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  • Question 1 - A 52-year-old female patient on HRT for the past two years wonders how...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old female patient on HRT for the past two years wonders how often she should have breast cancer screenings.

      Which of the following responses is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Mammogram every two years until the age of 70

      Explanation:

      Some confusion regarding breast cancer screening arose in 2009 when the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) issued new mammogram guidelines. The task force recommended that screening mammograms be conducted every two years, beginning at age 50, for women with an average risk of breast cancer. For women aged 40 to 49, the decision of whether to have annual mammograms should be based on a patient’s consideration of risks vs. benefits, according to the task force.

      There is no evidence that frequent screening for women on HRT helps with early detection of malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15
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  • Question 2 - Due to her inability to conceive, a 28-year-old nulligravid lady comes to the...

    Correct

    • Due to her inability to conceive, a 28-year-old nulligravid lady comes to the office with her husband. The patient and her spouse had been having intercourse every other day since they stopped using barrier contraception a year ago. Every 28 days, the patient experiences a 5-day period with two days of high flow. She has transient pelvic pain 14 days after her menstruation begins, but intercourse is painless.

      The patient was admitted to the hospital in her late teens for a pelvic infection, and she had discomfort with intercourse, discharge, and fever during her stay. She hasn't had any previous medical or surgical procedures. Her younger sibling suffers from polycystic ovarian syndrome. The patient's husband is 32 years old, has no children, and a normal semen analysis. The patient has a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 86 beats per minute. There are no anomalies on physical examination.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer: Hysterosalpingogram

      Explanation:

      Primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected, timed sexual intercourse in a nulliparous patient under the age of 35. (After 35 years of age, infertility testing can begin after 6 months.) Because the patient’s partner’s sperm analysis is normal, female factor infertility is the most likely explanation. This patient’s adolescent hospitalizations are likely due to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a common cause of infertility caused by tubal scarring and blockage.

      A hysterosalpingogram, which includes infusing radiocontrast into the cervix under fluoroscopy, is the first-line imaging technique for determining fallopian tube patency. A hysterosalpingogram is a non-invasive procedure that can detect uterine cavity irregularities (e.g., bicornuate uterus).

      Peritoneal adhesions and endometriosis can be seen and treated directly using laparoscopy.

      PID-related scarring inside the fallopian tubes can be assessed by laparoscopy with chromotubation; however, it is invasive, expensive, and not utilized first-line.

      Ovulation is detected using a mid-cycle LH level. The LH surge can be detected in urine and serum 36 hours before ovulation. Regular menstrual periods are characterized by mittelschmerz (mid-cycle pelvic pain), which indicates ovulation. As a result, an LH level would be useless.

      Ovarian reserve begins to deteriorate around the age of 35, and serum FSH levels rise in women who are losing their ability to ovulate. Because this patient is much younger and has regular periods, a drop in ovum quantity is unlikely to be the reason for infertility.

      Increased serum androgen levels can prevent ovulation by inhibiting the release of GnRH and FSH through feedback inhibition. The patient has regular cycles and no hyperandrogenic symptoms, despite her sister having polycystic ovarian syndrome (e.g., hirsutism, irregular menses).

      In a nulliparous patient under the age of 35, primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected sexual intercourse. A hysterosalpingogram is used to determine the cause of infertility, such as tubal blockage caused by a previous pelvic infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - Which is a false statement about endometriosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which is a false statement about endometriosis?

      Your Answer: The usual delay in diagnosis is 8 to 10 months with onset in adolescence

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is found in about one-third of women undergoing laparoscopy for chronic pelvic pain. Published studies show a diagnostic delay of 8.5 years from onset of symptoms to the eventual diagnosis of endometriosis!

      This means that women can suffer for 8.5 years before a diagnosis of endometriosis is made, and appropriate interventions are carried out.

      All other options are true statements about endometriosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.7
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  • Question 4 - A 51-year-old woman comes to your doctor's office for a breast cancer screening....

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old woman comes to your doctor's office for a breast cancer screening. For the past year, she has been on combination hormone replacement treatment (HRT). Mammography is the sole accessible form of breast cancer screening, and she is predicted to have dense breast tissue due to HRT.

      Which of the following is the best HRT and breast cancer screening suggestion for this patient?

      Your Answer: Continue HRT and perform mammography as recommended for other women

      Explanation:

      Among a variety of imaging modalities developed for breast cancer screening, mammography is the best-studied and the only imaging technique that has been shown to decrease mortality as demonstrated in multiple randomized trials. However, it is important to know that, even in the best circumstances, mammography may miss up to 20 percent of underlying breast cancers.

      Women on HRT are likely to have dense breast. Dense breasts are associated with an increased risk of breast cancer and can decrease the sensitivity of mammography for small lesions. Nevertheless, we do not alter our general approach to age- and risk-based screening based on breast density. However, for women with dense breasts, we do prefer digital mammography over film mammography, due to greater sensitivity; digital mammography is the modality typically used for mammography in most locations in the United States.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.7
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  • Question 5 - A 37-year-old woman visits your office seeking oral contraceptive guidance. She is currently...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman visits your office seeking oral contraceptive guidance. She is currently taking Microgynon 30 and is pleased with the results. She is married with two children, does not smoke, and is in good health.

      Her blood pressure is 150/100mmHg, according to your examination. The blood pressure remains the same after 20 minutes.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Start her on progestogen-only pills (POPs)

      Explanation:

      The progestogen-only pill (POP) is a contraceptive option for women who have high blood pressure either induced by use of combined oral pills or due to other causes; as long as it is well controlled and monitored. Combined oral contraception (COC) and Depo-Provera have been implicated in increased cardiovascular risk following use. High blood pressure has been theorized to be the critical path that leads to this increased risk. POP is the recommended method for women who are at risk of coronary heart disease due to presence of risk factors like hypertension.

      Stopping OCP will risk in the patient getting pregnant. Cessation of oestrogen usually reverses the blood pressure back to normal, Hence, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - An 18 year old and has yet to begin her period. She stands...

    Correct

    • An 18 year old and has yet to begin her period. She stands at 4'10. She shows no signs of breast development. She has no pubic hair on pelvic examination. The patient has a cervix and uterus, according to digital inspection. The ovaries cannot be felt. Serum FSH and LH levels are drawn as part of the workup, and both are elevated. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's delayed puberty and sexual infantilism?

      Your Answer: Gonadal dysgenesis

      Explanation:

      In girls, delayed puberty and primary amenorrhea may be subdivided according to associated changes in stature. If the affected girl is short, the likely causes are gonadal dysgenesis (Turner syndrome) or hypopituitarism (with both gonadotropin and growth hormone deficiency). Gonadal dysgenesis results from the absence of a sex chromosome or other abnormality of a sex chromosome. In affected girls the gonads are streaks of fibrous tissue and contain no follicles, and these girls may have a variety of congenital anomalies, including a webbed neck, a shieldlike chest, or a small jaw.

      Kallmann syndrome presents with amenorrhea, infantile sexual development, low gonadotropins, normal female karyotype, and anosmia (the inability to perceive odours).

      In Müllerian agenesis, the Müllerian ducts either fail to develop or regress early in fetal life. These patients have normal ovarian development and normal secondary sexual characteristics. They present with a blind vaginal pouch and no upper vagina, cervix, or uterus, and primary amenorrhea.

      The McCune-Albright syndrome rather presents with precocious puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk...

    Correct

    • Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk of developing endometrial carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Explanation:

      The factor associated with the greatest relative risk for endometrial carcinoma is polycystic ovary syndrome, which has a relative risk of 75. The use of long-term high doses of postmenopausal oestrogen carries an estimated risk of 10-20. Living in North America or Europe also has an estimated risk of 10-20.

      A lower relative risk is associated with nulliparity, obesity, infertility, late menopause, older age, and white race- The relative risk associated with these factors falls into the range of 2-5. Early menarche, higher education or income levels, menstrual irregularities, and a history of diabetes, hypertension, gall bladder disease, or thyroid disease have a relative risk of around 1.5-2.0.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      6.9
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  • Question 8 - A 44-year-old woman underwent a cervical screening test at your clinic a week ago...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old woman underwent a cervical screening test at your clinic a week ago revealing Invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
      What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Refer to a gynaecologist at tertiary hospital

      Explanation:

      If a cervical screening test reveals invasive squamous cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma, refer the patient to a gynaecologist at a tertiary hospital right once for further treatment.
      Colposcopy at a GP practice is not appropriate in these situations. When it comes to the prospect of cancer, reassurance isn’t enough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.5
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  • Question 9 - A 24-year-old college student comes to your clinic for contraception guidance. For the...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old college student comes to your clinic for contraception guidance. For the past three months, she has had migraine-like headaches once or twice a month. For the past two years, she has been taking combined oral contraceptive pills.

      Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Stopping the combined oral contraceptive pills and starting progesterone only pills (POP)

      Explanation:

      Combined oral contraceptives are a safe and highly effective method of birth control, but they can also raise problems of clinical tolerability and/or safety in migraine patients. It is now commonly accepted that, in migraine with aura, the use of combined oral contraceptives is always contraindicated, and that their intake must also be suspended by patients suffering from migraine without aura if aura symptoms appear.

      Discontinuation of contraception could risk in pregnancy. Barrier methods can be used but aren’t as effective as pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15.2
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  • Question 10 - You are asked to consult on a young woman with a pre-existing cardiac...

    Correct

    • You are asked to consult on a young woman with a pre-existing cardiac defect. She wants to become pregnant in the near future and seeks advice about what risks to her health that this will create. You tell that the highest maternal mortality rates are associated with which of the following cardiac defects:

      Your Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome

      Explanation:

      Eisenmenger’s syndrome is one where there is communication between the systemic and pulmonary system, along with increased pulmonary vascular resistance, either to systemic level or above systemic level (right to left shunt). A would-be mother must be informed that to become pregnant would incur a 50% risk of dying. Even if she survives, fetal mortality approaches 50% as well.

      – Severe symptomatic aortic stenosis has a mortality in pregnancy of about 20%. Prevention of reduction in preload is necessary in all obstructive cardiac lesions. Balloon valvuloplasty can be done in pregnancy.
      – Due to the increased blood volume and cardiac output in pregnancy, mitral stenosis can lead to severe pulmonary oedema. Balloon valvuloplasty can be done in pregnancy.
      – Ebstein anomaly is a malformation of the tricuspid valve- It is usually not associated with maternal mortality.
      – Atrial-septal defects rarely cause complications in pregnancy, labour, or delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      2.8
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  • Question 11 - There are increasing rates of pregnancies among teenagers especially in low socioeconomic rural...

    Correct

    • There are increasing rates of pregnancies among teenagers especially in low socioeconomic rural areas.

      What is the contraception method of choice for teenagers with high risk of unplanned pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine Contraceptive Device

      Explanation:

      The use of long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) is globally accepted as a strategy that is successful in decreasing rates of unintended pregnancy, especially in very young women.
      Long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) are defined as any contraceptive that requires administration less than once per cycle (i.e. per month). This includes copper and progestogen-only intrauterine devices (IUDs), and progestogen subdermal implants and injections. However, subdermal implants and IUDs, which have a life of at least three years, have superior efficacy over injections, which require administration every three months. Implants and IUDs are highly cost-effective when compared with other contraceptive methods.

      LARCs are widely recommended by professional bodies and the World Health Organization (WHO) as first-line contraception for young women as they are safe, effective and reversible. Young women should be offered the choice of a LARC as part of a fully informed decision for their first form of contraception.

      LARCs surpass barrier methods and contraceptive pills in effectiveness and safety therefore all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband,...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband, presents to your hospital with amenorrhea lasting two months. She is currently taking clozapine with appropriate control of her symptoms.

      Which of the following is the most crucial step in management?

      Your Answer: Urine pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea worldwide. As a result, the first thing to check in every woman of reproductive age who has amenorrhea is a urine pregnancy test.
      Once pregnancy has been ruled out, an ultrasound or measuring FSH and LH may be done to assess the condition (if required).
      FBC is used to track clozapine side effects such as neutropenia and agranulocytosis. It is not recommended for the assessment of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - What is the Gold standard investigation to diagnose abnormal uterine bleeding? ...

    Correct

    • What is the Gold standard investigation to diagnose abnormal uterine bleeding?

      Your Answer: Hysteroscopy along with dilatation and curettage

      Explanation:

      During the last decade hysteroscopy has become the tool of choice for the evaluation of the endometrial cavity, including for assessment of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB). Many clinicians would consider that, in most patients, the combination of transvaginal sonography and out-patient endometrial biopsy with diagnostic hysteroscopy could replace the need for dilation and curettage. Hysteroscopy was reported to have sensitivity, specificity, negative predictive value and positive predictive value of 94.2, 88.8, 96.3 and 83.1% respectively, in predicting normal or abnormal endometrial histopathology.

      The highest accuracy of hysteroscopy was in diagnosing endometrial polyps, whereas the worst result was in estimating hyperplasia. Therefore, since the incidence of focal lesions in patients with AUB is high, it seems that the most beneficial approach is to proceed with hysteroscopy complemented by endometrial biopsy early in the assessment of AUB.

      Transabdominal and transvaginal ultrasounds can be used but are inferior to hysteroscopy.

      Coagulation profile can only diagnose possible coagulopathies and pregnancy test can only diagnose pregnancy. All other causes can not be identified with these laboratory investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      4.7
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  • Question 14 - You're assessing a 34-year-old lady who suffers from chronic pelvic pain. She experiences...

    Correct

    • You're assessing a 34-year-old lady who suffers from chronic pelvic pain. She experiences cyclic pain, mostly throughout her premenstrual and menstrual periods. She has been trying for 15 months to conceive without luck. Her pelvic check-up comes out normal.

      Which of the following tests would be most useful in diagnosing the source of her pain and planning preoperative disease staging?

      Your Answer: MRI

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is a chronic gynaecological condition affecting women of reproductive age and may cause pelvic pain and infertility. It is characterized by the growth of functional ectopic endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus and includes three different manifestations: ovarian endometriomas, peritoneal implants, deep pelvic endometriosis. The primary locations are in the pelvis; extra pelvic endometriosis may rarely occur.

      Diagnosis requires a combination of clinical history, invasive and non-invasive techniques. The definitive diagnosis is based on laparoscopy with histological confirmation. Diagnostic imaging is necessary for treatment planning. MRI is as a second-line technique after ultrasound. The MRI appearance of endometriotic lesions is variable and depends on the quantity and age of haemorrhage, the amount of endometrial cells, stroma, smooth muscle proliferation and fibrosis. The purpose of surgery is to achieve complete resection of all endometriotic lesions in the same operation.

      Owing to the possibility to perform a complete assessment of all pelvic compartments at one time, MRI represents the best imaging technique for preoperative staging of endometriosis, in order to choose the more appropriate surgical approach and to plan a multidisciplinary team work.

      Though ESR maybe elevated due to the presence of inflammation, it is not specific for endometriosis and has no role in preoperative staging. The same holds true for any possible CBC finding.

      Transvaginal ultrasound is preferred for diagnosis but doesn’t aid in preoperative staging of endometriosis.

      CA125 values are elevated in severe infiltrative endometriosis but unchanged in mild disease. Relaying on CA125 cause a high rate of false negatives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 39 years old female patient comes to your office seeking contraceptive advice....

    Correct

    • A 39 years old female patient comes to your office seeking contraceptive advice. She is a cigarette smoker. W

      hat would you advice her?

      Your Answer: Progesterone only pills

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications to OCs include breast cancer, history of deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, active liver disease, use of rifampicin, familial hyperlipidaemia, previous arterial thrombosis, and pregnancy, while relative contraindications include smoking, age over 35, hypertension, breastfeeding, and irregular spontaneous menstruation.

      Progestin only pills are the safest and most effective contraceptive methods than the rest of the options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has a BMI of 24. Her FSH level is 55 U/L (2-8 U/L in luteal phase; >25 U/L in menopause), LH is 54 U/L, and oestradiol is low, according to laboratory tests. The level of serum prolactin is likewise normal. Her urine pregnancy test came out negative.

      Each ovary had 3-4 cysts on ultrasonography. She hopes to get pregnant in the near future.

      Which of the following would be the best treatment option for her condition?

      Your Answer: Menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

      Explanation:

      Ovarian insufficiency is a failure of the ovary to function adequately in a woman younger than 40 years, in its role either as an endocrine organ or as a reproductive organ. In women aged 40 years or older, the expected physiologic decline of ovarian function that takes place with aging is termed perimenopause or the menopausal transition.
      Medical treatment of patients with primary ovarian insufficiency should address the following aspects:

      Ovarian hormone replacement
      Restoration of fertility
      Psychological well-being of the patient

      It is not appropriate to give this patient contraceptive pills since she desires pregnancy.

      There is no evidence that Danazol or Metformin would improve ovarian follicle function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old woman has a vaginal discharge with pH <4.5 and a very...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman has a vaginal discharge with pH <4.5 and a very foul smell. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite. In women, trichomoniasis can cause a foul-smelling vaginal discharge which might be white, grey, yellow or green, genital itching and painful urination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A woman visited the OPD with complaints of severe abdominal pain and light-headedness....

    Incorrect

    • A woman visited the OPD with complaints of severe abdominal pain and light-headedness. There is history of fainting three days prior to consultation. She also has vaginal bleeding. In this case, which of the following investigations should be ordered to reach the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Beta HCG

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Testing for beta hCG should be the first test in this case. It will rule out any pregnancy that is strongly suspected based on the patient’s history and physical examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 19 - A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her pregnancy. Pap smear reveals that she has HSIL. What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) on cervical cytology should be evaluated with colposcopy. Principles of management of pregnant women include the following:
      – An immediate diagnostic excisional procedure should NOT be performed.
      – When colposcopy is performed during pregnancy:
      – Endocervical sampling with a curette and endometrial sampling should NOT be performed, as there is a risk of disturbing the pregnancy; however, the endocervical canal may be sampled gently with a cytobrush.
      – Cervical biopsy should be performed only if a lesion is present that appears to be high grade or suspicious for cancer.
      – If the examination is unsatisfactory, repeating the colposcopy after 6 to 12 weeks should allow visualization of the entire squamocolumnar junction.

      There is no indication for inducing abortion or performing a hysterectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old female presented with a lump in the upper outer quadrant of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female presented with a lump in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast, which is 1.5cm in size and tender. What is the initial investigation to be done?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Tenderness is usually suggestive of a benign breast mass such as a breast abscess. Ultrasound is used to distinguish solid from cystic structures and to direct needle aspiration for abscess drainage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has...

    Correct

    • You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has one-sided pain that is widespread and mild, but can be intense at times. Menstruation has been regular. She denies having fever.

      With the exception of a smooth movable adnexal mass on the right side, her pelvic examination seems normal.

      Which of the following is the most likely reason for your discomfort?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cyst

      Explanation:

      An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign. Most patients with ovarian cysts are asymptomatic, with the cysts being discovered incidentally during ultrasonography or routine pelvic examination. Some cysts, however, may be associated with a range of symptoms, sometimes severe, including the following:

      Pain or discomfort in the lower abdomen

      Severe pain from torsion (twisting) or rupture – Cyst rupture is characterized by sudden, sharp, unilateral pelvic pain; this can be associated with trauma, exercise, or coitus. Cyst rupture can lead to peritoneal signs, abdominal distention, and bleeding (which is usually self-limited)
      Discomfort with intercourse, particularly deep penetration
      Changes in bowel movements such as constipation
      Pelvic pressure causing tenesmus or urinary frequency
      Menstrual irregularities
      Precocious puberty and early menarche in young children
      Abdominal fullness and bloating
      Indigestion, heartburn, or early satiety
      Endometriomas – These are associated with endometriosis, which causes a classic triad of painful and heavy periods and dyspareunia
      Tachycardia and hypotension – These may result from haemorrhage caused by cyst rupture
      Hyperpyrexia – This may result from some complications of ovarian cysts, such as ovarian torsion
      Adnexal or cervical motion tenderness

      Underlying malignancy may be associated with early satiety, weight loss
      achexia, lymphadenopathy, or shortness of breath related to ascites or pleural effusion

      The absence of fever or vaginal discharge rules out PID

      The absence of pain on the right lower quadrant, fever, nausea and vomiting rule out appendicitis.

      The patient has regular menses, no vaginal bleeding no signs of shock that rules out ectopic pregnancy.

      her symptoms are also not consistent with the presentation of leiomyoma. Leiomyoma presents with enlarged uterus, pelvic pressure. It early causes pain when it is complicated with red degeneration which usually occurs in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old female, expecting twins, complains of decreased fetal movements in her 40th...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female, expecting twins, complains of decreased fetal movements in her 40th week of gestation. An hour ago, she experienced constant abdominal pain for an hour and passed blood in her urine. What is the next best investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Cardiotocograph

      Explanation:

      Cardiotocography (CTG) helps to record the heartbeat of the foetus in parallel to measuring the contractions of the mother’s uterus, this is the most appropriate tool to assess this patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - A 36-year-old woman is being tested for a breast tumour she discovered last...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman is being tested for a breast tumour she discovered last week during a routine physical examination. Two years ago, the patient had bilateral reduction mammoplasty for breast hyperplasia. Her paternal grandmother died of breast cancer at the age of 65, thus she doesn't take any drugs or have any allergies.

      A fixed lump in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast is palpated during a breast examination. In the upper outer quadrant of the right breast, mammography reveals a 3 × 3-cm spiculated tumour with coarse calcifications. A hyperechoic mass can be seen on ultrasonography of the breast. The mass is removed with concordant pathologic findings, and a core biopsy reveals foamy macrophages and fat globules.

      Which of the following is the best plan of action for this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Reassurance and routine follow-up

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis is a benign (non-cancerous) breast condition that can develop when an area of fatty breast tissue is injured. It can also develop after breast surgery or radiation treatment.

      There are different stages of fat necrosis. As the fat cells die, they release their contents, forming a sac-like collection of greasy fluid called an oil cyst. Over time, calcifications (small deposits of calcium) can form around the walls of the cyst, which can often be seen on mammograms. As the body continues to repair the damaged breast tissue, it’s usually replaced by denser scar tissue. Oil cysts and areas of fat necrosis can form a lump that can be felt, but it usually doesn’t hurt. The skin around the lump might look thicker, red, or bruised. Sometimes these changes can be hard to tell apart from cancers on a breast exam or even a mammogram. If this is the case, a breast biopsy (removing all or part of the lump to look at the tissue under the microscope) might be needed to find out if the lump contains cancer cells. These breast changes do not affect your risk for breast cancer.

      Mastectomy, axillary node dissection and radiation therapy are all management options for malignancy which this patient doesn’t have.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - Which is the most useful tumour marker for monitoring of ovarian cancer patients?...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most useful tumour marker for monitoring of ovarian cancer patients?

      Your Answer: CA 125

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      CA-125 has found application as a tumour marker or biomarker that may be elevated in the blood of some patients with specific types of cancers, or other conditions that are benign. Increased level of CA125 appears in fifty percent of stage 1 ovarian cancer patients and more than 90% with stages 2-4 ovarian cancer. CA-125 is therefore a useful tool for detecting ovarian cancer after the onset of symptoms as well as monitoring response to treatment and for predicting a patient’s prognosis after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 25 - A 33-year-old female presents with 3 months of irregular vaginal bleeding. Prior to...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old female presents with 3 months of irregular vaginal bleeding. Prior to this her menstrual periods were normal.

      Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial laboratory test for this patient?

      Your Answer: hCG

      Explanation:

      In women of childbearing age, the most likely cause of abnormal vaginal bleeding is pregnancy; thus, the most appropriate initial test would be an hCG level. Once pregnancy has been excluded, patient history would guide further testing. Iatrogenic causes, usually resulting from certain medicines or supplements, are the next most common cause in this age group, followed by systemic disorders. Haemoglobin and haematocrit would be appropriate only if the patient seemed acutely anaemic due to the abnormal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 26 - A mother brought her 3-year-old daughter to the doctor with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A mother brought her 3-year-old daughter to the doctor with a complaint of vulval pruritus. On examination, the vulval region has a well-defined white plaque with a wrinkled surface and scattered telangiectasia. The diagnosis of lichen sclerosis was confirmed by histopathology.

      Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Potent topical steroids

      Explanation:

      Lichen sclerosis (LS) is a benign, chronic, progressive dermatologic condition characterized by marked inflammation, epithelial thinning, and distinctive dermal changes accompanied by symptoms of pruritus and pain.

      Topical corticosteroids are the mainstay of therapy. Intralesional corticosteroid therapy is an additional option that is useful for the treatment of thick hypertrophic plaques that topical corticosteroids may not penetrate adequately.

      Antibiotics or antifungals have no role in the treatment of LS since it’s not an infection.
      Since histological diagnosis has already been made, there is no need to refer to dermatologist.
      Surgical intervention is indicated for treatment of complications like adhesion and scarring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 73-year-old woman presents with a complaint of blood-stained vaginal discharge.

    On speculum...

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old woman presents with a complaint of blood-stained vaginal discharge.

      On speculum examination, her ectocervix and vagina show signs of atrophy.

      No evidence of malignant cells is seen on cervical cytology, although no endocervical cells were visualised.

      Choose the most suitable next step for management of this patient.

      Your Answer: Hysteroscopy and dilatation and curettage

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic hysteroscopy with dilatation and curettage (D&C) is the most suitable step for immediate management of this patient (correct answer). This would aid in determining if an endometrial lesion exists and enable histologic examination of any endometrium that may be present.
      Assessment of endometrial thickness via ultrasound examination is commonly used to decide if a patient requires D&C. In postmenopausal women, an endometrial thickness of more than 4mm indicates need for D&C.

      However, this method is more beneficial in younger postmenopausal women. In women who are 70 years or older, postmenopausal bleeding should be considered to be due to a malignancy until confirmed otherwise.

      In this patient, a vaginal swab for culture or a colposcopy would not be appropriate.

      Similarly, laparoscopy is not indicated unless the bleeding continued despite a normal hysteroscopy and D&C.

      If the endometrial thickness is less than 4mm, a malignancy is less likely to be present; however, the risk cannot be completely excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients...

    Incorrect

    • As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients at the OBGYN department. You have become an expert in diagnosing endometriosis early.

      Which would you say is the most common symptom of endometriosis?

      Your Answer: Painful abdominal bloating

      Correct Answer: Dysmenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      The following are the most common symptoms for endometriosis, but each woman may experience symptoms differently or some may not exhibit any symptoms at all. Symptoms of endometriosis may include:

      Pain, especially excessive menstrual cramps that may be felt in the abdomen or lower back
      Pain during intercourse
      Abnormal or heavy menstrual flow
      Infertility
      Painful urination during menstrual periods
      Painful bowel movements during menstrual periods
      Other gastrointestinal problems, such as diarrhoea, constipation and/or nausea

      All options can be symptoms of endometriosis but the commonest one is dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 33 year old lady presented with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding. She...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old lady presented with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding. She is otherwise well and her US abdomen is normal. What is the best treatment option?

      Your Answer: Mirena coil

      Explanation:

      Mirena coil is used for contraception and for long term birth control. It causes stoppage of menstrual bleeding however, in a few cases there may be inter-menstrual spotting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old woman complains of a lump in her right breast after a...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman complains of a lump in her right breast after a history of trauma to her right breast 2 weeks ago. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis may occur following a traumatic injury to the breast. The lump is usually firm, round, and painless.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      6.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (27/30) 90%
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