesarean section, uterine rupture would be the most likely cause of bleeding in this patient who is at a prolonged active phase of first stage of labour.

      Maternal manifestations of uterine rupture are highly variable but some of its common features includes:
      – Constant abdominal pain, where the pain may not be present in sufficient amount, character, or location suggestive of uterine rupture and may be masked partially or completely by use of regional analgesia.
      – Signs of intra abdominal hemorrhage is a strong indication. Although hemorrhage is common feature, but signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding in cases of uterine rupture especially in those cases not associated with prior surgery may be subtle.
      – Vaginal bleeding is not considered as a cardinal symptom as it may be modest, despite major intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
      – Maternal tachycardia and hypotension
      – Cessation of uterine contractions
      – Loss of station of the fetal presenting part
      – Uterine tenderness
      As seen in this case, fetal bradycardia is the most common and characteristic clinical manifestation of uterine rupture, preceded by variable or late decelerations, but there is no other fetal heart rate pattern pathognomonic of rupture. Furthermore, fetal heart rate changes alone have a low sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing a case as uterine rupture.
      Pain and persistent vaginal bleeding despite the use of uterotonic agents are characteristic for postpartum uterine rupture. If the rupture extends into the bladder hematuria may also occur.
      A definite diagnosis of uterine rupture can be made only after laparotomy. Immediate cesarean section should be performed to save both the mother and the baby in cases where uterine rupture is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 23 year old female patient with DVT on anticoagulant came to your...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old female patient with DVT on anticoagulant came to your clinic for advice. She is on combined OCPs.

      What would you advice her?

      Your Answer: Progesterone only pill

      Explanation:

      Women with medical conditions associated with increased risk for thrombosis generally should not use oestrogen-containing contraceptives.

      The majority of evidence identified does not suggest an increase in odds for venous or arterial events with use of most POCs. Limited evidence suggested increased odds of VTE with use of injectables (three studies) and use of POCs for therapeutic indications (two studies, one with POCs unspecified and the other with POPs).

      Discontinuing anticoagulants increases her risk of recurrent DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      728
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - At a family clinic, you're seeing a young lady. She came to talk...

    Correct

    • At a family clinic, you're seeing a young lady. She came to talk about the many contraceptive alternatives available to her. She wants to begin using combined oral contraception tablets. She is concerned, however, about the risk of cancer associated with long-term usage of pills.

      Which of the following is the most likely side effect of oral contraceptive pills?

      Your Answer: Cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      Women who have used oral contraceptives for 5 years or more are more likely to get cervical cancer than women who have never used them. The longer a woman uses oral contraceptives, the higher her chances of developing cervical cancer become. According to one study, using marijuana for less than 5 years increases the risk by 10%, using it for 5–9 years increases the risk by 60%, and using it for 10 years or more increases the risk by double. After women cease using oral contraceptives, their risk of cervical cancer appears to decrease over time. Endometrial, ovarian, and colorectal cancer risks, on the other hand, are lowered.
      Compared to women who had never used oral contraceptives, women who were taking or had just discontinued using oral combination hormone contraceptives had a slight (approximately 20%) increase in the relative risk of breast cancer. Depending on the type of oral combination hormone contraception used, the risk increased anywhere from 0% to 60%. The longer oral contraceptives were used, the higher the risk of breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation? ...

    Correct

    • Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is responsible for the let down mechanism that occurs during breast feeding in which the myothelial cells contract and push the milk into the ductules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Stages of labour ...

    Correct

    • Stages of labour

      Your Answer: The third stage ends with the delivery of the placenta and membranes

      Explanation:

      First stage: The latent phase is generally defined as beginning at the point at which the woman perceives regular uterine contractions. A definition of active labour in a British journal was having contractions more frequent than every 5 minutes, in addition to either a cervical dilation of 3 cm or more or a cervical effacement of 80% or more.

      Second stage: fetal expulsion begins when the cervix is fully dilated, and ends when the baby is born.

      Third stage: placenta delivery – The period from just after the foetus is expelled until just after the placenta is expelled is called the third stage of labour or the involution stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal...

    Correct

    • You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends through the vaginal mucosa into the perineal muscle and fascia. The external anal sphincter appears to be in tact. How would you classify this tear?

      Your Answer: 2nd

      Explanation:

      If the external anal sphincter is in tact then this is a 1st or 2nd degree tear. As the perineal muscles are involved this is 2nd degree tear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 42 years old woman presents to a gynaecologic clinic with mid-cycle, moderate-intensity...

    Correct

    • A 42 years old woman presents to a gynaecologic clinic with mid-cycle, moderate-intensity abdominal pain. There is also a similar episode of pain around a month ago, which remained for about 3 days and resolved spontaneously. She is otherwise healthy with a normal regular cycle of about 28 days duration.
      Examination reveals normal vitals, soft and non-tender abdomen without any guarding or rebound tenderness.

      The most likely cause of the patient's problem is?

      Your Answer: Ovulation pain

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed symptoms of ovulation discomfort, which is also known as Mittelschmerz syndrome. Lower abdominal and pelvic pain that arises around the middle of a woman’s menstrual cycle characterises this condition.
      The discomfort usually appears suddenly and disappears within hours, though it can continue up to three days.

      The symptoms of ovulation pain can include:
      – Lower abdomen pain.
      – The pain typically occurs about two weeks before the menstrual period is due.
      – The pain is felt on the right or left side, depending on which ovary is releasing an egg.
      – The pain may switch from one side to the other from one cycle to the next, or remain on one side for a few cycles.
      The duration of pain ranges anywhere from minutes to 48 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      99.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks of gestation comes to office for...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks of gestation comes to office for a routine prenatal visit and anatomy ultrasound. Patient feels well generally and has no concerns, also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only daily medication is a prenatal vitamin. She is accompanied by her mother as her husband was unable to get off work. 

      Ultrasound shows a cephalic singleton fetus measuring at <10th percentile consistent with severe growth restriction. There are bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect.  Amniotic fluid level is normal with a posterior and fundal placenta. 

      Which of the following statements is the most appropriate initial response by the physician?

      Your Answer: There are some things about your ultrasound that I need to discuss with you; is it okay to do that now?

      Explanation:

      SPIKES protocol for delivering serious news to patients includes:
      – Set the stage includes arranging for a private, comfortable setting space, introduce patient/family & team members, maintain eye contact & sit at the same level and schedule appropriate time interval & minimize space for interruptions.
      – Perception: Use open-ended questions to assess the patient’s/family’s perception of the medical situation.
      – Invitation: should ask patient/family how much information they would like to know and remain cognizant of their cultural, educational & religious issues.
      – Knowledge:
      Warn the patient/family that serious news is coming, Speak in simple & straightforward terms, stop & check whether they are understanding.
      – Empathy: Express understanding & give support when responding to emotions
      – Summary & strategy: Summarize & create follow-through plan, including end-of-life discussions if applicable.

      The ultrasound findings of severe growth restriction, bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect are consistent with trisomy 18, the second most common autosomal trisomy, which results in fetal loss or neonatal death in the majority of cases.  In this case, the physician is to deliver a very serious news to the patient who is presenting for a routine visit, believing her pregnancy was normal.  When serious news is unexpected, it is especially important to prepare the patient and determine how the patient would like to receive the results.
      The physician is supposed to provide a comfortable setting and must ask patient’s permission to share the results. This allows the patient to respond with her preference and avoids making assumptions about whom, if anyone, she would like to be present with.  For example, some patients may prefer to defer discussion of the results until a major support person (eg, husband, mother) is present. In addition to establish patient’s preferred setting, physician should determine how much information the patient would like to receive. Some patients will prefer a detailed medical information about diagnosis and prognosis, whereas others may prefer to have time to process the news emotionally and receive further information later.  The SPIKES protocol (Setting the stage, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Empathy, and Summary/strategy) is a six-step model that can guide physicians in delivering serious news to patients.

      These statements do not allow the patient to choose how she receives the results and assume that she does not want her mother present.

      This statement fails to prepare the patient for serious news and prematurely jumps to sharing results using technical, medical terminology that may be difficult for the patient to comprehend. This approach could also be upsetting to a patient undergoing a routine ultrasound who is not expecting anything abnormal.

      This statement inappropriately determines when and with whom the patient should receive the results. Instead the patient should be asked how she prefers to receive the results.

      While delivering unexpected, serious news, physicians should prepare the patient and determine how the patient prefers to receive the information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      592.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Leydig cells contain receptors to which hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Leydig cells contain receptors to which hormone?

      Your Answer: FSH

      Correct Answer: LH

      Explanation:

      The Leydig cells contain receptors to the luteinizing hormone which in turn is responsible for the production of testosterone. This circulates in the body predominantly bound to transport proteins and to a lesser extent to albumin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 10 weeks of gestation comes...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 10 weeks of gestation comes to your office for an initial prenatal visit. Patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping and her first pregnancy was uncomplicated which ended with a spontaneous term vaginal delivery. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgeries. Patient takes a daily dose of prenatal vitamin and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or any other illicit drugs. 

      On examination her blood pressure is 122/80 mm of Hg and pulse is 70/min and BMI is 24 kg/m2.  The uterine fundus is palpated above the pubic symphysis. 
      Pelvic ultrasound shows 2 viable intrauterine gestations, a single fundal placenta, and a thin intertwin membrane that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle. 

      Among the below mentioned complications, this patient is at highest risk for which one to occur?

      Your Answer: Twin-twin transfusion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Twin gestations are generally at increased risk of complications and this risk is further stratified based on the chorionicity ie. number of placentas and amnionicity, the number of amniotic sacs of the gestation. In the given case patient has monochorionic diamniotic twins, which means 1 placenta and 2 amniotic sacs, based on the presence of 2 embryos, a single placenta and a thin intertwin membrane composed of 2 amniotic sacs that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle (“T sign”). In patients who appear to have a single placenta, the base shape of the intertwin membrane distinguishes between a monochorionic (“T sign”) and fused dichorionic (“lambda sign”) gestation.
      Monochorionic twins are at high risk for twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS), which is a complication that can result in heart failure and fetal
      eonatal mortality in both twins. In TTTS, unbalanced arteriovenous anastomoses are present between the shared placental vessels that supply the twins, because of these anastomoses, blood from the placental arteries from one twin (donor), which is of high resistance/pressure, is shunted into the placental veins of the other twin (recipient) with low resistance/pressure. This shunting of blood away from the donor twin causes anemia that leads to renal failure, oligohydramnios, low-output heart failure, and fetal growth restriction. In contrast, the shunting of blood toward the recipient twin causes polycythemia, which leads to polyhydramnios, cardiomegaly, high-output heart failure and hydrops fetalis. This in turn makes both twins at high risk for intrauterine and neonatal death.
      Mild TTTS is expectantly managed with serial ultrasounds to evaluate for worsening clinical features, whereas moderate-to-severe cases are treated with laser coagulation of the placental anastomoses.

      In monozygotic twins, placentation type is determined by timing of the twinning.  Twinning that occurs shortly after fertilization yields a dichorionic diamniotic gestation.  In contrast, the incomplete division (ie, fission) that can lead to conjoined twins occurs later in development and yields a monochorionic monoamniotic gestation. As the twins are in the same sac, monochorionic monoamniotic gestations can be complicated by cord entanglement but not possible in the given case as this patient has diamniotic twins.

      Risk factors for placenta accreta, implantation of the placenta directly into the myometrium, include placenta previa and prior uterine surgeries like cesarean delivery, myomectomy, etc

      Twin pregnancies are at increased risk of placenta previa (placental tissue that covers the internal cervical os); however, this patient has a fundal placenta, making this complication unlikely.

      Monochorionic twin gestations can be complicated by twin-twin transfusion syndrome, which is potentially a fatal condition that results from unbalanced vascular anastomoses between the vessels supplying umbilical cords of each twin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      140.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before 24 weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: It has not been proven to have any significant benefits

      Explanation:

      Routine ultrasonography at around 18-22 weeks gestation has become the standard of care in many communities. Acceptance is based on many factors, including patient preference, medical-legal pressure, and the perceived benefit by physicians. However, rigorous testing has found little scientific benefit for, or harm from, routine screening ultrasonography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old woman, at 27 weeks of gestation, who lives 40 kilometres from...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman, at 27 weeks of gestation, who lives 40 kilometres from the nearest tertiary obstetric hospital, is referred due to premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which occurred 2 days ago. This is her first pregnancy, which had been progressing normally until the rupture of membranes. Over the last 48 hours, she did not have any contractions. Transfer was made to the tertiary referral obstetric hospital where she was started on glucocorticoid therapy. Cervical swabs were taken and she underwent ultrasound and cardiotocography assessments. She was also started on prophylactic antibiotics. Cervical swabs only showed growth of normal vaginal flora whereas the abdominal ultrasound found almost no liquor. CTG was normal and reactive.

      Which is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: The white cell count (WCC) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels should be assessed every 2-3 days.

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with PROM at 27 weeks of gestation, her management plan would have to include:

      1) Cervical swabs to rule out infection
      2) Commencement of prophylactic antibiotics such as erythromycin until results from the swabs are available
      -If only normal vaginal flora are seen, prophylactic antibiotics can be stopped.
      3) Administration of glucocorticoid- usually for 48 hours to promote maturity of the fetal lung and lower the chance of intracranial bleeding if the foetus has to be delivered prematurely
      4) Transfer to a healthcare centre that has neonatal intensive care facilities to ensure if intensive care is needed post-delivery, the healthcare staff are prepared
      5) Blood profile (particularly white cell count) and inflammatory markers (CRP) to look for any signs of chorioamnionitis
      6) CTG assessment every 2-3 days. Abnormalities found on the CTG tracing are often the first evidence of problems such as a subclinical chorioamnionitis
      7) Tocolysis with tocolytics such as IV salbutamol or nifedipine if contractions start before the course of glucocorticoid therapy is finished. Post-glucocorticoid therapy, tocolysis would not be often employed since there is a risk of masking contractions that occur due to an infection. In those cases, it is better to deliver the baby rather than to prolong the pregnancy. If there is no infection, the management plan should aim to prolong the pregnancy and delay delivery of a very premature baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      51.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is a pro-thrombotic agent? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a pro-thrombotic agent?

      Your Answer: Thromboplastin

      Explanation:

      Protein C, protein S, plasminogen and anti thrombin III are all anti thrombotic agents. Thromboplastin is a pro-thrombotic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - During wound healing collagen alignment along tension lines is part of which phase?...

    Incorrect

    • During wound healing collagen alignment along tension lines is part of which phase?

      Your Answer: Granulation

      Correct Answer: Remodelling

      Explanation:

      Realignment of collagen is part of the remodelling phase. Remodelling is usually underway by week 3. Maximum tensile wound strength is typically achieved by week 12.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You see a patient in fertility clinic who you suspect has Klinefelters. What...

    Correct

    • You see a patient in fertility clinic who you suspect has Klinefelters. What is the likely karyotype?

      Your Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome occurs in 1:1000 individuals. They are phenotypically male and genotypically they have 47,XXY chromosomes. These individuals have small testes, are tall with disproportionate long lower limbs.40% will also have gynecomastia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She was noted to be at 33 weeks of gestation.

      Which of the following is considered the safest treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol and metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      The occurrence of migraine in women is influenced by hormonal changes throughout the lifecycle. A beneficial effect of pregnancy on migraine, mainly during the last 2 trimesters, has been observed in 55 to 90% of women who are pregnant, irrespective of the type of migraine.

      For treatment of acute migraine attacks, 1000 mg of paracetamol (acetaminophen) preferably as a suppository is considered the first choice drug treatment. The risks associated with use of aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and ibuprofen are considered to be small when the agents are taken episodically and if they are avoided during the last trimester of pregnancy.

      Paracetamol 500 mg alone or in combination with metoclopramide 10 mg are recommended as first choice symptomatic treatment of a moderate-to-severe primary headache during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 43-year-old woman complains of a greenish foul smelling discharge from her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman complains of a greenish foul smelling discharge from her left nipple. She has experienced the same case before. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Breast abscess

      Correct Answer: Duct ectasia

      Explanation:

      Mammary duct ectasia occurs when the lactiferous duct becomes blocked or clogged. This is the most common cause of greenish discharge. Mammary duct ectasia can mimic breast cancer. It is a disorder of peri- or post-menopausal age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You are discussing a planned Caesarean Section (CS) with a patient. Which of...

    Correct

    • You are discussing a planned Caesarean Section (CS) with a patient. Which of the following risks is reduced with CS?

      Your Answer: Early postpartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      There are many different reasons for performing a delivery by Caesarean section. The four major indications accounting for greater than 70 per cent of operations are: 1. previous Caesarean section 2. dystocia 3. malpresentation 4. suspected acute fetal compromise. Other indications, such as multifetal pregnancy, abruptio placenta, placenta praevia, fetal disease and maternal disease are less common. The chances of early postpartum haemorrhage are greatly reduced in C-section deliveries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old primigravida was admitted to the hospital in active labor. On admission,...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old primigravida was admitted to the hospital in active labor. On admission, her cervix was 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced. She received epidural anesthesia and proceeded to complete cervical dilation with fetal head at +3 station within a few hours. Patient who has been pushing for 4 hours is exhausted now and says she cannot feel her contractions, nor knows when to push because of the epidural anesthesia. Patient had no complications during the pregnancy and has no chronic medical conditions. 
      Estimated fetal weight by Leopold maneuvers is 3.4 kg (7.5 lb), patient's vital signs are normal and fetal heart rate tracing is category 1. Tocodynamometer indicates contractions every 2-3 minutes and a repeat cervical examination shows complete cervical dilation with the fetal head at +3 station, in the left occiput anterior position with no molding or caput. 

      Among the following, which is considered the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Perform vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery

      Explanation:

      The period from attaining a complete cervical dilation of 10 cm to fetal delivery is considered as the second stage of labor. In the given case patient have achieved an excellent fetal descent to +3 due to her average-sized infant of 3.4 kg, suitable pelvis (no fetal molding or caput, suggesting no resistance against the bony maternal pelvis), and a favorable fetal position of left occiput anterior. 
      But with no further fetal descent the patient fulfills the following criterias suggestive of second-stage arrest like:
      ≥3 hours of pushing in a primigravida without an epidural or ≥4 hours pushing with an epidural, as in this patient
      OR
      ≥2 hours of pushing in a multigravida without an epidural or ≥3 hours pushing with an epidural.

      As continued pushing without any effect will lead to complications like postpartum hemorrhage, limiting the chances of spontaneous vaginal delivery, it is better to manage this case by operative vaginal delivery procedures like vacuum-assisted delivery, to expedite delivery. maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, and maternal conditions like hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, in which the Valsalva maneuver is not recommended are the other indications for performing an operative vaginal delivery.

      Fundal pressure is the technique were external pressure is applied to the most cephalad portion of the uterus, were the applied force is directed toward the maternal pelvis. The maneuver was not found to be useful in improving the rate of spontaneous vaginal deliveries.

      Epidurals will not arrest or affect spontaneous vaginal delivery rates, instead they just lengthen the second stage of labor. Also an appropriate analgesia is a prerequisite to use in operative vaginal delivery.

      Manual rotation of an infant to a breech presentation for breech vaginal delivery is called as internal podalic version. It is contraindicated in singleton deliveries due to the high risk associated with breech vaginal delivery in regards to neonatal mortality and morbidity.

      The ideal fetal head position in vaginal delivery is occiput anterior (OA) as the flexed head in this provides a smaller diameter and facilitates the cardinal movements of labor. The occiput posterior (OP) position, in contrast to OA, presents with a larger-diameter head due to the deflexed position. So the chance for spontaneous vaginal delivery will be decreased if fetal head is rotated to OP position.

      A lack of fetal descent after ≥4 hours of pushing in a primigravida with an epidural (≥3 hours without) or ≥3 hours in a multigravida with an epidural (≥2 hours without) is defined as second stage arrest of labor.  The condition is effectively managed with operative vaginal delivery procedures like vacuum-assisted delivery. Other common indications for operative vaginal delivery are maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, and maternal conditions where the Valsalva maneuver is not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      60
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal ultrasound was performed and showed a probable malignancy involving the left ovary. The report suggests that the ovarian lesion may represent a metastatic disease.

      Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation that will likely show the site of the primary tumour?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy.

      Explanation:

      This woman presents with a metastatic tumour of the ovary. Being from Australia is a hint in this question as the likely site of the primary tumour can vary depending on the country the patient is in and the availability of screening mammography. In underdeveloped countries, breast cancer is usually diagnosed later in life as screening mammography is generally not available, making the most likely site of the primary tumour in the breast. In Japan, where the incidence of stomach cancer is much higher than in western countries, the most likely primary site would be the stomach with a Krukenberg tumour in both ovaries. In Australia, mammographic screening is recommended every other year for all women over the age of 50, and so the most likely primary site would be the colon.

      The most appropriate work-up to find the primary tumour in this patient would be performing a colonoscopy. A computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen may miss a small tumour, and an ultrasound examination would not be able to diagnosis a colon cancer. Mammography would be the correct response in under-developed countries. A lung malignancy would be detectable by chest X-ray, but would rarely cause a metastasis in the ovary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      73.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Where are ADH (vasopressin) and Oxytocin synthesised? ...

    Correct

    • Where are ADH (vasopressin) and Oxytocin synthesised?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      ADH and vasopressin are synthesized in the supraoptic and periventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus, they are eventually transported to the posterior pituitary where they are stored to be released later.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy,...

    Correct

    • All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: Serum free T4

      Explanation:

      Free T3 (FT3) and free T4 (FT4) levels are slightly lower in the second and third trimesters. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low-normal in the first trimester, with normalization by the second trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - After six weeks of amenorrhoea, a 25-year-old woman appears with stomach discomfort and...

    Incorrect

    • After six weeks of amenorrhoea, a 25-year-old woman appears with stomach discomfort and vaginal bleeding. If she has a tubal ectopic pregnancy, which of the following combinations of physical indications is most likely?

      Your Answer: Tenderness in the pouch of Douglas and a tender adnexal mass.

      Correct Answer: Little guarding but marked rebound tenderness in the suprapubic region.

      Explanation:

      Blood in the peritoneal cavity rarely causes rigidity like that of a board (this is generally only found when chemical or purulent peritonitis is present).

      When there is blood, there is usually a lot of rebound soreness and a lot of guarding.

      A tubal ectopic pregnancy causes discomfort and tenderness in the lower abdomen, but it is not always localised to the side of the disease.

      Shock is uncommon since the diagnosis is usually recognised before there is enough blood loss to elicit such signs.

      Pelvic soreness is more prevalent than a pelvic mass that may be seen on a clinical exam.
      Where a mass is visible, it could be an ectopic pregnancy, but it’s more likely to be a pregnancy surrounded by a blood clot caused by a leaking ectopic pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      64.5
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks pregnant. She presented to the medical clinic for evaluation of a vulval ulcer. A swab was taken and revealed a diagnosis of herpes simplex type II (HSV-2) infection. She was surprised about this diagnosis since neither she nor her husband has ever had this infection before. She insisted on knowing the source of the infection and was very concerned about her baby’s well-being and she asked how her condition may affect the baby.

      Which of the following statements is considered true regarding her situation?

      Your Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic

      Explanation:

      Genital herpes can be asymptomatic or have mild symptoms that go unrecognized. When symptoms occur, genital herpes is characterised by one or more genital or anal blisters or ulcers. Additionally, symptoms of a new infection often include fever, body aches and swollen lymph nodes.

      HSV-2 is mainly transmitted during sex through contact with genital or anal surfaces, skin, sores or fluids of someone infected with the virus. HSV-2 can be transmitted even if the skin looks normal and is often transmitted in the absence of symptoms.

      In rare circumstances, herpes (HSV-1 and HSV-2) can be transmitted from mother to child during delivery, causing neonatal herpes. Neonatal herpes can occur when an infant is exposed to HSV during delivery. Neonatal herpes is rare, occurring in an estimated 10 out of every 100 000 births globally. However, it is a serious condition that can lead to lasting neurologic disability or death. The risk for neonatal herpes is greatest when a mother acquires HSV for the first time in late pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She has hirsutism and acne. She has also expressed that she occasionally suffers from migraines along with pins and needles in her left arm.

      Which is the best contraceptive for her?

      Your Answer: A barrier method of contraception.

      Explanation:

      OCPs which contain oestrogen and progesterone are contraindicated in women who have migraines associated with a neurological deficit or aura (pins and needles in this case). In such cases, the alternative would be Implanon (etonogestrel), however, there are mixed reviews and opinions regarding whether or not there is a decreased efficacy in heavier women. The absolute contraindication for Implanon is active breast cancer. Therefore, the best advice for her case would be some form of barrier contraceptive.

      When choosing a COCP (combined oral contraceptive pill), it is recommended that a formulation containing 20-30ug of ethinyl oestradiol is chosen. The progestogen part is responsible for prevention of conception and can be norgestrel or any other progestogens although the formulations containing norgestrel tend to be cheaper than more novel progestins such as cyproterone acetate as well as drospirenone. If the patient is known to have issues with excessive fluid retention, OCPs that has drospirenone would be the most suitable. However, if the patient is suspected to have PCOS, the best choice would be one that contains cyproterone acetate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      38.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (2/3) 67%
Gynaecology (6/10) 60%
Obstetrics (10/10) 100%
Clinical Management (4/4) 100%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Passmed