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  • Question 1 - Infrared radiation is absorbed by asymmetric, polyatomic polar molecules like carbon dioxide (CO2).

    When...

    Correct

    • Infrared radiation is absorbed by asymmetric, polyatomic polar molecules like carbon dioxide (CO2).

      When measuring CO2 in gas samples, mainstream capnography uses this physical principle.

      Which of the following gases is most likely to interfere with carbon dioxide's absorption spectrum?

      Your Answer: Nitrous oxide

      Explanation:

      Carbon dioxide absorbs the most infrared (IR) light between the wavelengths of 4.2-4.4m (4.26m is ideal).

      Nitrous oxide absorbs infrared light at wavelengths of 4.4-4.6m (very similar to CO2) and less so at 3.9m.

      At a frequency of 4.7m, carbon monoxide absorbs the most IR light.

      At 3.3 m and throughout the ranges 8-12 m, the volatile agents have strong absorption bands.

      Although oxygen does not absorb infrared light, it collides with CO2 molecules, interfering with absorption. The absorption band is widened as a result of this (so called collision or pressure broadening). A drop of 0.5 percent in measured CO2 can be caused by 95% oxygen.

      Nitrous oxide causes a greater inaccuracy of 0.1 percent per ten percent of nitrous oxide.

      Water vapour absorbs infrared light as well, resulting in absorption band overlap, collision broadening, and partial pressure dilution. Water traps and water permeable tubing are used to reduce inaccuracies.

      Collision broadening is compensated for in modern gas multi-gas analysers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 71-year-old man, presents with central crushing pain in his chest to the...

    Correct

    • A 71-year-old man, presents with central crushing pain in his chest to the emergency department. On examination, he complains of nausea and is notably sweating. On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment is noted in multiple chest leads, as well as sinus bradycardia. A myocardial infarction can cause a sinus bradycardia.

      The sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node receive arterial supply from which vessel?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The left marginal artery comes off the left circumflex artery, and runs alongside the heart.

      The left circumflex artery is one of the bifurcations of the left coronary artery, and eventually forms the left marginal artery.

      An occlusion in the left circumflex artery often results in a lateral MI.

      The right marginal artery originates from the right coronary artery.

      The left anterior descending artery (LAD) is another bifurcation of the left coronary artery. An occlusion in the LAD would often result in an anteroseptal MI as is diagnosed on ECG by noting changes in leads V1-V4.

      The right coronary artery originates from the right aortic sinus of the ascending aorta, and bifurcates to give rise to many branches, including the sinoatrial artery which supplies the sinoatrial (SA) node in 50-70% of cases, the artery of the atrioventricular (AV) node in 50-60% of cases, the right acute marginal artery which supplies the right ventricle. It also supplies the right atrium, interatrial septum and the posterior inferior third of the interventricular septum.

      Arrhythmias and inferior MI often occurs as a result of an occlusion in the right coronary artery, and can be diagnosed by ECG changes in leads II, III and aVF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 20-year old lady has been having excessive bruising and bleeding of her...

    Correct

    • A 20-year old lady has been having excessive bruising and bleeding of her gums. She is under investigation for the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. Which is the best investigation to order?

      Your Answer: Prothrombin time (PT)

      Explanation:

      The extrinsic pathway is best assessed by the PT time.

      D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product which is raised in the presence of blood clots.

      A 50:50 mixing study is used to assess if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.

      The thrombin time is a test used to assess fibrin formation from fibrinogen in plasma. Factors that prolong the thrombin time include heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.

      Intrinsic pathway – Best assessed by APTT. Factors 8,9,11,12 are involved. Prolonged aPTT can be seen in haemophilia and use of heparin.

      Extrinsic pathway – Best assessed by Increased PT. Factor 7 involved.

      Common pathway – Best assessed by APTT & PT. Factors 2,5,10 involved.

      Vitamin K dependent factors are factors 2,7,9,10

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A study aimed at assessing the validity of a novel diagnostic test for...

    Incorrect

    • A study aimed at assessing the validity of a novel diagnostic test for heart failure is being performed. The curators are worried that not all the patients will get the prevalent gold standard test.

      Which type of bias is that?

      Your Answer: Selection bias

      Correct Answer: Work-up bias

      Explanation:

      Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.

      Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved.

      Attention bias refers to the person’s failure to consider various alternatives when he pre occupied by some other thoughts.

      Instrument bias is related to the experience and extent of familiarization of the participating individuals with the test.

      Co intervention bias is characterized by the groups receiving different co interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      149.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The patient is 50 kg and the anaesthetic plan is to perform an intravenous regional (Bier's) block.

      Which of the following is the appropriate dose of local anaesthetic for the procedure?

      Your Answer: 0.5% bupivacaine (20 ml)

      Correct Answer: 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml)

      Explanation:

      Prilocaine is the drug of choice for intravenous regional anaesthesia. 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml) is indicated for this condition.
      Lidocaine is another alternative for this condition but volume and dose are likely to be inadequate for the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      50.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Venepuncture is being performed on the basilic vein in the cubital fossa. At...

    Correct

    • Venepuncture is being performed on the basilic vein in the cubital fossa. At which of the following points does the basilic vein pass deep under the muscle?

      Your Answer: Midway up the humerus

      Explanation:

      The basilic vein is one of the primary veins that drain the upper limb, like the cephalic vein. It begins as the dorsal venous arch. The basilic vein originates from the ulnar side of the dorsal arch of the upper limb passes along the posteromedial aspect of the forearm, moving towards the anterior surface of the elbow.

      The basilic vein pierces the deep fascia at the elbow and joins the venae commitantes of the brachial vein to form the axillary vein.

      The basilic vein passes deep under the muscles as it moves midway up the humerus. At the lower border of the teres major muscle, the anterior and posterior circumflex humeral veins feed into it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

    Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

    ...

    Incorrect

    • A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

      Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

      Your Answer: Dynamic first-order response

      Correct Answer: Dynamic second-order response

      Explanation:

      The static-response defines how a measuring system behaves while it is in equilibrium (i.e. when the measured values are not changing). If the value being measured changes over time, the reaction of a measuring system will change as well which would be a dynamic response.
      The dynamic response of a measuring system can be subdivided into zero-order, first-order and second-order responses:

      Zero-order:
      Consider a thermometer that has been left in a room for a week. The thermometer will display the current ambient temperature when you enter the room.

      First-order:
      Consider the use of a mercury thermometer to check a patient’s temperature. It is comprised of a mercury column that expands as it warms up. The scale’s initial temperature is room temperature, but when it’s placed under the patient’s tongue, the temperature readings rise until they reach body temperature.

      Second-order
      Consider putting weights on a mechanical weighing scale. The weight as reported on the measuring dial, will wobble around the correct value at first until reaching equilibrium. An example of this is in clinical practice is the direct measurement of arterial pressure with a transducer. The value of the input fluctuates around a central point.

      Drift is the progressive deterioration of a measurement system’s precision. With time, the measurement deviates from the genuine, calibrated value. The graph between this measurement and the real value should, ideally, be linear (e.g. on the y-axis the measured end-tidal CO2 against true value of the end-tidal CO2). Drift is split into three types: zero-offset, gradient, and zonal drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      79.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?

      Your Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42 year old lady has acute onset of painless weakness on her...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old lady has acute onset of painless weakness on her left side of the face with a drooping mouth and difficulty speaking. With no significant past medical history and after relevant investigations, you rule out stroke as a possible cause. The lady is suspected to have suffered Bell's palsy, an idiopathic paralysis of the facial nerve.

      What symptoms are you most likely to find on examination in a patient with Bell's palsy?

      Your Answer: Taste impairment of the anterior tongue

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy is facial muscle weakness or paralysis that arises from idiopathic damage to the facial nerve. It can occur at any age but is commonly associated with some conditions:
      1. pregnancy
      2. diabetes
      3. upper respiratory ailment
      4. GBS
      5. Toxins

      The common symptoms of Bell’s palsy are:
      1. Abnormal corneal reflex as the facial nerve controls the motor aspect of the corneal reflex.
      2. The loss of control of facial muscles and eyelids leads to decreased tear production.
      3. mild weakness to total paralysis on one side of the face, occurring within hours to days.
      4. Bell’s palsy is a lower motor neuron lesion that usually spares the forehead while the upper motor near lesions, like stroke, involves the entire face.
      5. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue is supplied by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve, thus resulting in loss of taste.
      6. Ptosis can be a feature of Bell’s palsy but Bell’s palsy would typically show unilateral symptoms rather than bilateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      51.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man has suffered a myocardial infarction. He has a heart rate...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has suffered a myocardial infarction. He has a heart rate of 40 beats per minute currently.
      Your senior attending explains that the slow heart rate is due to the damage to the conduction pathways between the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes. His ventricles are being paced by the AV node alone.

      What artery supplies the AV node in the majority of patients?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The AV node has an intrinsic firing rate of 40-60 beats per minute which is clinically significant in cases of damage to the conducting pathways as patients continue to have a ventricular rate of 40-60. Patients who have an AV node supplied by the right coronary are said to be right dominant. The remaining 10% are left dominant and supplied by the left circumflex.

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.

      The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

      The left main coronary artery branches into:
      1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
      The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
      2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

      The right coronary artery branches into:
      1. Right marginal artery
      2. Posterior descending artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following causes a left shift of the haemoglobin dissociation curve?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes a left shift of the haemoglobin dissociation curve?

      Your Answer: With decreased 2,3-DPG in transfused red cells

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.

      Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
      There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
      The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.

      The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
      Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.

      Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right

      Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
      This can be caused by:
      -HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
      -low [H+] (alkali)
      -low pCO2
      -ow 2,3-DPG
      -ow temperature

      Bohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
      – raised [H+] (acidic)
      – raised pCO2
      -raised 2,3-DPG
      -raised temperature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 46-year old man was taken to the emergency room due to slow,...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year old man was taken to the emergency room due to slow, laboured breathing. A relative reported that he's maintained on codeine 60 mg, taken orally every 6 hours for severe pain from oesophageal cancer. His creatinine was elevated, and glomerular filtration rate was severely decreased at 27 ml/minute.

      Given the scenario above, which of the metabolites of codeine is the culprit for his clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Codeine-6-glucuronide

      Correct Answer: Morphine-6-glucuronide

      Explanation:

      Accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide is a risk factor for opioid toxicity during morphine treatment. Morphine is metabolized in the liver to morphine-6-glucuronide and morphine-3-glucuronide, both of which are excreted by the kidneys. In the setting of renal failure, these metabolites can accumulate, resulting in a lowering of the seizure threshold. However, it does not occur in all patients with renal insufficiency, which is the most common reason for accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide; this suggests that other risk factors can contribute to morphine-6-glucuronide toxicity.

      The active metabolites of codeine are morphine and the morphine metabolite morphine-6-glucuronide. The enzyme systems responsible for this metabolism are: CYP2D for codeine and UGT2B7 for morphine, codeine-6-gluronide, and morphine-6-glucuronide. Both of these systems are subject to genetic variation. Some patients are ultrarapid metabolizers of codeine and produce higher levels of morphine and active metabolites in a very short period of time after administration. These increased levels will produce increased side effects, especially drowsiness and central nervous system depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old long-term rheumatoid arthritis patient is having shoulder replacement surgery.

    He has chronic...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old long-term rheumatoid arthritis patient is having shoulder replacement surgery.

      He has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with a limited exercise tolerance. He agrees to the procedure being performed with an interscalene brachial plexus block.

      Which of the following neurological complications puts this patient at the greatest risk?

      Your Answer: Phrenic nerve block

      Explanation:

      An ipsilateral phrenic nerve block will result from a successful interscalene block (ISB).

      The phrenic nerve is the diaphragm’s sole motor supply, and ipsilateral hemidiaphragmatic paresis affects up to 100% of patients who receive ISBs. Phrenic nerve palsy is usually well tolerated and goes unnoticed by healthy people. However, forced vital capacity decreases by approximately 25%, which can produce ventilatory compromise in patients with limited pulmonary reserve, requiring assisted ventilation.

      Vocal cord palsy occurs when the recurrent laryngeal nerve is inadvertently blocked, causing hoarseness and possibly acute respiratory insufficiency. Unless bilateral laryngeal nerve palsy occurs, which can cause severe laryngeal obstruction, this complication is usually of little consequence.

      ISB can also cause cranial nerve X and XII palsy (Tapia’s syndrome). One-sided cord paralysis, aphonia, and the patient’s tongue deviating toward the block’s side are all symptoms.

      When a local anaesthetic spreads to the stellate ganglion and its cervical sympathetic nerves, Horner’s syndrome can develop. Ptosis of the eyelid, miosis, and anhidrosis of the face are all symptoms. Horner’s syndrome, on the other hand, may not indicate that the brachial plexus is sufficiently blocked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The main site of storage of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland is?...

    Incorrect

    • The main site of storage of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland is?

      Your Answer: Within vesicles

      Correct Answer: Thyroglobulin

      Explanation:

      The follicle is the functional unit of the thyroid gland. The follicular cells surround the follicle which is filled with colloid. Suspended within the colloid is the is a pro-hormone complex thyroglobulin.

      The synthesis and storage of thyroid hormones is done by follicular cells and the thyroglobulin within the colloid.

      Iodide ions (I−) are actively transported against a concentration gradient into the follicular cell under the influence of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). It then undergoes oxidation to active iodine catalysed by thyroid peroxidase (TPO). The synthesis of thyroglobulin is in the follicular cells and it contains up to 140 tyrosine residues. The tyrosine residues of thyroglobulin and active iodine are merged to form mono- and di-iodotyrosines (MIT and DIT). The iodinated thyroglobulin is then taken up into the colloid where it is stored and dimerised. Two DIT molecules are joined to produce thyroxine (T4) while one MIT and one DIT molecule are joined to produce tri-iodotyrosine (T3) by a process catalysed by TPO.

      Thyroglobulin droplets are taken up as vesicles into follicular cells by pinocytosis. This process is stimulated by TSH. When these vesicles fuse with lysosomes, hydrolysis of the thyroglobulin molecules and subsequent release of T4 and T3 into the circulation occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      66.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Heights of 100 individuals(adults) who were administered steroids at any stage during childhood...

    Correct

    • Heights of 100 individuals(adults) who were administered steroids at any stage during childhood was studied. The mean height was found to be 169cm with the data having a standard deviation of 16cm. What will be the standard error associated with the mean?

      Your Answer: 1.6

      Explanation:

      Standard error can be calculated by the following formula:
      Standard Error= (Standard Deviation)/√(Sample Size)
      = (16) / √(100)
      = 16 / 10
      = 1.6

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      84.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors?

      Your Answer: Binding with an opioid antagonist inhibits voltage sensitive calcium channels

      Correct Answer: Binding with an opioid agonist increases potassium conductance

      Explanation:

      Opioid receptors are a large family of seven transmembrane domain receptors. They are of four types:

      1) Delta opioid receptor

      2) Mu opioid receptor

      3) Kappa opioid receptor

      4) Orphan receptor-like 1

      They contain about 372-400 amino acids and thus their molecular weight is different.

      Opioid receptor activation reduces the intracellular cAMP formation and opens K+ channels (mainly through µ and δ receptors) or suppresses voltage-gated N-type Ca2+ channels (mainly κ receptor). These actions result in neuronal hyperpolarization and reduced availability of intracellular Ca2+ which results in decreased neurotransmitter release by cerebral, spinal, and myenteric neurons (e.g. glutamate from primary nociceptive afferents).

      However, other mechanisms and second messengers may also be involved, particularly in the long-term

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - All of the following statements are false regarding insulin except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements are false regarding insulin except:

      Your Answer: Can be detected in the lymph

      Explanation:

      Insulin is secreted from the ? cells of the pancreas. It consists of 51 amino acids arranged in two chains. It interacts with cell surface receptors (not the nuclear receptors and thus mechanism of action is not similar to steroids).
      Since insulin can pass from plasma to interstitium and lymphatics, it can be measured in lymph but the concentrations here can be up to 30% less than that of plasma.

      It decreases blood glucose by stimulating the entry of glucose in muscle and fat (by increasing the synthesis of Glucose transporters)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - During a squint surgery, a 5-year-old child developed severe bradycardia as a result...

    Correct

    • During a squint surgery, a 5-year-old child developed severe bradycardia as a result of the oculocardiac reflex.

      The afferent limb of this reflex is formed by which nerve?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      When the eye is compressed or the extra-ocular muscles are tractioned, the oculocardiac reflex causes a decrease in heart rate.

      The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve provides the afferent limb. This synapses with the vagus nerve’s visceral motor nucleus in the brainstem. The efferent signal is carried by the vagus nerve to the heart, where increased parasympathetic tone reduces sinoatrial node output and slows heart rate.

      The most common symptom is sinus bradycardia, but junctional rhythm and asystole can also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis per hundred thousand administrations is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis per hundred thousand administrations is?

      Your Answer: Chlorhexidine

      Correct Answer: Teicoplanin

      Explanation:

      The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis in the UK currently are antibiotics. They account for 46% of cases with identified causative agents. Co-amoxiclav and teicoplanin between them account for 89% of antibiotic-induced perioperative anaphylaxis

      Neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs) are the second leading cause and account for 33% of case.

      Chlorhexidine (0.78/100,000 administrations)
      Co-amoxiclav (8.7/100,000 administrations)Suxamethonium (11.1/100,000 administrations)
      Patent blue dye (14.6/100,000 administrations)
      Teicoplanin (16.4/100,000 administrations)

      Anaphylaxis to chlorhexidine periop poses a significant risk in the healthcare setting because of its widespread use with some being fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - When there is a relation between two variables due to the existence of...

    Correct

    • When there is a relation between two variables due to the existence of a confounding factor, this association is termed as:

      Your Answer: Indirect

      Explanation:

      When the association among any two classes of object is defined by the presence of a third entity it is termed as indirect association. For an instance, the age of the employee may affect the rate of pay, which would have implications on job satisfaction. So, in this example, an indirect relationship between age and job satisfaction exists due to a third party i.e. rate of pay.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      54.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A patient is evaluated for persistent dysphonia six months after undergoing a subtotal...

    Correct

    • A patient is evaluated for persistent dysphonia six months after undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy.

      Which of the following is the most likely reason for the change in this patient's voice?

      Your Answer: Damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      After thyroid surgery, about 10-15% of patients experience a temporary subjective voice change of varying degrees. A frog in the throat or cracking of the voice, or a weak voice, are common descriptions. These modifications are only temporary, lasting a few days to a few weeks.

      Swelling of the muscles in the area of the dissection, as well as inflammation and oedema of the larynx due to the dissection, or minor trauma from the tracheal tube, are all suspected causes.

      On both sides of the thyroid gland, the superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) runs along the upper part. The muscles that fine-tune the vocal cords are innervated by these nerves. The quality of their voice is usually normal if they are injured, but making high-pitched sounds may be difficult. Injury to the EBSLN occurs in about 2% of the population.

      Injuries to the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) have been reported to occur in 1 percent to 14 percent of people. Except for the cricothyroid muscle, the RLN supplies all of the laryngeal intrinsic muscles.

      This complication is usually unilateral and temporary, but it can also be bilateral and permanent, and it can be intentional or unintentional. The most common complication following thyroid surgery is a permanent lesion of damaged RLN, which manifests as an irreversible phonation dysfunction.

      The crico-arytenoid joint dislocation is a relatively uncommon complication of tracheal intubation and blunt neck trauma. The probability is less than one in a thousand.

      Vocal cord polyps affect 0.8 percent of people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      59.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A pulmonary function tests results are:

    Measurement Predicted result Test result
    Forced vital capacity (FVC)...

    Correct

    • A pulmonary function tests results are:

      Measurement Predicted result Test result
      Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) 3.85 2.36
      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) 3.34 0.97
      FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) 85.1 39.9
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) 7.33 2.11
      Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) 116 44.4

      What does this indicate?

      Your Answer: Moderate restrictive and severe obstructive picture

      Explanation:

      Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

      Mild 70-80%
      Moderate 60-69%
      Moderately severe 50-59%
      Severe 35-49%
      Very severe <35% This patient has a mixed deficit with a severe obstructive deficit as %FEV1/FVC predicted is 46.9% and a moderate restrictive deficit as %FVC of predicted is 61.3 FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      68.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and...

    Correct

    • You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and intermittent pain. The ultrasound shows a complex ovarian cyst and the radiologist who reported the results has advised urgent consultation with a gynaecologist. Upon breaking the news to Mrs Aciman you learn that she recently had a blood test done that was normal. You explain it to her that the test performed (Ca-125) is not always perfect and is only able to detect 80% of the cancer cases while the remaining 20% go undetected.

      Which statistical term appropriately explains the 80% in this example.

      Your Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Tests are used to confirm the presence of a particular disease. However the results can be misleading at times since most of the tests have some limitations associated with them.
      Sensitivity is the correct term that refers to the probability of a positive test. The others are explained below:

      False Positive rates refer to the proportion of the patients who don’t have the condition being detected as positive.

      False Negative rates refer to the proportion of the patients who have the condition being detected as negative (like the 20% of the patients that went undetected by the Ca-125 test).

      Specificity describes the ability of a test to detect and pick up people without the disease. Absolute risk ratio compares the rate of two separate outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought to the emergency department and undergoes investigations and treatment.

      On X-ray of the humerus, she has a mid-shaft fracture.

      What structure is at the highest risk of damage with a mid-shaft humeral fracture?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs.
      The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
      On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.

      The humeral shaft has two compartments:
      1. Anterior:
      Brachial artery and vein
      Biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
      Musculocutaneous, median, and ulnar nerves
      2. Posterior:
      Radial nerve
      Triceps

      Other significant nerve injuries are:
      1. Axillary nerve – surgical neck fracture of the humerus
      2. Brachial Artery – supracondylar fracture of the humerus
      3. Axillary artery – surgical neck fracture of the humerus, but is relatively uncommon

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced...

    Incorrect

    • Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced or consumed. They consist of weak acids and their conjugate bases. Buffers are also present in our bodies, and they are known as physiologic buffers.

      Which of these is the most effective buffer in the blood?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin

      Correct Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).

      Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.

      The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
      Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
      Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
      Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
      Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following combinations of signs seen in a patient would most...

    Correct

    • Which of the following combinations of signs seen in a patient would most likely confirm ingestion of substances with anticholinesterase effects?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia and miosis

      Explanation:

      An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor or anticholinesterase is a chemical that inhibits the cholinesterase enzyme from breaking down acetylcholine (ACh) therefore increasing the level and duration of action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine(ACh).

      ACh stimulates postganglionic receptors to produce the following effects:

      Salivation
      Lacrimation
      Defecation
      Micturition
      Sweating
      Miosis
      Bradycardia, and
      Bronchospasm.

      Since these effects are produced by muscarine, they are referred to as muscarinic effects, and the postganglionic receptors are called muscarine receptors.

      SLUD (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation – and emesis) is usually encountered only in cases of drug overdose or exposure to nerve gases. It is a syndrome of pathological effects indicating massive discharge of the parasympathetic nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The statement that best describes lactic acidosis is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The statement that best describes lactic acidosis is:

      Your Answer: Type B occurs with tissue hypoxia

      Correct Answer: It can be precipitated by intravenous fructose

      Explanation:

      An elevated arterial blood lactate level and an increase anion gap ([Na + K] – [Cl + HCO3]) of >20mmol gives rise to lactic acidosis. It can also be a result of overproduction and/or reduced metabolism of lactic acid.

      The liver and kidney are the main sites of lactate metabolism, not skeletal muscle.

      The two types of lactic acidosis that are known are:

      Type A – due to tissue hypoxia, inadequate tissue perfusion and anaerobic glycolysis. These may be seen in cardiac arrest, shock, hypoxaemia and anaemia. The management of type A lactic acidosis involves reversing the underlying cause of the tissue hypoxia.

      Type B – occurs in the absence of tissue hypoxia. Some of the causes of this include hepatic failure, renal failure, diabetes mellitus, pancreatitis and infection. Some drugs can also cause this lie aspirin, ethanol, methanol, biguanides and intravenous fructose.

      The mainstay of treatment involves:
      1. Optimising tissue oxygen delivery
      2. Correcting the cause
      3. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate

      In resistant cases, peritoneal dialysis can be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 27-year-old woman presents to emergency department. She is experiencing generalised seizures.

    She is...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to emergency department. She is experiencing generalised seizures.

      She is given emergency management of her symptoms before being referred to the neurologist who diagnoses her with new onset of tonic-clonic epilepsy.

      What is the most appropriate first line of treatment?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine should be offered as first line of treatment

      Explanation:

      Tonic-clonic (Grand mal) epilepsy is characterised by a general loss of consciousness with violent involuntary muscle contractions.

      The NICE guidelines for treatment indicates the use of sodium valproate and lamotrigine, but sodium valproate unsuitable in this case and she is a woman of reproductive age and it is known to have teratogenic effects. Lamotrigine is a more suitable choice, prescribed as 800mg daily.

      NICE guidelines also advice an additional prescription of 5mg of folic acid daily for women on anticonvulsant therapy looking to get pregnant. It also warns of the need for extra contraceptive precaution as there is a possibly that the anticonvulsant agent can reduce levels of contraceptive agents.

      Stimulation of the vagal nerve stimulation is only necessary in patients who are refractory to medical treatment and not candidates for surgical resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The Kappa statistic (aka Cohen's kappa coefficient) can be used to measure which...

    Correct

    • The Kappa statistic (aka Cohen's kappa coefficient) can be used to measure which of the following?

      Your Answer: Inter-rater reliability

      Explanation:

      The Kappa Statistic or Cohen’s Kappa is a statistical measure of inter-rater reliability for categorical variables. It is used when two raters both apply a criterion based on a tool to assess whether or not some condition occur. A good example can be two doctors rating individuals for diabetes occurrence on the basis of symptoms.

      It gives a quantitative measure of the magnitude of agreement between observers.

      Kappa can take any value between 0 and 1. 0 implies the observers are in complete disagreement and a value of 1 implies complete agreement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it...

    Correct

    • An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it is dependent on zero gradient drift and zero offset. Which of the following values will best compensate for the gradient drift?

      Your Answer: 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Since an arterial pressure transducer, and every other measuring apparatus, is prone to errors due to offset and gradient drifts, regular calibration is required to maintain accuracy of the instrument. The two-point calibration pressure values of 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg are within the physiologic range and can best compensate for the gradient drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      37.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (3/8) 38%
Anatomy (5/5) 100%
Physiology And Biochemistry (1/2) 50%
Statistical Methods (4/5) 80%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (0/1) 0%
Pathophysiology (5/6) 83%
Clinical Measurement (2/2) 100%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed