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  • Question 1 - A 61-year-old woman returns to get the results of recent blood tests she...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old woman returns to get the results of recent blood tests she had done for non-specific malaise, lethargy, and weight loss.

      The only abnormality discovered during the blood tests was a 580 x 10 9 /l increase in platelets. Her platelets were also elevated on a blood test taken 6 months earlier, according to her previous results. You're aware of the recent emergence of elevated platelet levels as a cancer risk marker and decide to look into it.

      Which of the following cancers is most likely to cause isolated thrombocytosis?

      Your Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Explanation:

      Raised platelet levels have emerged as a cancer risk marker, according to a large population-based study published in 2017(link is external). According to the study, 12 percent of men and 6% of women with thrombocytosis were diagnosed with cancer within a year. These figures increased to 18% in men and 10% in women if a second platelet count was taken within 6 months of the first and showed an increased or stable elevated platelet count.

      The researchers discovered that thrombocytosis linked to cancer is most common in colorectal and lung cancers, and it is linked to a worse prognosis. Furthermore, one-third of the cancer patients in the study had no other symptoms that would have prompted an immediate cancer referral.

      The exact mechanism by which these cancers cause thrombocytosis is unknown, but one theory proposes the existence of pathogenic feedback loops between malignant cells and platelets, with a reciprocal interaction between tumour growth and metastasis, as well as thrombocytosis and platelet activation. Another hypothesis is that thrombocytosis occurs independently of cancer but aids in its spread and progression.

      The findings show that routinely testing for thrombocytosis could cut the time it takes to diagnose colorectal and lung cancer by at least two months. In the UK, this could result in around 5500 earlier cancer diagnoses per year.

      Because the positive predictive value of thrombocytosis in middle age for cancer (10%) is higher than the positive predictive value for a woman in her 50s presenting with a new breast lump (8.5%), this is clearly an important research paper that should be used to adjust future clinical practise. The current NICE guidelines predate these new research findings, so we’ll have to wait and see how they affect cancer referral guidelines in the UK.

      Because there are so many possible cancers associated with thrombocytosis, the treating clinician should take a thorough history and perform a thorough clinical examination if a patient is diagnosed with it. Further investigation and the most appropriate referral route should be aided by this information.

      It’s worth noting that the patients in the study had their blood tests done for a medical reason rather than as a random screening test.

      If there are no other symptoms to guide investigation and referral (one-third of the patients in the study had no other symptoms), keep in mind that the two most common cancers encountered were colorectal and lung cancer, so a chest X-ray and a faecal immunochemical test (FIT) for faecal blood may be reasonable initial investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - C-reactive protein (CRP) synthesis is predominantly stimulated by which of the following cytokines:...

    Correct

    • C-reactive protein (CRP) synthesis is predominantly stimulated by which of the following cytokines:

      Your Answer: IL-6

      Explanation:

      Activated leukocytes, adipocytes, and endothelial cells all release interleukin 6 (IL-6), a significant proinflammatory cytokine. The main downstream mediator of the acute phase response is C-reactive protein, which is predominantly produced by IL-6–dependent hepatic biosynthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A six-year-old boy presents with coryzal symptoms that have persisted for more than...

    Correct

    • A six-year-old boy presents with coryzal symptoms that have persisted for more than two weeks. He was born and raised in the Middle East. His mother claims he has been tired and has complained of various 'aches and pains.' On examination, you find splenomegaly and enlarged cervical lymph nodes. His legs and arms are covered in petechiae.

      In this case, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

      Explanation:

      ALL is the most common leukaemia in children, with a peak incidence between the ages of 2 and 5.
      ALL has a wide range of clinical symptoms, but many children present with an acute illness that resembles coryza or a viral infection. ALL also has the following features:
      Weakness and sluggishness all over
      Muscle, joint, and bone pain that isn’t specific
      Anaemia
      Petechiae and unexplained bruising
      Oedema
      Lymphadenopathy
      Hepatosplenomegaly

      The following are typical features of a full blood count in patients with ALL:
      Anaemia (normocytic or macrocytic)
      Leukopenia affects about half of the patients (WCC 4 x 109/l).
      Around 25% of patients have leucocytosis (WCC > 10 x 109/l).
      Around 25% of patients have hyperleukocytosis (WCC > 50 x 109/l).
      Thrombocytopaenia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is NOT an effect of cytokine activity: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an effect of cytokine activity:

      Your Answer: Increased antibody production

      Correct Answer: Opsonisation of bacteria for phagocytosis

      Explanation:

      Cytokines are a family of chemical messengers, secreted by leucocytes, that act over short distances by binding specific receptors on target cell surfaces. They include: interleukins (act between leucocytes), interferons (inhibit replication of viruses within cells and activate macrophages and natural killer cells), growth factors, and tumour necrosis factors (kill tumour cells). Effects include: induction of fever and acute phase response, stimulation of leucocyte differentiation and maturation, leucocyte recruitment and activation and increased antibody production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - How does dipyridamole mediate its antiplatelet effect: ...

    Correct

    • How does dipyridamole mediate its antiplatelet effect:

      Your Answer: It is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor.

      Explanation:

      Dipyridamole inhibits both the reuptake of adenosine and phosphodiesterase, preventing the degradation of cAMP and thus blocking the platelet aggregation response to ADP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old male presents to your clinic with the complaint of recurrent fevers...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male presents to your clinic with the complaint of recurrent fevers over the past three months. On documentation of the fever, it is noted that the fever increases and decreases in a cyclical pattern over a 1-2 week period. After the appropriate investigations, a diagnosis of Pel-Ebstein fever is made.

      Which ONE of the following conditions is most likely to cause this patient's fever?

      Your Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Explanation:

      The release of cytokines from Reed-Sternberg cells can cause fever in patients with Hodgkin lymphoma, which increases and decreases in a cyclical pattern of 1 to 2 weeks. This is called Pel-Ebstein or Ebstein-Cardarelli fever, specifically seen in Hodgkin lymphoma. The fever is always high grade and can reach 40 degrees or higher.

      Cyclical fever in other conditions is common but is not termed as Pel-Ebstein fever. This term is reserved only with Hodgkin lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following features of cell damage tends to be reversible: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features of cell damage tends to be reversible:

      Your Answer: Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum and some mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Features of cell damage that tend to be reversible include: swelling of endoplasmic reticulum and some mitochondrialoss of ribosomescell stress response
      Features of cell damage that tend to be irreversible include: loss of nucleolus, no ribosomes, swelling of all mitochondria, nuclear condensation, membrane blebs and holes, lysosome rupture, fragmentation of all inner membranes, nuclear breakup

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 2-day-old male is referred to a tertiary care hospital by the community...

    Correct

    • A 2-day-old male is referred to a tertiary care hospital by the community midwife after a home visit due to jaundice and dyspnoea. After history and examination, the relevant blood work is performed, and the baby is found to have conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. The paediatric team suspects a hepatic origin for jaundice based on the findings.

      Which one of the following aetiologies is the most likely cause of jaundice in this case?

      Your Answer: Alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency

      Explanation:

      The presence of dyspnoea makes alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the more likely diagnosis as biliary atresia does not cause respiratory symptoms. Deficiency of the enzyme alpha-1 antitrypsin causes uninhibited elastase activity and a decrease in elastic tissue. This causes liver cirrhosis leading to an elevation of conjugated bilirubin and emphysema in the lungs.

      Rhesus disease, hereditary spherocytosis and breast milk jaundice cause an elevation of unconjugated bilirubin thus ruling it out in this case. Breast milk jaundice occurs due to an inability of the newborn to metabolize the proteins in breast milk.

      Rhesus disease occurs when an Rh negative mother gives birth to an Rh positive baby. The jaundice would have been accompanied by anaemia and oedema.

      Hereditary spherocytosis occurs due to extravascular haemolysis as defective RBCs are removed by the spleen. The patient would present with jaundice, splenomegaly and possibly an aplastic crisis (if Parvovirus B19 infection).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 57-year-old woman has presented with cough and shortness of breath. Her GP...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman has presented with cough and shortness of breath. Her GP had done some blood tests recently and told her that she had a positive ANA result.

      Which of these statements is true about anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs)? Select only ONE answer.

      Your Answer: The presence of ANAs in rheumatoid arthritis is suggestive of Felty’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Anti-nuclear antibodies are auto-antibodies directed against a variety of nuclear antigens. There are different staining patterns and each pattern is suggestive of a different disorder.

      Speckled staining is suggestive of mixed connective tissue disease.

      Nucleolar staining is suggestive of scleroderma, while homogenous staining is suggestive of lupus.

      Anti-double stranded DNA is suggestive of SLE while anti-histone antibodies are suggestive of drug-induced lupus.

      ELISA testing is cheaper but not the most accurate means of testing for ANAs. Indirect immunofluorescence testing is the most accurate.

      The presence of ANAs in rheumatoid arthritis is suggestive of Felty’s syndrome. Felty’s syndrome is characterized by a combination of rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly and neutropenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the nephrology clinic by her mother due...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the nephrology clinic by her mother due to facial oedema. Her lab workup shows proteinuria of 7 g/24 hours and serum albumin levels of 15 g/L. A diagnosis of Nephrotic Syndrome is made, and corticosteroid therapy is initiated.

      Which one of the following is the most likely cause of nephrotic syndrome in this patient?

      Your Answer: Minimal change disease

      Explanation:

      Minimal Change Disease is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in the paediatric population. It may be caused by NSAID use. Electron microscopy shows the fusion of foot processes while light microscopy will appear normal.

      Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis causes Nephrotic Syndrome in adults. It is associated with Heroin use and HIV infection. There is a limited response to steroids, and the disease progresses to end-stage renal failure in 5-10 years.

      Diabetic nephropathy occurs after a long period of diabetes due to the deposition of amyloid protein leading to a decrease in glomerular filtration.

      There is no history of Hepatitis B in this patient and no symptoms of liver disease such as jaundice.

      Membranous glomerulonephritis would present with features of Nephritic Syndrome. These would be oedema, haematuria; red blood cell casts in the urine and hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      22.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (4/4) 100%
Pathology (9/10) 90%
Inflammatory Responses (2/3) 67%
General Pathology (3/3) 100%
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