-
Question 1
Correct
-
Which of the following is the best example of a leading question?
Your Answer: So, when you took the overdose you didn't want to die, did you?
Explanation:Techniques for Conducting Effective Interviews: Avoiding Leading Questions
One technique to avoid when conducting interviews is the use of leading questions. These are questions that suggest a particular answer of response, and can result in inaccurate of biased information. Instead, interviewers should strive to ask open-ended questions that allow the respondent to provide their own thoughts and opinions. By avoiding leading questions, interviewers can gather more reliable and unbiased information from their subjects. Additionally, interviewers should be mindful of their tone and body language, as these can also influence the responses they receive. Overall, effective interviewing requires careful preparation and a focus on creating a comfortable and open environment for the respondent.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 12-year-old child has several tics. What is a characteristic symptom of Tourette's syndrome?
Your Answer: Vocal tics
Explanation:Tourette’s syndrome, also known as combined vocal and motor tic disorder, is characterized by multiple motor tics and one of more vocal tics. Inattention may be present but is not a defining symptom. Coprophagia, of the act of eating feces, is not associated with Tourette’s syndrome and is more commonly seen in individuals with learning difficulties of chronic psychotic disorders. Glossolalia, of speaking in tongues, is not related to psychopathology and is not a feature of Tourette’s syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Which of the following is not a recognized symptom associated with hyponatremia?
Your Answer: Chest pain
Explanation:Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients
Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man is experiencing constant fatigue, sadness, and tearfulness, as well as poor sleep. These symptoms have been present for the past six months. He recently lost his father, which has made things worse. He has lost interest in socializing, work, and sex, and feels guilty for not being able to feel happy despite having a good job and a supportive family. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Postpartum depression
Explanation:It is highly probable that the individual is experiencing postpartum depression, as all the symptoms are characteristic and have manifested within a year of giving birth. While the ‘baby blues’ is a brief and immediate response, postnatal depression typically develops within two to three months after delivery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
In which mode of inheritance do typically both parents carry a heterozygous unaffected genotype?
Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Inheritance Patterns:
Autosomal Dominant Conditions:
– Can be transmitted from one generation to the next (vertical transmission) through all forms of transmission observed (male to male, male to female, female to female).
– Males and females are affected in equal proportions.
– Usually, one parent is an affected heterozygote and the other is an unaffected homozygote.
– If only one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance that a child will inherit the mutated gene.Autosomal Recessive Conditions:
– Males and females are affected in equal proportions.
– Two copies of the gene must be mutated for a person to be affected.
– Both parents are usually unaffected heterozygotes.
– Two unaffected people who each carry one copy of the mutated gene have a 25% chance with each pregnancy of having a child affected by the disorder.X-linked Dominant Conditions:
– Males and females are both affected, with males typically being more severely affected than females.
– The sons of a man with an X-linked dominant disorder will all be unaffected.
– A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder has a 50% chance of having an affected fetus.X-linked Recessive Conditions:
– Males are more frequently affected than females.
– Transmitted through carrier females to their sons (knights move pattern).
– Affected males cannot pass the condition onto their sons.
– A woman who is a carrier of an X-linked recessive disorder has a 50% chance of having sons who are affected and a 50% chance of having daughters who are carriers.Y-linked Conditions:
– Every son of an affected father will be affected.
– Female offspring of affected fathers are never affected.Mitochondrial Inheritance:
– Mitochondria are inherited only in the maternal ova and not in sperm.
– Males and females are affected, but always being maternally inherited.
– An affected male does not pass on his mitochondria to his children, so all his children will be unaffected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of memory problems, frequent falls, and disrupted REM sleep. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:In addition to fluctuating cognition and visual hallucinations, Lewy body dementia often involves sensitivity to neuroleptics. Patients may also experience falls and REM sleep disorder as common symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about diazepam?
Your Answer: Gastric absorption is not affected by food
Correct Answer: It is 95% protein bound
Explanation:Pharmacokinetics of Benzodiazepines
Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are easily absorbed when taken orally. They have a high affinity for plasma proteins, with diazepam showing a binding rate of 95%. These drugs are primarily metabolized in the liver. Due to their lipophilic nature, they can quickly cross the blood-brain barrier and placental barrier. This property makes them effective in treating anxiety and other related disorders. Understanding the pharmacokinetics of benzodiazepines is crucial in determining their efficacy and potential side effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
What is the lowest daily dose of moclobemide that is effective for treating depression in adults?
Your Answer: 300 mg
Explanation:Antidepressants: Minimum Effective Doses
According to the Maudsley 13th, the following are the minimum effective doses for various antidepressants:
– Citalopram: 20 mg/day
– Fluoxetine: 20 mg/day
– Fluvoxamine: 50 mg/day
– Paroxetine: 20 mg/day
– Sertraline: 50 mg/day
– Mirtazapine: 30 mg/day
– Venlafaxine: 75 mg/day
– Duloxetine: 60 mg/day
– Agomelatine: 25 mg/day
– Moclobemide: 300 mg/day
– Trazodone: 150 mg/dayNote that these are minimum effective doses and may vary depending on individual factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting of changing any medication regimen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
Which neurotransmitter is released from the postganglionic fibers in the sympathetic division?
Your Answer: Noradrenalin
Explanation:Noradrenalin Is the neurotransmitter that is released from the postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic division. It is stored in granules at the sympathetic knobs. It Is a methyl derivative.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
What is a true statement about agomelatine?
Your Answer: It is not associated with sexual side effects
Explanation:Agomelatine is a medication used to treat depression. It works by activating melatonin receptors (MT1 and MT2) and blocking serotonin 5-HT2C receptors.
Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
What is true about hyponatremia caused by antidepressants?
Your Answer: Cases of hyponatraemia have not been described with mirtazapine
Correct Answer: Onset is usually within 30 days of starting treatment
Explanation:Hyponatremia is commonly linked to the use of SSRIs (antidepressants) and typical antipsychotics.
Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients
Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A sequence of three nucleotides is referred to as:
Your Answer: Codon
Explanation:Codons and Amino Acids
Codons are made up of three bases and each codon codes for an amino acid. There are 64 different triplet sequences, with three of them indicating the end of the polypeptide chain. The start codon always has the code AUG in mRNA and codes for the amino acid methionine. This leaves 61 codons that code for a total of 20 different amino acids. As a result, most of the amino acids are represented by more than one codon. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, which can form short polymer chains called peptides of longer chains called polypeptides of proteins.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
Which antihistamine is associated with the side effects of dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention?
Your Answer: Diphenhydramine
Explanation:Anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention are commonly observed with the use of first generation H1 antihistamines like diphenhydramine.
Antihistamines: Types and Uses
Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.
There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
What is the term used to describe a child who shows distress when their mother leaves the room but avoids contact with her upon her return?
Your Answer: Anxious-avoidant attachment
Correct Answer: Anxious-resistant attachment
Explanation:Attachment (Ainsworth)
Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.
Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which scales require evaluation by a healthcare professional?
Your Answer: Edinburgh postnatal major depression scale
Correct Answer: Hamilton anxiety rating scale
Explanation:In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Who is credited with creating the term 'catatonia'?
Your Answer: Bleuler
Correct Answer: Kahlbaum
Explanation:– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
What is the alternative name for Briquet's syndrome in the field of psychiatry?
Your Answer: Bodily distress disorder
Explanation:In 1859, Pierre Briquet, a French physician and psychologist, released his Treatise on Hysteria, which established the foundation for the contemporary diagnosis of somatization disorder (also known as Briquet syndrome). The ICD-11 now refers to this as bodily distress disorder.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterised by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behaviour. Somatoform disorders are characterised by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterised by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. The former involves bodily symptoms that the individual finds distressing and to which excessive attention is directed, while the latter involves a disturbance in the person’s experience of the body manifested by the persistent desire to have a specific physical disability accompanied by persistent discomfort of intense feelings of inappropriateness concerning current non-disabled body configuration. Dissociative disorders, on the other hand, are characterised by involuntary disruption of discontinuity in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behaviour. The ICD-11 dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. Each disorder has its own set of essential features and diagnostic criteria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
What brain region has been identified as a target for deep brain stimulation (DBS) in individuals with treatment-resistant depression?
Your Answer: Subgenual cingulate gyrus
Correct Answer: Nucleus accumbens
Explanation:Deep brain stimulation (DBS) for treatment resistant depression targets specific brain regions based on their known involvement in pleasure, reward, and mood regulation. The nucleus accumbens is targeted due to its role in pleasure and reward processing. The inferior thalamic peduncle is targeted based on PET studies showing hyperactivity in depression. The lateral habenula is chosen due to observed hypermetabolism in depressed patients. The subgenual cingulate gyrus is targeted due to its hyperactivity in depression. The ventral capsule/ventral striatum is chosen based on its association with improved mood and reduced depressive symptoms following ablation treatments for OCD and depression.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
What is the condition caused by inheriting a deletion of chromosome 15q from the father?
Your Answer: Prader-Willi
Explanation:Genomic Imprinting and its Role in Psychiatric Disorders
Genomic imprinting is a phenomenon where a piece of DNA behaves differently depending on whether it is inherited from the mother of the father. This is because DNA sequences are marked of imprinted in the ovaries and testes, which affects their expression. In psychiatry, two classic examples of genomic imprinting disorders are Prader-Willi and Angelman syndrome.
Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a deletion of chromosome 15q when inherited from the father. This disorder is characterized by hypotonia, short stature, polyphagia, obesity, small gonads, and mild mental retardation. On the other hand, Angelman syndrome, also known as Happy Puppet syndrome, is caused by a deletion of 15q when inherited from the mother. This disorder is characterized by an unusually happy demeanor, developmental delay, seizures, sleep disturbance, and jerky hand movements.
Overall, genomic imprinting plays a crucial role in the development of psychiatric disorders. Understanding the mechanisms behind genomic imprinting can help in the diagnosis and treatment of these disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Which receptor's agonist effect is most likely responsible for anorgasmia caused by SSRIs?
Your Answer: Alpha 1 adrenergic
Correct Answer: 5HT2C
Explanation:As an AI language model, I cannot provide a response without knowing the context of the rewrite you are referring to. Please provide more information of context so that I can assist you better.
Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT) receptors are primarily G protein receptors, except for 5-HT3, which is a ligand-gated receptor. It is important to remember that 5-HT3 is most commonly associated with nausea. Additionally, 5-HT7 is linked to circadian rhythms. The stimulation of 5-HT2 receptors is believed to be responsible for the side effects of insomnia, agitation, and sexual dysfunction that are associated with the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)