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  • Question 1 - An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular cycles. The most...

    Correct

    • An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Combined pill

      Explanation:

      Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amounts during pregnancy?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amounts during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      The nutritional status of a woman before and during pregnancy is important for a healthy pregnancy outcome. Pregnancy is a state of increased requirement of macro and micronutrients, and malnourishment or inadequate dietary intake before and during pregnancy, can lead to adverse perinatal outcomes. Many nutritional interventions have been proposed for pregnant mothers. These include multiple micronutrients (MMN), iron/folate, balanced protein energy, calcium, zinc and folic acid supplementation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile in her left breast measuring 1-2 cm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Fibroadenoma usually occurs in younger women. These non-tender masses can be removed for aesthetic purposes. Breast cysts are common shifting masses inside the breast tissue more common in women over the age of 35.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Among the following presentations during pregnancy, which is not associated with maternal vitamin...

    Correct

    • Among the following presentations during pregnancy, which is not associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency?

      Your Answer: Large for gestational age

      Explanation:

      Retarded skeletal growth resulting in small for gestational age babies are the usual outcomes of an untreated vitamin D deficiency in pregnancy.

      Symptoms associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency during pregnancy are:
      – Hypocalcemia in newborn.
      – Development of Rickets later in life.
      – Defective tooth enamel.
      – Small for gestational age due to its effect on skeletal growth
      – Fetal convulsions or seizures due to hypocalcemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy has been diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis of iliofemoral veins.

      Which of the following is considered the best management for the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Therapeutic dose of low molecular weight heparin for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Deep venous thrombosis (DVT) during pregnancy is associated with high mortality, morbidity, and costs. Pulmonary embolism (PE), its most feared complication, is the leading cause of maternal death in the developed world. DVT can also result in long-term complications that include post thrombotic syndrome (PTS) adding to its morbidity. Women are up to 5 times more likely to develop DVT when pregnant. The current standard of care for this condition is anticoagulation.

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred agent for prophylaxis and treatment of DVT during pregnancy. A disadvantage of LMWH over unfractionated heparin (UFH) is its longer half-life, which may be a problem at the time of delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      82.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients...

    Correct

    • As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients at the OBGYN department. You have become an expert in diagnosing endometriosis early.

      Which would you say is the most common symptom of endometriosis?

      Your Answer: Dysmenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      The following are the most common symptoms for endometriosis, but each woman may experience symptoms differently or some may not exhibit any symptoms at all. Symptoms of endometriosis may include:

      Pain, especially excessive menstrual cramps that may be felt in the abdomen or lower back
      Pain during intercourse
      Abnormal or heavy menstrual flow
      Infertility
      Painful urination during menstrual periods
      Painful bowel movements during menstrual periods
      Other gastrointestinal problems, such as diarrhoea, constipation and/or nausea

      All options can be symptoms of endometriosis but the commonest one is dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The first stage of labour: ...

    Correct

    • The first stage of labour:

      Your Answer: Ends with fully dilation of the cervix

      Explanation:

      First stage of the labour starts with the contractions of the uterus. With time, the no. of contractions, its duration and intensity increases. It ends once the cervix is fully dilated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In which part of the body does clomiphene trigger ovulation by antagonising oestrogen...

    Correct

    • In which part of the body does clomiphene trigger ovulation by antagonising oestrogen receptors?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Clomiphene citrate is widely used in the induction of ovulation, especially in the treatment of anovulatory infertility and in conditions such as PCOS. The drug functions as a selective oestrogen receptor modulator, which acts in the hypothalamus to indicate low serum oestrogen levels. Reduced levels of negative feedback stimulate the secretion of GnRH from the hypothalamus, which in turn stimulate the production of gonadotropins (FSH and LH) from the anterior pituitary. These work to increase ovarian follicular activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 33 year old lady in her first trimester of pregnancy presented with...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old lady in her first trimester of pregnancy presented with loss of weight, abdominal pain and frequent episodes of vomiting. Her vital signs are normal. She has been given a cyclizine injection but without any significant improvement. The next step would be?

      Your Answer: IV steroids

      Explanation:

      In hyperemesis gravidarum, IV corticosteroids can be given to reduce vomiting, if the patient is not responding to standard anti emetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following statements regarding Turner's syndrome is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding Turner's syndrome is true?

      Your Answer: Usually presents with primary amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients present with primary amenorrhea, have non functional or streak ovaries and cant conceive. They are 45X genetically.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old female, expecting twins, complains of decreased fetal movements in her 40th...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female, expecting twins, complains of decreased fetal movements in her 40th week of gestation. An hour ago, she experienced constant abdominal pain for an hour and passed blood in her urine. What is the next best investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Ultrasounds can

      Correct Answer: Cardiotocograph

      Explanation:

      Cardiotocography (CTG) helps to record the heartbeat of the foetus in parallel to measuring the contractions of the mother’s uterus, this is the most appropriate tool to assess this patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      129.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable vomiting with concurrent ketonuria. Past medical is unremarkable except for an appendectomy at the age of 12 years. Which of the following is the next best step in this investigation?

      Your Answer: Serum electrolytes, urea and creatinine.

      Explanation:

      The finding of ketonuria in this patient indicates profound dehydration and electrolyte loss. Immediate investigation with baseline serum electrolytes, urea, and creatinine is recommended for aid In intravenous resuscitation and rehydration.

      All other assessments listed are appropriate, however, baseline electrolyte concentration is important before initiating intravenous resuscitation.

      Other causes that can lead to vomiting in early pregnancy include normal pregnancy, multiple pregnancies, molar pregnancies, or urinary tract infection. Urine culture is necessary to exclude urinary tract infection, pelvic ultrasound to confirm singleton or multiple pregnancy and rule out a molar pregnancy.

      An erect abdominal Xray may help to rule out an organic intestinal obstruction in this patient. Her history of an appendectomy predisposes this patient to adhesions leading to small bowel obstruction. However, it is not the immediate assessment in this case.

      Before the advent of ultrasound, a quantitative hCG analysis was indicated to assess the presence of molar pregnancy. However, ultrasound is now preferred to confirm this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      75.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are reviewing a patient with a scan suggestive of partial molar pregnancy....

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a patient with a scan suggestive of partial molar pregnancy. What is the typical genotype of a partial molar pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 69 XXY

      Explanation:

      The partial mole is produced when an egg is fertilized by two sperm producing genotype 69 XXY (triploid). It can also occur when one sperm reduplicates itself yielding the genotypes 92 XXXY (tetraploid) though this is less common The genotype of a complete mole is typically 46 XX (diploid) but can also be 46 XY (diploid)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Pregnancy is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Pregnancy is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Increased peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      A variety of changes in the cardiovascular system occur during normal pregnancy, including increases in cardiac output, arterial compliance, extracellular fluid volume and decreases in blood pressure (BP) and total peripheral resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - In her first pregnancy, a 27-year-old lady suffered a fever and malaise around...

    Incorrect

    • In her first pregnancy, a 27-year-old lady suffered a fever and malaise around 10 weeks of pregnancy. She had come into touch with a youngster who had been diagnosed with rubella two weeks prior. Which of the following would be the best next step in your management career?

      Your Answer: Gamma globulin intramuscularly to the mother.

      Correct Answer: Serial blood samples for rubella antibody assessment.

      Explanation:

      If the patient already has immunity (IgG positive) and if maternal rubella infection is the cause of the current symptoms (initial lgG and IgM negative, but IgM positive on a second sample 2-3 weeks later), amniocentesis may be required to confirm fetal infection.
      Ultrasound may reveal growth limitation in late pregnancy, but a fetal congenital defect is rare when the infection begins at 10 weeks of pregnancy, and ultrasound testing at 12 weeks of pregnancy is unlikely to detect abnormalities, while it may discover one from 18-20 weeks. Given the well-known deleterious fetal effects of rubella infection in early pregnancy, gamma-globulin is unlikely to be beneficial at this point in the infective process, and pregnancy termination would certainly be considered by some individuals.
      On the basis of prenatal rubella infection, this would not be recommended unless the infection was shown to have occurred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following arteries branches directly from the aorta? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following arteries branches directly from the aorta?

      Your Answer: Ovarian

      Explanation:

      The uterine and vaginal arteries branch from the internal iliac artery. The ovarian artery branches direct from the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?

      Your Answer: Increased arterial pO2, decreased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Correct Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Normal closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) is brought about by a number of mechanisms. Upon delivery the new born babies first breath inflates the lungs and this causes a rise in pO2. Oxygen is known to cause constriction of the DA in vivo and in vitro. In addition the decreased vascular resistance means the pressure within the lumen of the DA drops aiding closure. In addition on inflation of the lungs, the lungs produce bradykinin which stimulates smooth muscle constriction of the ductus. The most important factor is thought to be the drop in Prostaglandin E2. Prostaglandin E2 maintains patency of the Ductus in the unborn child but after birth is metabolised in the lungs and its levels fall rapidly within 3 hours of birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      58.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 36 year old woman has a pelvic ultrasound scan showing multiple fibroids....

    Correct

    • A 36 year old woman has a pelvic ultrasound scan showing multiple fibroids. What is the most common form of fibroid degeneration?

      Your Answer: Hyaline degeneration

      Explanation:

      Hyaline degeneration is the most common form of fibroid degeneration. Fibroids:
      Risk Factors
      – Black Ethnicity
      – Obesity
      – Early Puberty
      – Increasing age (from puberty until menopause)
      Protective Factors
      – Pregnancy
      – Multiparity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved into chromosomes and pulled apart?

      Your Answer: S Phase

      Correct Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      G0 is a resting phase. Interphase (G1,S,G2) is where the cell grows and DNA replication occurs forming chromatids. Mitosis is where cell division occurs and this happens in a the following phases: Prophase Chromatin condenses to chromosomes (paired as chromatids). Mitotic spindle forms Metaphase Chromatids align at the equatorial plane AKA the metaphase plate Anaphase Chromatids pulled apart into 2 constituent daughter chromosomes Telophase New nuclear envelopes form around each daughter chromosome Cytokinesis Cells divide Diagram illustrating Mitosis Image sourced from Wikipedia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman at her 26 weeks of gestation visits your office after...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman at her 26 weeks of gestation visits your office after she has noticed intermittent leakage of watery liquor per vagina for the past eight hours, especially after straining, coughing or  sneezing.

      Speculum vaginal exam reveals clear fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix, with flow of liquid through the cervical os. Further evaluation establishes preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM) as the diagnosis. No uterine contraction is felt and there is a tertiary hospital 50 km away.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Administration of corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      The case above gives a classic presentation of preterm premature rupture of membranes(PPROM). In term or near term women rupture of membrane harbingers labor, so if ROM does not end up in established labor in 4 hours, is called as premature ROM (PROM). In other words, PROM is defined as ROM before the onset of labor and if it occurs before 37 weeks, the preferred term is PPROM. In both these scenarios treatment approach will be different.
      A sudden gush of watery fluid per vagina, continuous or intermittent leakage of fluid, a sensation of wetness within the vagina or perineum are the classic presentation of rupture of the membranes(ROM), regardless of the gestational age. Pathognomonic symptoms symptoms of ROM are presence of liquor flowing from the cervical os or pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix.
      PPROM is associated with many risk factors and some of them are as follows:
      – Preterm labor
      – Cord prolapse
      – Placental abruption
      – Chorioamnionitis
      – Fetal pulmonary hypoplasia and other features of prematurity
      – Limb positioning defects
      – Perinatal mortality
      Once the diagnosis is confirmed the following measures should be considered in the management plan:
      a) Maternal corticosteroids
      Adverse perinatal outcomes like respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and necrotizing enterocolitis can be effectively reduced using corticosteroids. The duration of using neonatal respiratory support, in case of respiratory distress, can be significantly reduced by the administration of corticosteroids. If preterm labor is a concern in cases were gestational age is between 23•0d and 34•6d weeks or if preterm birth is planned or expected within the next 7 days corticosteroids are indicated.
      Recommended regimens to the woman are IM betamethasone in two doses of 11.4 mg, given 24 hours apart and if betamethasone is unavailable, IM dexamethasone given 24 hours apart in two doses of 12 mg.
      A single repeat dose of corticosteroid given seven days or more after the first dose is suggestive in cases were the gestational age is less than 32• 6d, if the woman is still considered to be at risk of preterm labor, up to 3 repeated doses can be considered.
      Another option is Tocolysis using nifedipine and is indicated if the woman is in labor. This helps in cessation of labor for at least 48 hours, providing a window for corticosteroid to establish its effects. Tocolysis is not indicated in cases with absence of uterine contractions suggestive of labor.
      It is appropriate to transfer this woman to a tertiary hospital after administering the first doses of corticosteroid and antibiotics. This ensures optimal neonatal care in case of premature delivery.
      As the patient needs investigations and fetal monitoring along with close observation for development of any signs of infection and preterm labor, it is not appropriate to discharge this patient on oral antibiotics
      Admitting to a primary care center without neonatal ICU (NICU) does no good to the outcome of this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      99.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 29 year old patient has a transvaginal ultrasound scan that shows a...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old patient has a transvaginal ultrasound scan that shows a mass in the left ovary. It is anechoic, thin walled, is without internal structures and measures 36mm in diameter. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Functional cyst

      Explanation:

      Features of functional ovarian cysts on ultrasound are: Thin walled and unilocular Must be >3cm diameter (if <3cm described as follicle) Anechoic (absence of internal echoes) No colour flow No solid components

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      97.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - At the time of delivery, if there is a laceration of perineal body...

    Correct

    • At the time of delivery, if there is a laceration of perineal body but not the anal sphincter, this type of laceration is classified as?

      Your Answer: Second degree

      Explanation:

      Perineal tears are common at the time of child birth. First degree perineal laceration means that the wound is so small that it doesn’t require any stitches and usually heals on its own. 2nd degree means that skin and smooth muscles are both torn. 3rd degree tear means that the tear is beyond the perineal muscles and the muscles surrounding the anal canal, while in 4th degree, the perineal tear goes through the anal sphincter up to the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation, is brought to the emergency department by her mother due to a seizure. Patient was sitting outside when she suddenly had a 2-minute seizure with loss of urinary continence and is still confused when she arrived at the emergency department. Her mother reports that the patient had severe anxiety and had been acting out for the past several days. Her only surgery was a splenectomy after a motor vehicle collision last year. 

      On physical examination patient's temperature is 37.7 C (99.9 F), blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg, and pulse is 120/min. Patient seems agitated and diaphoretic with bilaterally dilated pupils. 

      On systemic examination:
      Cranial nerves are intact, neck is supple and nontender. 
      Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. 
      The abdomen is gravid without any rebound or guarding and the uterus is nontender. 
      There is 2+ pitting pedal edema bilaterally.  Sensations and strength are normal in the bilateral upper and lower extremities. 

      Laboratory results are as follows:
      a) Complete blood count shows
      - Hematocrit: 33%
      - Platelets: 140,000/mm3
      - Leukocytes: 13,000/mm3
      b) Serum chemistry
      - Sodium: 124 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
      - Chloride: 96 mmol/L
      - Bicarbonate: 21 mmol/L
      - Blood urea nitrogen: 6.43 umol/L
      - Creatinine: 70.7 umol/L
      - Glucose: 4.4 mmol/L
      c) Urinalysis
      - Protein: none
      - Ketones: present

      CT scan of the head is normal. 

      Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Eclampsia

      Correct Answer: Amphetamine intoxication

      Explanation:

      This patient at 36 weeks of gestation likely had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. A new-onset seizures in pregnancy can be due to either due to eclampsia which is pregnancy-specific or due to other non-obstetric causes like meningitis, intracranial bleeding etc.

      In pregnant and postpartum women eclampsia is the most common cause for seizures which is classically associated with preeclampsia, a new-onset hypertension at ≥20 weeks gestation, with proteinuria and/or signs of end-organ damage. Although this patient has hypertension, absence of proteinuria and the additional findings like agitation, dilated pupils, hyponatremia and normal head CT scan are suggestive of another etiology. Patients with eclampsia will show white matter edema in head CT scan.

      Amphetamine intoxication, which causes overstimulation of the alpha-adrenergic receptors resulting in tachycardia, hypertension and occasional hyperthermia, might be the cause for this patient’s seizures. Some patients will also have diaphoresis and minimally reactive, dilated pupils and severe intoxication can lead to electrolyte abnormalities, including significant hyponatremia (possibly serotonin-mediated) and resultant seizure activity.
      Confirmation of Amphetamine intoxication can be done by a urine drug testing. it is essential to distinguishing between eclampsia and other causes of seizure in this case, as it will help to determine whether or not there is need for an emergency delivery.

      Altered mental status and electrolyte abnormalities can be due to heat stroke, however, patients affected this way will have an elevated temperature of >40 C /104 F associated with hemodynamic instabilities like hypotension.

      Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy which can result in seizures (ie, eclampsia), but this patient’s hematocrit level is normal without any hemolysis, also patients with HELLP syndrome typically presents with a platelet count <100,000/mm3. Seizures and altered mental status in patients with prior splenectomy can be due to pneumococcal meningitis however, such patients will present with high fever and nuchal rigidity, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case. Amphetamine intoxication can present with hypertension, agitation, diaphoresis, dilated pupils, and a generalized tonic-clonic seizure due to hyponatremia, which is most likely to be the case here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      1408.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - All of the following factors are associated with umbilical cord prolapse, except? ...

    Correct

    • All of the following factors are associated with umbilical cord prolapse, except?

      Your Answer: Anencephaly

      Explanation:

      Anencephaly means the missing of a particular portion of the scalp and brain tissue. The other factors listed are associated with umbilical cord prolapse like multiparity, twin birth, polyhydramnios, premature delivery, long umbilical cord or breech presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery,...

    Correct

    • All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery, except?

      Your Answer: Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm

      Explanation:

      For the foetus to pass through the vagina, the obstetric conjugate should be 11cm or greater. If the diameter is less than 10 cm then its better to perform C-section as the labour might not progress. All the other options favour a normal vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy. She is complaining of mild vaginal bleeding for the past 12 hours, along with bouts of mild cramping lower abdominal pain.

      On vaginal examination, the cervical os is closed with mild discharge containing blood clots and an ultrasonography confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal heart rate.

      Which among of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Threatened abortion

      Explanation:

      Uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix along with sonographic visualization of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity are diagnostic of threatened abortion.

      Abortion does not always follow a uterine bleeding in early pregnancy, sometimes not even after repeated episodes or large amounts of bleeding, that is why the term “threatened” is used in this case. In about 90 to 96% cases, the pregnancy continues after vaginal bleeding if occured in the presence of a closed os and a detectable fetal heart rate. Also as the gestational age advances its less likely the condition will end in miscarriage.

      In cases of inevitable abortion, there will be dilatation of cervix along with progressive uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissue can be either felt or seen through the cervical os and the passage of this tissue occurs within a short time.

      In case were the membranes have ruptured, partly expelling the products of conception with a significant amounts of placental tissue left in the uterus is called as incomplete abortion. During the late first and early second trimesters this will be the most common presentation of an abortion. Examination findings of this includes an open cervical os with gestational tissues observed in the cervix and a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age and a partially contracted uterus. The amount of bleeding will vary but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock, with painful contractions and an ultrasound revealing tissues in the uterus.

      An in utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20 weeks of gestation is called as a missed abortion. In this case the women may notice that the symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have disappeared and they don’t ‘feel pregnant’ anymore. Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix remains closed and the ultrasound done reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.

      In case of complete abortion, miscarriage occurs before the 12th week and the entire contents of conception will be expelled out of uterus. If this case, the physical examination will show a small and well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix. There is scant vaginal bleeding with only mild cramping and ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus without any extra-uterine pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      138.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 33-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation presented to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation presented to the emergency department due to breech presentation which was confirmed on ultrasound. There is also a failed external cephalic version.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Elective caesarean delivery at 38 weeks of gestation

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.

      The current recommendation for the breech presentation at term includes offering external cephalic version (ECV) to those patients that meet criteria, and for those whom are not candidates or decline external cephalic version, a planned caesarean section for delivery sometime after 39 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      55.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 26-year-old gravida 2 para 1 presents at 30 weeks gestation with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old gravida 2 para 1 presents at 30 weeks gestation with a complaint of severe itching. She has excoriations from scratching in various areas. She says that she had the same problem during her last pregnancy, and her medical records reveal a diagnosis of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Elevation of which one of the following is most specific and sensitive marker of this disorder?

      Your Answer: Total bilirubin

      Correct Answer: Bile acids

      Explanation:

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP) classically presents as severe pruritus in the third trimester. Characteristic findings include the absence of primary skin lesions and elevation of serum levels of total bile acids.

      The most specific and sensitive marker of ICP is total serum bile acid (BA) levels greater than 10 micromol/L. In addition to the elevation in serum BA levels, the cholic acid level is significantly increased and the chenodeoxycholic acid level is mildly increased, leading to elevation in the cholic
      henodeoxycholic acid level ratio. The elevation of aminotransferases associated with ICP varies from a mild increase to a 10- to 25-fold increase.

      Total bilirubin levels are also increased but usually the values are less than 5 mg/dL. Alkaline phosphatase (AP) is elevated in ICP up to 4-fold, but this is not helpful for diagnosis of the disorder since AP is elevated in pregnancy due to production by the placenta- Mild elevation of gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT) is seen with ICP but occurs in fewer than 30% of cases. However, if GGT is elevated in cases of ICP, that patient is more likely to have a genetic component of the liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      141.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Regarding Turner syndrome which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Turner syndrome which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome occurs in approximately 1 in every 20,000 live female births

      Correct Answer: Only 1% of affected foetuses will survive to term

      Explanation:

      The incidence of 45,XO turner syndrome is around 1 in 8000 live births. Approximately 1% of monosomy X female embryos survive. Phenotypically they are females and 90% do not develop secondary sexual characteristics and hormone replacement is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      54.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following factors causes the greatest increase in risk of developing...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors causes the greatest increase in risk of developing bladder cancer?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder is most commonly caused by cigarette smoke. Other risk factors include naphthylamine, azodyes and long term cyclophosphamide use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle does...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle does DNA replication occur?

      Your Answer: Cytokinesis

      Correct Answer: Interphase

      Explanation:

      DNA replication occurs during S phase but that isn’t one of the options. Remember Interphase comprises G1,S and G2 phases!

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      121.1
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - All are true about monozygotic pregnancy, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • All are true about monozygotic pregnancy, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: The 1st commonly presents as breech

      Explanation:

      The 1st commonly presents as cephalic. Monozygotic (MZ) twins originate when a single egg is fertilized to form one zygote, which then divides into two embryos. Although they share the same genotype they are not phenotypically identical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      491.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: PCOS

      Explanation:

      The risk factors of endometrial cancer include obesity, diabetes, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen therapy, tamoxifen therapy, HRT and a family history of colorectal and ovarian carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 32-year-old woman gave birth to a baby of normal weight through vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman gave birth to a baby of normal weight through vaginal delivery, which was complicated by a small perianal tear that was taken care of without stitching. On the fifth day of postpartum patient presents with heavy bright red vaginal bleeding and mentions that lochia was in scant amounts compared to her previous pregnancy.

      On examination, her temperature was 38.8°C and uterus is mildly tender to palpation.

      Which one of the following would most likely be her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retained products of conception

      Explanation:

      Secondary postpartum hemorrhage of bright red character accompanied with fever, between 24 hours to 12 weeks of postpartum is suggestive of retained products of conception (RPOC).
      The basal portion of the decidua may remain after separation of placenta in many cases. This decidua will then divides into two layers, the superficial layer which will be shed spontaneously and the deep layer which will regenerates and covers the entire endometrial cavity with in 16 days of postpartum.
      Normal shedding of blood and decidua is referred to as lochia rubra, which is red / reddish brown in colour and it lasts for few days following delivery. This vaginal discharge gradually becomes watery and pinkish brown in colour, lasting for 2 to 3 weeks and is called as lochia serosa. Ultimately, this discharge becomes yellowish-white called as lochia alba.

      Scanty lochia in the first few days after delivery is suggestive of the placental site not undergoing involution, which occurs mostly due to RPOC. Later these retained products will undergo necrosis resulting in fibrin deposition which will eventually form a placental polyp. Detachment of this scar of polyp will result in brisk hemorrhage and the remaining necrotic products will get infected resulting in uterine infection which will present with fever, lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness.

      Endometritis can lead to fever, offensive lochia and abdominal pain with tenderness. It is the most common cause of postpartum fever, but occurs within the first 5 days of postpartum with the peak incidence between days 2 and 3. Though vaginal bleeding is a presenting feature, bright red bleeding is unlikely of endometritis.

      Another cause of postpartum fever is genital lacerations which have a peak incidence of wound infection between 4th and 5th days. Although fever as a temporal symptom favours wound infection, this diagnosis is less likely in the given case as wound infection will not affect the normal course of lochia, also it does not present as heavy bright red bleeding. Moreover, there are no symptoms like erythema, tenderness or discharge in history suggestive of wound infection.

      Another cause of bleeding and fever can be cervical tear but this tends to present as primary postpartum hemorrhage rather than secondary, which occurs after 24 hours of postpartum. An overlooked and infected minor cervical laceration can cause fever but ii will not result in bright red bleeding, also genital tract lacerations do not affect lochia.

      It is very unlikely for uterine rupture to occur 24 hours after delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      51.6
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the following is a double stranded RNA virus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a double stranded RNA virus?

      Your Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Correct Answer: Rotavirus

      Explanation:

      RNA viruses are almost always single stranded whilst DNA viruses are almost always double stranded. The exceptions are rotavirus and Parvovirus B19 respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which of the following is correct in the treatment of a case of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is correct in the treatment of a case of threatened abortion:

      Your Answer: Bed rest

      Explanation:

      Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 50-year-old menopausal woman complained of regular hot flushes that interfered with her...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old menopausal woman complained of regular hot flushes that interfered with her sleep and job. She had a ten-year history of oestrogen-dependent breast cancer.

      What is the most effective treatment for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine is an SSRI used for hot flushes in women with contraindication for hormonal therapy.

      Hormonal or other pharmacotherapy is usually needed for women with bothersome hot flashes. For most women with moderate to very severe hot flashes and no contraindications, we suggest MHT. Women with an intact uterus need both oestrogen and a progestin, while those who have undergone hysterectomy can receive oestrogen only. For women interested in MHT, the first step is to determine the potential risks for the specific individual.

      The majority of perimenopausal and recently menopausal women are good candidates for short-term hormone therapy for symptom relief. However, for women with a history of breast cancer, coronary heart disease (CHD), a previous venous thromboembolic event (VTE) or stroke, or those at moderate or high risk for these complications, alternatives to hormone therapy should be suggested. For women with moderate to severe hot flashes who are not candidates for hormone therapy based upon their breast cancer, CHD, or VTE risk and for those who choose not to take MHT, we suggest nonhormonal agents. The agents most commonly used include SSRIs, serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), antiepileptics, and centrally acting drugs.

      Black Cohosh is found to be no more significant than placebo.
      Long-term use of mefenamic acid is controversial and not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      148.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which of the following causes an increase in Sex Hormone Binding Globulin (SHBG)?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes an increase in Sex Hormone Binding Globulin (SHBG)?

      Your Answer: PCOS

      Correct Answer: Liver cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Liver cirrhosis is known to lead to decreased levels of SHBG. Other causes of high SHBG are:
      Oestrogens e.g. oral contraceptives
      Pregnancy
      Hyperthyroidism
      Liver cirrhosis
      Anorexia nervosa
      Drugs e.g. anticonvulsants

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis? ...

    Correct

    • Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis?

      Your Answer: 1st and 2nd Meiotic Divisions

      Explanation:

      During the early fetal life, oogonia proliferate by mitosis. They enlarge to form primary oocyte before birth. No primary oocyte is form after birth. The primary oocyte is dormant is the ovarian follicles until puberty. As the follicle matures, the primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division and gives rise to secondary oocyte. During ovulation the secondary oocytes starts the second meiotic division but is only completed if a sperm penetrates it. This 1st and 2nd meiotic division is known as ootidogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Where is fetal DHEA produced? ...

    Correct

    • Where is fetal DHEA produced?

      Your Answer: Adrenals

      Explanation:

      Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is a steroid hormone synthesised from cholesterol (via Pregnenolone) by the adrenal glands. The foetus manufactures DHEA, which stimulates the placenta to form oestrogen, thus keeping a pregnancy going. Production of DHEA stops at birth, then begins again around age seven and peaks when a person is in their mid-20s

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 35-year-old lady with a 4-year history of hypertension is planning to conceive....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old lady with a 4-year history of hypertension is planning to conceive. She has never been pregnant before and has stopped using contraception recently. She has a past medical history of asthma and the only medication she is on is ramipril 10 mg daily.

      On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/85 mm/Hg.

      From the following which is the most appropriate initial management of her hypertension?

      Your Answer: Cease ramipril and start methyldopa

      Explanation:

      In the given case pre-pregnancy counselling and management of chronic hypertension is very much essential.
      Some commonly prescribed antihypertensive drugs like ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor antagonists, diuretics and most beta blockers are contraindicated or is best to be avoided before conception and during pregnancy.
      Methyldopa is considered as the first line drug for the management of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy and is the most commonly prescribed antihypertensive for this indication.
      Hydralazine can be used during any hypertensive emergencies in pregnancy.
      Intake of Angiotensin receptor blockers and ACE inhibitors during the first trimester can lead to complications as they are both teratogenic; use of these drugs during second and third trimesters can result in foetal renal dysfunction, oligohydramnios and skull hypoplasia.
      Diuretics can cause foetal electrolyte disturbances and significant reduction in maternal blood volume.
      All beta blockers, except labetalol, can result in foetal bradycardia, and growth restriction in case its long-term use.
      Calcium channel antagonists, except nifedipine, are avoided during pregnancy due to its high risk for maternal hypotension and foetal hypoxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      76.6
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Regarding menstruation, which of the following is the maximum normal blood loss? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding menstruation, which of the following is the maximum normal blood loss?

      Your Answer: 35-40ml

      Correct Answer: 80-85ml

      Explanation:

      Most women lose about 35-40 ml of blood on average during each menstrual cycle. The maximum amount of blood loss is 80 ml after which blood loss of more than 80 ml is defined as heavy menstrual bleeding, formerly known as menorrhagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - You are asked to speak to a 27 year old patient who is...

    Correct

    • You are asked to speak to a 27 year old patient who is pregnant for the first time. She is concerned as her friend recently gave birth and the baby was found to have profound hearing loss. Her friend was told this was due to an infection whilst she was pregnant. What is the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      CMV is the most common congenital infection causing sensorineural deafness.
      10-15% of infected infants will be symptomatic at birth. A further 10-15% who are asymptomatic at birth will develop symptoms later in life. Transmission can also be via breastmilk and the incubation period for CMV is 3-12 weeks. Diagnosis of fetal CMV infection is via amniocentesis however this should not be performed for at least 6 weeks after maternal infection and not until the 21st week of gestation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53...

    Correct

    • One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53 year old female patient. HPV type 42 was detected and reported as LSIL. A repeat pap smear after 12 months shows no change.

      What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      The management of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) on cervical cytology in women ages 25 years or older depends upon whether the patient underwent high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) testing.

      Women in this age group comprise two different populations in terms of cervical cancer screening strategies. Professional organizations recommend that women ages 25 to 29 years be screened with cytology alone, while women 30 years or older should be screened with cytology and HPV co-testing. Thus, the American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP) prefers that women ages 25 to 29 years are not managed based upon HPV results, even if an HPV test was performed at the time of screening. For women with ages 30 years or older and HPV positive, colposcopy must be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      50.9
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 61-year-old woman presents to OBGYN clinic with a complaint of irregular bleeding...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old woman presents to OBGYN clinic with a complaint of irregular bleeding per vagina for the last 3 months. Her past medical history is not significant and she went through menopause around a decade ago.
      A cervical screening test is performed and comes back normal. PCR for chlamydia is also negative. Endometrial thickness of around 8mm is seen on transvaginal ultrasound.
      What would be the next step of management?

      Your Answer: Referral to the gynaecologist for endometrial biopsy

      Explanation:

      This patient had postmenopausal vaginal haemorrhage and an 8mm endometrial thickness. Endometrial thickness of 4mm or more in a postmenopausal woman with vaginal bleeding necessitates an endometrial biopsy to rule out endometrial cancer, and this patient should be referred to a gynaecologist for this procedure.
      All of the other choices are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      87.1
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Polyhydramnios is associated with which one of the following conditions? ...

    Correct

    • Polyhydramnios is associated with which one of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia/TE fistula may be suspected prenatally with ultrasound findings of polyhydramnios, absence of fluid in the stomach, small sized abdomen, or the presence of a dilated proximal oesophageal pouch. An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she plans to get pregnant soon. However, she is worried about how she should change her diet once she becomes pregnant already.

      Which of the following is considered the best to give to the patient in addition to giving folic acid?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D

      Correct Answer: Iodine

      Explanation:

      There is evidence that folic acid, iodine and vitamin D are important for reproductive outcomes. Folic acid and iodine supplementation is recommended for women planning to conceive and in pregnancy.

      The recommended dose of folic acid for women without special considerations planning to conceive is 400-500 mcg. The recommended dose of folic acid for women with special considerations is 2-5 mg per day.

      Women planning a pregnancy, including those with thyroid disease, should take iodine supplements in the dose of 150 mcg per day prior to and during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      71.3
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - The resting pulse in pregnancy is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The resting pulse in pregnancy is:

      Your Answer: Increased by 20 bpm

      Correct Answer: Increased by 10 to 15 bpm

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy cardiac output increases by 30 to 50%. As a result, the resting pulse speeds up from a normal of about 70 bpm to 80 or 90 bpm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Macrophages are derived from what type of white blood cell? ...

    Correct

    • Macrophages are derived from what type of white blood cell?

      Your Answer: Monocytes

      Explanation:

      Macrophages are derived from monocytes. When monocytes come across a pathogen they differentiate into macrophages for phagocytosis to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - You review a patient in the fertility clinic. The ultrasound and biochemical profile...

    Correct

    • You review a patient in the fertility clinic. The ultrasound and biochemical profile are consistent with PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. You plan to initiate Clomiphene. According to NICE guidance how long should treatment continue for (assuming patient remains non-pregnant)?

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Treatment with Clomiphene should not exceed 6 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - You see a patient in fertility clinic who you suspect has Klinefelters. What...

    Correct

    • You see a patient in fertility clinic who you suspect has Klinefelters. What is the likely karyotype?

      Your Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome occurs in 1:1000 individuals. They are phenotypically male and genotypically they have 47,XXY chromosomes. These individuals have small testes, are tall with disproportionate long lower limbs.40% will also have gynecomastia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - All the following are possible causes of polyhydramnios, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • All the following are possible causes of polyhydramnios, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: IUGR

      Explanation:

      An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      128.9
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 23 year old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden onset...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe lower abdominal and pelvic pain. History reveals she normally has regular 28 day cycles but she missed her last period. Past medical history reveals 2 termination of pregnancy procedures in the past 3 years. The most recent one 6 months ago. She smokes 5 cigarettes per day.

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely to have a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. The history of multiple TOPs suggests her contraceptive methods are not reliable and her missed period is suggestive she may currently be pregnant. There is no temperature or vaginal discharge to suggest PID though this is of course possible as is appendicitis. The last termination was 6 months ago so endometritis is unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      123.3
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon history taking and interview, it was noted that she had a history of valvular heart disease. She has been married to her boyfriend for the last 2 years and she now has plans for pregnancy.

      Which of the following can lead to death during pregnancy, if present?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac condition affecting women during pregnancy and is poorly tolerated due to the increased intravascular volume, cardiac output and resting heart rate that predictably occur during pregnancy.

      Young women may have asymptomatic mitral valve disease which becomes unmasked during the haemodynamic stress of pregnancy. Rheumatic mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac disease found in women during pregnancy. The typical increased volume and heart rate of pregnancy are not well tolerated in patients with more than mild stenosis. Maternal complications of atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure can occur, and are increased in patients with poor functional class and severe pulmonary artery hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Sertoli cells contain receptors to which hormone? ...

    Correct

    • Sertoli cells contain receptors to which hormone?

      Your Answer: FSH

      Explanation:

      Sertoli cells contain receptors for FSH. In response to this Sertoli cells synthesize inhibin, androgen binding proteins and anti Mullerian hormone all which are connected to the reproduction cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A low APGAR score at one minute: ...

    Correct

    • A low APGAR score at one minute:

      Your Answer: Indicates the need for immediate resuscitation

      Explanation:

      The treatment of asphyxia starts with the correct perinatal management of high-risk pregnancies. The management of the hypoxic-ischemic new-borns in the delivery room is the second fundamental step of the treatment. Low Apgar scores and need for cardiopulmonary resuscitation at birth are common but nonspecific findings. Most new-borns respond rapidly to resuscitation and make a full recovery. The outcomes for new-borns who do not respond to resuscitation by 10 minutes of age are very poor, with a very low probability of surviving without severe disability. Resuscitation in room air is advised for term new-borns, since the use of 100% oxygen is associated with worse outcomes compared to the use of room air.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      44.7
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 35 year old female presented with complaints of a 3 cm lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female presented with complaints of a 3 cm lump in her right breast, which was firm & irregular. O/E there was also some colour change over the breast. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer: Carcinoma

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Breast carcinoma is one of the most common malignancies in women. It presents as an irregular, firm consistency nodule/lump, which is attached to the skin most of the time. The overlying skin also exhibits a peau d’ orange appearance, along with dimpling. A sebaceous cyst is a small cystic swelling with no colour change and can occur anywhere over the skin. A lipoma is a benign tumour of fats which is soft in consistency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Warfarin inhibits which clotting factors? ...

    Correct

    • Warfarin inhibits which clotting factors?

      Your Answer: 2,7,9 and 10

      Explanation:

      Warfarin inhibits Vitamin K dependent clotting factors. These include factors 2,7,9 and 10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked...

    Correct

    • A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked to review her ultrasound. There is a solid collection of echoes with numerous small (3-10 mm) anechoic spaces. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Molar Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      This is typical appearance of molar pregnancy. This used to be referred to as ‘snowstorm sign’ as with older poorer resolution ultrasound the anechoic species looked like a snowstorm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      54.5
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal vaginal delivery, spontaneously delivers a live baby weighing 4750gm one hour ago after a three-hour long labour period. Shortly after, an uncomplicated third stage of labour, she goes into shock (pulse 140/min, BP 80/50 mmHg). At the time of delivery, total blood loss was noted at 500mL, and has not been excessive since then. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Uterine rupture.

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffered a uterine rupture. It occurs most often in multiparous women and is less often associated with external haemorrhage. Shock develops shortly after rupture due to the extent of concealed bleeding.

      Uterine inversion rarely occurs when after a spontaneous and normal third stage of labour. Although it can lead to shock, it is usually associated with a history of controlled cord traction or Dublin method of placenta delivery before the uterus has contracted. This diagnosis is also strongly considered when shock is out of proportion to the amount of blood loss.

      An overwhelming infection is unlikely in this case when labour occurred for a short period of time. Uterine atony and amniotic fluid embolism are more associated with excessive vaginal bleeding, which is not evident in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      108
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - You're assessing a 34-year-old lady who suffers from chronic pelvic pain. She experiences...

    Incorrect

    • You're assessing a 34-year-old lady who suffers from chronic pelvic pain. She experiences cyclic pain, mostly throughout her premenstrual and menstrual periods. She has been trying for 15 months to conceive without luck. Her pelvic check-up comes out normal.

      Which of the following tests would be most useful in diagnosing the source of her pain and planning preoperative disease staging?

      Your Answer: CA-125 levels

      Correct Answer: MRI

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is a chronic gynaecological condition affecting women of reproductive age and may cause pelvic pain and infertility. It is characterized by the growth of functional ectopic endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus and includes three different manifestations: ovarian endometriomas, peritoneal implants, deep pelvic endometriosis. The primary locations are in the pelvis; extra pelvic endometriosis may rarely occur.

      Diagnosis requires a combination of clinical history, invasive and non-invasive techniques. The definitive diagnosis is based on laparoscopy with histological confirmation. Diagnostic imaging is necessary for treatment planning. MRI is as a second-line technique after ultrasound. The MRI appearance of endometriotic lesions is variable and depends on the quantity and age of haemorrhage, the amount of endometrial cells, stroma, smooth muscle proliferation and fibrosis. The purpose of surgery is to achieve complete resection of all endometriotic lesions in the same operation.

      Owing to the possibility to perform a complete assessment of all pelvic compartments at one time, MRI represents the best imaging technique for preoperative staging of endometriosis, in order to choose the more appropriate surgical approach and to plan a multidisciplinary team work.

      Though ESR maybe elevated due to the presence of inflammation, it is not specific for endometriosis and has no role in preoperative staging. The same holds true for any possible CBC finding.

      Transvaginal ultrasound is preferred for diagnosis but doesn’t aid in preoperative staging of endometriosis.

      CA125 values are elevated in severe infiltrative endometriosis but unchanged in mild disease. Relaying on CA125 cause a high rate of false negatives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      149.7
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Skin changes during pregnancy should include: ...

    Correct

    • Skin changes during pregnancy should include:

      Your Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Skin signs during pregnancy may include: dark spots on the breasts, nipples and inner thighs, melasma (chloasma), linea nigra, stretch marks, acne, spider telangiectasis and varicose veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in a sexually active 19-year-old...

    Correct

    • The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in a sexually active 19-year-old female is:

      Your Answer: Mixed vaginal flora

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is the most common cause of acute vaginitis, accounting for up to 50% of cases in some populations. It is usually caused by a shift in normal vaginal flora- Mixed vaginal flora is considerably more common as a cause of vaginal discharge than – albicans and T. vaginalis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 30-year-old woman who is at 38 weeks gestation presented to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who is at 38 weeks gestation presented to the emergency department due to complaints of not feeling fetal movements since yesterday. Upon investigations, fetal demise was confirmed. Induced delivery was done and she gave birth to a dead foetus.

      Which of the following is least likely to reveal the cause of the fetal death?

      Your Answer: Chromosomal analysis of the mother

      Explanation:

      Stillbirth has many causes: intrapartum complications, hypertension, diabetes, infection, congenital and genetic abnormalities, placental dysfunction, and pregnancy continuing beyond forty weeks.

      In 5% of normal-appearing stillborns, a chromosomal abnormality will be detectable. With an autopsy and a chromosomal study, up to 35% of stillborns are found to have a major structural pathology, and 8% have abnormal chromosomes. After a complete evaluation, term stillbirth remains unexplained about 30% of the time. The chance of finding a cause is impacted by the age of the foetus, the experience of the caregiver, and the thoroughness of the exam. Chromosome testing for aneuploidy should be offered for all stillbirths to confirm or to seek a cause of the stillbirth. Genetic amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling before delivery offers the highest yield.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Fetal urine production starts at what gestation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal urine production starts at what gestation?

      Your Answer: 12-16 weeks

      Correct Answer: 8-11 weeks

      Explanation:

      Fetal urine contributes significantly to amniotic fluid production in the second trimester of pregnancy. As early as 8-11 weeks, urine production begins and can be observed in the fetal bladder on ultrasound scans. The urine creates a hypotonic fluid which contains increasing concentrations of urea and creatinine. By term, a foetus produces about 800 ml of urine a day, of which 250ml is eliminated through fetal swallowing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Regarding congenital CMV infection, what percentage of infants are symptomatic? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding congenital CMV infection, what percentage of infants are symptomatic?

      Your Answer: <1%

      Correct Answer: 10-15%

      Explanation:

      Congenital cytomegalovirus infections are the most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss in babies. Cytomegalovirus infection during the perinatal period can be transferred to the foetus especially if the primary infection is during pregnancy. In babies born with congenital CMV about 10-15% are symptomatic, while 10-15% of those who are asymptomatic will develop symptoms in life. Some of the features of CMV infection include sensorineural hearing loss, visual impairment, cerebral palsy, microcephaly and seizures. Other causes of infective congenital sensorineural hearing loss include: Rubella, HIV, Herpes Simplex Virus, Measles, Varicella Zoster virus, Mumps and West Nile Virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 26-year-old woman, at 37 weeks and 2 days gestation and currently in...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman, at 37 weeks and 2 days gestation and currently in her second pregnancy, presents with a breech presentation. She previously delivered a baby girl weighing 3.8kg via spontaneous vaginal delivery at term. Ultrasound examination this time shows a breech presentation with extended legs. She wishes to deliver vaginally if it is possible.

      Which is the most appropriate next step to take?

      Your Answer: X-ray pelvimetry.

      Correct Answer: Await spontaneous onset of labour.

      Explanation:

      The most suitable step would be to wait for spontaneous onset of labour. This woman would be able to deliver vaginally in 3 situations. The first would be if the foetus is estimated to weigh less than 3800g (first child weight 3800g). Another would be if the foetus is in a frank or complete breech presentation and lastly if the rate of labour progress is satisfactory and breech extraction is unnecessary. RCOG (Royal College of Obstetricians & Gynaecologists) guidelines recommends that women should be informed that elective Caesarean section for the delivery of a breech baby would have a lower risk of perinatal mortality than a planned vaginal delivery. This is because with an elective Caesarean section, we would be able to avoid stillbirth following 39 weeks of gestation as well as intrapartum and vaginal breech delivery risks. The ideal mode of delivery of a breech foetus when labour starts or at least close to term is a Caesarean section as the risks towards the foetus would be significantly increased in a vaginal delivery. The obstetrician is responsible to ensure that there are no other abnormalities that could complicate this even further such as footling presentation, low estimated birth weight (less than 10th centile), hyperextended neck on ultrasound, evidence of fetal distress and high estimated birth weight (>3.8kg). Provided that there is a normal progression of events, fetal risks during both labour and delivery should be low if such factors are absent. Hence, it is right to await the onset of labour to occur spontaneously in this case. In order to exclude a knee presentation with fetal head extension or a footling breech, ultrasound examination has to be done. These are linked to a high fetal risk if the mother attempts vaginal delivery. X-ray pelvimetry is advisable but is not essential in fetal size assessment since its accuracy is roughly 20%. In this case, it is not indicated since there is evidence that her pelvis is of adequate size as she had already delivered a 3.9kg baby prior. It is best to avoid induction of labour in breech cases for numerous reasons (need for augmentation, cord prolapse).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      226.7
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures? ...

    Correct

    • The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament which forms the base of the triangle, medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus and laterally by the sartorius muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 34-year-old woman presents with a two-year history of secondary infertility.

    She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman presents with a two-year history of secondary infertility.

      She has a three year old child who was fathered by the same partner. This first child was conceived spontaneously and delivered normally following a short labour.

      Her medical history includes irregular menstrual cycles, with periods occurring every three to four months.

      A pelvic ultrasound reveals 15-20 small cysts (4- 6 mm in diameter) in each ovary.

      Semen analysis, of her partner, shows a sperm count of ten million per mL, with 50% motility and 30% abnormal forms.

      Which one of the following is the best next step to treat her infertility?

      Your Answer: In vitro fertilisation.

      Correct Answer: Treatment with metformin.

      Explanation:

      The clinical diagnosis of polycystic ovaries (PCO) is confirmed by the ultrasound. Therefore, the best next step to treat this woman’s infertility is to start treatment with metformin (correct answer). Patients with polycystic ovaries, frequently develop insulin resistance and metformin has been shown to be beneficial in this situation. Metformin treatment corrects any metabolic abnormalities and decreases insulin resistance resulting in a return of normal ovulatory menstrual cycles and a rapid improvement in fertility.

      Additional treatment with clomiphene citrate may be required in some patients but gonadotrophin therapy is no longer commonly used.

      Clomiphene citrate could also have been recommended as a possible next treatment option since the available data indicate that both clomiphene and metformin are equally effective.

      Laparoscopic ovarian drilling has been used previously to treat polycystic ovaries; however, it is only used nowadays when all other treatment methods have been ineffective.

      Similarly, gonadotrophin therapy or in vitro fertilisation would not be the best next step to treat the infertility and they are used when other treatment options have not provided the required results.

      Even though changes in the semen analysis have been noted since the first pregnancy was achieved, these are not likely to be the cause of the secondary infertility, particularly because the current semen analysis is not significantly abnormal. Therefore, it is unlikely that donor insemination would be needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      747
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Regarding amniotic fluid volume: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding amniotic fluid volume:

      Your Answer: Maybe predicted by ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Amniotic fluid can be measured with the help of ultrasound to gauge the amniotic fluid index. The normal value ranges between 8-18.
      Amniocentesis is a procedure by which amniotic fluid is removed. In rhesus disease, it appears yellow due to raised bilirubin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?

      Your Answer: Atrial depolarisation

      Explanation:

      P wave = Atrial depolarisation
      QRS complex = Ventricular depolarisation
      T wave = Ventricular repolarisation
      U wave = repolarisation of the interventricular septum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 48-year-old woman presented to you with a breast mass. On examination, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presented to you with a breast mass. On examination, it is hard, irregular and ill defined. The surface of the breast is slightly bruised however, there is no discharge. The most probable diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Ca breast

      Correct Answer: Fat necrosis

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis is often a result of a trauma or surgery. In fat necrosis the enzyme lipase releases fatty acids from triglycerides. The fatty acids combine with calcium to form soaps. These soaps appear as white chalky deposits which are firm lumps with no associated discharge. The given case has a bruise which indicates prior trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Bladder neck closure and relaxation of the bladder is mediated by? ...

    Incorrect

    • Bladder neck closure and relaxation of the bladder is mediated by?

      Your Answer: Parasympathetic Fibres S2, S3,S4

      Correct Answer: Sympathetic Fibres L1,L2

      Explanation:

      Remember SYMPATHETIC is STORAGE PARASYMPATHETIC is PEEING

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      65.4
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to the hands and soles of the feet. Examination reveals wart like lesions on the vagina and a diagnosis of condyloma latum is made. What stage of syphilis infection is this?

      Your Answer: Secondary

      Explanation:

      Condylomas are warty neoplasms of the vulvar area. The most common type are condyloma acuminatum which occur due to HPV 6 or 11. Condyloma latum are also known as secondary syphilis are less common. Both of these are sexually transmitted.

      Stages of Syphilis:
      – Primary 3-90 days
      Chancre and lymphadenopathy
      – Secondary 4-10 weeks
      Widespread rash typically affecting hands and soles of feet.
      Wart lesions (condyloma latum) of mucus membranes
      – Latent Early <1 yr. after secondary stage
      – Late >2 yr. after secondary stage
      Asymptomatic
      – Tertiary 3+ years after primary infection
      Gummas or
      Neurosyphilis or
      Cardiovascular syphilis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 26-year-old nulliparous woman admitted for term pregnancy with spontaneous labour shows no...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old nulliparous woman admitted for term pregnancy with spontaneous labour shows no changes after a six-hour observation period despite membrane rupture, syntocinon infusion, and epidural anaesthesia. Pelvic examination shows failure of the cervix to dilate beyond 4cm and fetal head palpated at level of ischial spine (IS). The patient is diagnosed with obstructed labour.

      Which of the following clinical features is mostly associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: The bony head is at the level of the ischial spines.

      Correct Answer: There is 4crn of head palpable abdominally.

      Explanation:

      The most consistent finding in obstructed labour is a 4cm head that is palpable on the abdomen. The bony part is usually palpated at the level of the ischial spine on pelvic examination.
      When prolonged labour is suspected, a pelvic vaginal examination helps to differentiate obstructed labour from inefficient/incoordinate labour.

      Findings in a pelvic examination:
      Obstructed labour
      moulding of fetal head ++
      caput formation on the fetal head ++
      cervical oedema – anterior lip oedema
      fetal tachycardia ++
      station of the head (relation to lowest part of ischial spines) – just at or above the IS
      amount of head palpable above the pelvic brim when the lowest point of the head is at the IS – > 2 finger breadths (FB)

      Inefficient or incoordinate labour
      moulding of fetal head usually none
      caput formation on fetal head +
      absent cervical oedema
      fetal tachycardia +
      station of the head (relation to lowest part of ischial spines) – can be above or below IS
      amount of head palpable above the pelvic brim when the lowest point of the head is at the IS – < 1 finger breadth (FB).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      181.5
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department for evaluation of vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department for evaluation of vaginal discharge.  She has had malodorous vaginal discharge and small amounts of vaginal bleeding for about a week. Her mother called the patient’s primary care provider and instructed to stop giving bubble baths to the child, however, the symptoms have not improved. Aside from the discharge, the girl is normal, she was toilet trained at age 2 and has had no episodes of incontinence.  She started kindergarten a month ago. Mother informed that patient has no fever, abdominal pain, or dysuria. 

      On examination, the labia appear normal but a purulent, malodorous vaginal discharge is noted.  Visual inspection with the child in knee-chest position shows a whitish foreign body inside the vaginal introitus. 

      Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Irrigate with warmed fluid after local anesthetic application

      Explanation:

      Vaginal spotting, malodorous vaginal discharge and no signs of trauma like lacerations are the clinical features of vaginal foreign bodies in prepubertal girls. The most common object found as foreign body is toilet paper and its management includes warm irrigation and vaginoscopy under sedation/anesthesia.

      Common cause of vulvovaginitis in prepubertal girls are vaginal foreign bodies. Although other objects like small toys, hair bands, etc can be occasionally found, the most common vaginal foreign body is toilet paper. Symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge, intermittent vaginal bleeding or spotting and urinary symptoms like dysuria are caused due to the chronic irritation caused by the foreign body (the whitish foreign body in this case) on the vaginal tissue.

      An external pelvic examination is performed with the girl in a knee-chest or frog-leg position in cases of suspected vaginal foreign body. An attempt at removal, after application of a topical anesthetic in the vaginal introitus, using vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or a swab can be done in case of an easily visualized small foreign body like toilet paper. In cases were the age of the girl or the type of foreign body prohibit adequate clinical evaluation the patient should be sedated or given a general anesthesia for examination using a vaginoscope and the foreign body should be removed.

      In cases where child abuse or neglect is suspected Child Protective Services should be contacted. Vaginal or rectal foreign bodies can be the initial presentation of sexual abuse; however in otherwise asymptomatic girls with no behavioral changes, urinary symptoms and vulvar or anal trauma, presence of toilet paper is not of an immediately concerning for abuse.

      To evaluate pelvic or ovarian masses CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis can be used; but it is not indicated in evaluation of a vaginal foreign body.

      Patients in there prepubertal age have a narrow vaginal introitus and sensitive hymenal tissue due to low estrogen levels, so speculum examinations should not be performed in such patients as it can result in significant discomfort and trauma.

      Topical estrogen can be used in the treatment of urethral prolapse, which is a cause of vaginal bleeding in prepubertal girls. This diagnosis is unlikely in this case as those with urethral prolapse will present with a beefy red protrusion at the urethra and not a material in the vagina.

      Prepubertal girls with retained toilet paper as a vaginal foreign body will present with symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge and vaginal spotting secondary to irritation. Initial management is topical anaesthetic application and removal of foreign body either by vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or removal with a swab.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal...

    Correct

    • What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal head during labour?

      Your Answer: Ischial Spine

      Explanation:

      The ischial spine is the anatomical landmark for assessing the station of the fetal head and also placing pudendal nerve blocks. (the pudendal nerve runs posterior to the ischial spine). The ischial spine can be palpated approximately 8cm into the vagina, at 4 and 8 o’clock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Which of the following studies is most appropriate to assess the efficacy of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following studies is most appropriate to assess the efficacy of a new medication to reduce pain caused by endometriosis?

      Your Answer: Randomised Control Trial

      Explanation:

      Randomized control trials are the gold standard when it comes to assessing the treatment options or interventions in medicine. Since its introduction, RCT has questioned the validity of treatments such as oral hypoglycaemic agents, myocardial infarction hospitalization, varicose veins, toxicity and applicability of many preventive and therapeutic procedures. The basic steps include drawing up the protocol, selecting a study population, randomization, intervention, follow up and assessment of the outcome. Note if assessing prognosis or diagnostic tests Cohort and Cross Sectional Analysis are best.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Your 64-year-old patient has come to you with a uterine prolapse complaint.

    Which...

    Correct

    • Your 64-year-old patient has come to you with a uterine prolapse complaint.

      Which of the following ligaments plays the most critical role in uterine prolapse pathophysiology?

      Your Answer: Uterosacral ligament

      Explanation:

      The uterus needs support in order to remain centered inside the pelvic cavity. The support it receives comes in two forms: dynamic and passive. The ligaments of the uterus have an important role in both.

      Dynamic support is provided by the pelvic diaphragm through tonic contractions while standing and sitting and active contractions during moments of increased abdominal pressure, such as coughing or sneezing. During these moments, the ligaments of the uterus transmit the force of the diaphragm towards the organ itself, maintaining its position.

      The ligaments are also crucial in providing passive support. By minimizing movement of the body and the cervix, they maintain the uterus in the typical anteverted and anteflexed position directly on top of the bladder. This provides a support for the uterus when the abdominal pressure increases.

      Hence, even though the broad ligament, round ligament and ovarian ligament have some role in the suspension of the uterus, the uterosacral ligament plays the most significant role. It is also the ligament used for surgical suspension of POP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - In girls what is the first sign of puberty? ...

    Correct

    • In girls what is the first sign of puberty?

      Your Answer: Breast development

      Explanation:

      The first sign of puberty in females is the development of breasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to conceive for the last 2 years. Pelvic ultrasound shows 3-4 follicles in both ovaries. An endocrinological profile is ordered showing low oestrogen, elevated FSH, and LH.
      What is the most suitable advice for her?

      Your Answer: In-vitro fertilization

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause has been diagnosed biochemically in this patient. Menopause is considered premature when it happens without warning in a woman under the age of 40.
      Follicular development is common in ultrasonography investigations of women with primary ovarian failure, but ovulation is rare. So this woman isn’t ovulating.

      Exogenous oestrogen treatment in physiologic amounts does not appear to improve the rate of spontaneous ovulation.
      Women with primary ovarian failure from any cause may be candidates for donor oocyte in vitro fertilisation (IVF).

      Oestrogens, clomiphene citrate, and danazol are examples of treatment approaches that have been shown to be ineffective in patients with premature ovarian failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on...

    Incorrect

    • In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 7 weeks

      Correct Answer: 5 weeks + 3 days

      Explanation:

      The gestational sac can be visualized from as early as 4–5 weeks of gestation and the yolk sac at about 5 weeks (Figure 6.3). The embryo can be observed and measured at 5–6 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 22 year old woman miscarries at 6 weeks gestation. At checkup, she...

    Correct

    • A 22 year old woman miscarries at 6 weeks gestation. At checkup, she shows no obvious signs of complication. What would you advise regarding further pregnancy testing?

      Your Answer: Urine pregnancy test in 3 weeks

      Explanation:

      In the management of a miscarriage, after the completion of 7-14 days of expectant management, the woman is advised to take a pregnancy test after 3 weeks. In case of a positive result she is to return for further care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Which of the following factors shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right?

      Your Answer: Increased [H+]

      Explanation:

      The following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right: Increased temperature Increased H+ (i.e. acidosis) Increased 2,3 DPG Increased pCO2 The following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the left: Increasing pCO shifts the curve to the left Decreased temperature Decreased [H+] (alkalosis) Decreased 2,3 DPG The Oxygen Dissociation Curve for fetal haemoglobin lies to the left of the normal adult Oxygen Dissociation Curve as it has a higher affinity for Oxygen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      114.7
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 52-year-old lady comes to your office with vaginal bleeding 7 hours after...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old lady comes to your office with vaginal bleeding 7 hours after sexual intercourse. She hasn't had a menstrual period in over a year. A year ago, she had a normal pap smear. She has no other symptoms and appears to be in good condition.

      Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this woman's postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Vaginal atrophy (thinning of vaginal tissue): Oestrogen helps to keep this tissue healthy. After menopause, low oestrogen levels can cause your vaginal walls to become thin, dry, and inflamed. That often leads to bleeding after sex.

      Vaginal atrophy is the most common cause of post menopausal vaginal bleeding.

      With a normal pap smear a year ago, this patient is unlikely to develop cervical cancer.

      Cervical ectropions are not common in post-menopausal women.

      Endometrial cancer and cervical polyps are possible causes of postcoital bleeding, however, they are not as common as vaginal atrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney? ...

    Correct

    • The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney?

      Your Answer: Renal Cortex

      Explanation:

      The juxtaglomerular apparatus is the main site for the production of renin. It plays an important role in the regulation of the blood pressure. These structures are mainly located in the cortex of the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to the proximal medial thigh following abdominal hysterectomy. You suspect genitofemoral nerve injury. What spinal segment(s) is the genitofemoral nerve derived from?

      Your Answer: L1,L2

      Explanation:

      The genitofemoral nerves takes its origin from the L1 and L2 spinal segments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 32-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation, who has been fine antenatally,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation, who has been fine antenatally, presented with a history of sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding, and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home.

      On examination, she is conscious and pale.
      Her vital signs include blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and a pulse rate of 115 beats per minute which is weak.
      Her abdomen is irregularly distended, with both shifting dullness and fluid thrill present. Fetal heart sounds are not audible.

      What will be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Uterine rupture

      Explanation:

      Patient’s presentation is classic for uterine rupture, were she developed sudden abdominal pain followed by cessation of contractions, termination of urge to push and vaginal bleeding.
      Abdominal examination shows no fetal cardiac activity and signs of fluid collection like fluid thrill and shifting dullness. The fluid collected will be blood, which usually enters the peritoneum after the rupture of the uterus. In such patients vaginal examination will reveal a range of cervical dilatation with evidences of cephalopelvic disproportion.
      Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site for spontaneous uterine rupture. Patient in the case presenting with tachycardia and hypotension is in shock due to blood loss and will require urgent resuscitation.

      Placenta previa presents with painless bleeding from the vagina and Placental abruption will present with painful vaginal bleeding with tender and tense uterine wall, however, in contrary to that of uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in both these cases.

      Shoulder dystocia is more likely to present in a prolonged labour with a significant delay in the progress of labour. However, in this case, there is no mention of shoulder dystocia.

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition which is causes due to abnormal and excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood which results in bleeding from every skin puncture sites. It results in increased platelet aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors which results in bleeding at some sites and thromboembolism at other sites. Placental abruption, or retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the causes for DIC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      62.6
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 38 year old women attends clinic follow up. You note pelvic ultrasound...

    Correct

    • A 38 year old women attends clinic follow up. You note pelvic ultrasound shows a 36mm simple cyst. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding this cyst according to the RCOG green top guidelines?

      Your Answer: Discharge with no follow up

      Explanation:

      As this is a simple cyst less than 50mm in diameter the patient does not require further investigation or routine follow up

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment ...

    Incorrect

    • The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment

      Your Answer: T12

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The T10 spinal segment provides the sympathetic nerve fibres that innervate the testes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 35-year-old female went to a contraception clinic because she does not want...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female went to a contraception clinic because she does not want to conceive for the next 2 years. She also has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic pain. Imaging revealed fibroids. What is the best method of contraception for the patient in this case?

      Your Answer: IUCD

      Correct Answer: IUS

      Explanation:

      IUS or Intra Uterine System/Device releases progestin. The progestin thickens the cervix, preventing the sperm from penetrating the cervix, and it also causes the uterine lining to become thinner, preventing any implantation. IUS may also prevent excessive bleeding and can help women with fibroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      62.4
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - You review a patient in the fertility clinic. The ultrasound and biochemical profile...

    Correct

    • You review a patient in the fertility clinic. The ultrasound and biochemical profile are consistent with PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. Which of the following is the most appropriate first line treatment?

      Your Answer: Clomiphene

      Explanation:

      Clomiphene and/or Metformin are 1st line agents. Weight loss in the setting of subfertility is advised if BMI >30 kg/m2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 37-year-old woman visits your office seeking oral contraceptive guidance. She is currently...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman visits your office seeking oral contraceptive guidance. She is currently taking Microgynon 30 and is pleased with the results. She is married with two children, does not smoke, and is in good health.

      Her blood pressure is 150/100mmHg, according to your examination. The blood pressure remains the same after 20 minutes.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Start her on progestogen-only pills (POPs)

      Explanation:

      The progestogen-only pill (POP) is a contraceptive option for women who have high blood pressure either induced by use of combined oral pills or due to other causes; as long as it is well controlled and monitored. Combined oral contraception (COC) and Depo-Provera have been implicated in increased cardiovascular risk following use. High blood pressure has been theorized to be the critical path that leads to this increased risk. POP is the recommended method for women who are at risk of coronary heart disease due to presence of risk factors like hypertension.

      Stopping OCP will risk in the patient getting pregnant. Cessation of oestrogen usually reverses the blood pressure back to normal, Hence, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      63.3
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with severe abdominal pain and per vaginal bleeding. On examination there was tenderness over her left iliac region. Her pulse rate was 110 bpm and blood pressure was 90/65mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Immediate laparotomy

      Explanation:

      A ruptured ectopic pregnancy is the most probable diagnosis. As she is in shock (tachycardia and hypotension) immediate laparotomy is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      72.6
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - What is the inferior border of the deep perineal pouch? ...

    Correct

    • What is the inferior border of the deep perineal pouch?

      Your Answer: Perineal membrane

      Explanation:

      The perineal membrane is a tough fascial sheet that attaches to the sides of the urogenital triangle. it forms the inferior border of the deep pouch which lies between this and the levator ani and the superior border of the superficial pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - The source of progesterone that maintains the pregnancy during early 1st trimester: ...

    Correct

    • The source of progesterone that maintains the pregnancy during early 1st trimester:

      Your Answer: Corpus luteum

      Explanation:

      In early pregnancy Progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum.. This organ is fundamental for pregnancy maintenance until the placenta (syncytiotrophoblast) takes over its function at the 7-9th week of gestation, just after the expression of major histocompatibility complex antigens is suppressed in extra-embryonic fetal tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - Which of the following regarding the use of tocolytics is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following regarding the use of tocolytics is true?

      Your Answer: The purchase price of atosiban is approximately twice that of nifedipine

      Correct Answer: Use of a tocolytic drug is not associated with a clear reduction in perinatal or neonatal mortality, or neonatal morbidity

      Explanation:

      Tocolytics are used to suppress contractions. The Canadian preterm labour trial which remains a very influential tocolytic trial to date concluded that tocolytics such as a beta agonist have no significant benefit on perinatal mortality or morbidity or prolong pregnancy to term however it did reduce the number of women delivering within 2 days by 40%. This 48 hour window is the only reason for the use of tocolytics.
      Choice of tocolytic (NICE)
      1st line: Nifedipine
      2nd line: Oxytocin receptor antagonists e.g. atosiban

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      89.8
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in her underpants one day prior to consultation. Her mother reports that the girl started cycling lessons one week ago. How will you proceed with the investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Local Examination

      Correct Answer: Examination under Anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      A local exam might not help in locating the cause of the bleeding because it might be underneath the superficial structures. A thorough examination should be done under GA to accurately locate the source of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long? ...

    Incorrect

    • Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long?

      Your Answer: 12-24 hours

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Afterpains may continue for 2-3 days (so none of the above). Breastfeeding may intensify pain due to stimulation of Oxytocin which causes uterine contractions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Amongst women with a diagnosis of Gonorrhoea, what percentage will develop pelvic inflammatory...

    Correct

    • Amongst women with a diagnosis of Gonorrhoea, what percentage will develop pelvic inflammatory disease?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted diplococcus bacteria known to infect the female genital tract, which can cause an ascending infection in the uterus and fallopian tubes. About 15 percent of women with this infection may develop pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which poses risks of long term consequences: ectopic pregnancy, infertility and chronic pelvic pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      23
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (12/20) 60%
Physiology (7/8) 88%
Obstetrics (16/22) 73%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Embryology (2/3) 67%
Clinical Management (9/13) 69%
Anatomy (9/11) 82%
Biochemistry (2/4) 50%
Data Interpretation (2/2) 100%
Genetics (2/3) 67%
Epidemiology (2/2) 100%
Microbiology (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology (3/4) 75%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Biophysics (1/2) 50%
Passmed