00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - The following structures all lie anteriorly to the oesophagus EXCEPT for the: ...

    Correct

    • The following structures all lie anteriorly to the oesophagus EXCEPT for the:

      Your Answer: Thoracic duct

      Explanation:

      Posterior to the oesophagus, the thoracic duct is on the right side inferiorly but crosses to the left more superiorly (at T5).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      70.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which extraocular muscle is entrapped in a patient with a blowout fracture? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which extraocular muscle is entrapped in a patient with a blowout fracture?

      Your Answer: Superior oblique

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectus

      Explanation:

      A blowout fracture is an isolated fracture of the orbital walls without compromise of the orbital rims. The common mechanisms are falls, high-velocity ball-related sports, traffic accidents, and interpersonal violence.

      The frontal, ethmoidal, sphenoid, zygomatic, and lacrimal bones form the bony structures of the orbit. Medially, the maxillary and the lacrimal bone form the lacrimal fossa. Together with the lamina papyracea of the ethmoid bone, they form the medial wall. The sphenoid bone forms the posterior wall and houses the orbital canal. Lateral to the orbital canal lies the superior orbital fissure housing cranial nerves III, IV, V, and VI. The zygomatic bone forms the lateral wall. Superior and inferior borders are the frontal and maxillary bones. Located around the globe of the eye and attached to it are 6 extraocular muscles; the 4 rectus muscles and the superior and inferior oblique muscles. The fat and connective tissue around the globe help to reduce the pressure exerted by the extraocular muscles.

      The goal of treatment is to restore aesthetics and physiological function. The problem with orbital blowout fractures is that the volume of the orbit can be increased, resulting in enophthalmos and hypoglobus. In addition, the orbital tissue and inferior rectus muscle can become trapped by the bony fragments leading to diplopia, limitation of gaze, and tethering. Finally, the orbital injury can lead to retinal oedema, hyphema, and significant loss of vision.

      While some cases may be managed with conservative care, others may require some type of surgical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding Clostridium difficile, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Clostridium difficile, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It has endotoxin-mediated effects causing profuse watery diarrhoea.

      Correct Answer: It is normally found in gut flora.

      Explanation:

      C. difficile is normally found in the gut flora but its growth is normally suppressed by more dominant anaerobes. It has exotoxin-mediated effects causing profuse diarrhoea. Oral clindamycin (a broad spectrum antibiotic) is commonly implicated in precipitating C. difficile colitis; first line treatment is with oral metronidazole. Tetanolysin is a toxin produced by Clostridium tetani bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - All of the following are physiological effects of thyroid hormones except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are physiological effects of thyroid hormones except:

      Your Answer: Increased glycogenesis

      Explanation:

      Thyroid hormones have multiple physiological effects on the body. These include:
      1. Heat production (thermogenesis)
      2. Increased basal metabolic rate
      3. Metabolic effects:
      (a) Increase in protein turnover (both synthesis and degradation are increased, although overall effect is catabolic)
      (b) Increase in lipolysis
      (c)Increase in glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
      4. Enhanced catecholamine effect – Increase in heart rate, stroke volume and thus cardiac output
      5. Important role in growth and development

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are about to give an antimuscarinic agent to a 55 year-old male...

    Correct

    • You are about to give an antimuscarinic agent to a 55 year-old male patient. Which of the following conditions will make you with stop the administration, since it is a contraindication to antimuscarinic agents?

      Your Answer: Prostatic enlargement

      Explanation:

      Antimuscarinic medications may impair the contractility of bladder smooth muscle, resulting in acute urine retention in men with BPH, and should be avoided or used with caution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Pharmacology
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 21-year-old student presents with fever, headache, malaise, fatigue, and muscle aches after...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student presents with fever, headache, malaise, fatigue, and muscle aches after returning from a trip to India. A diagnosis of malaria was suspected.

      Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding malaria?

      Your Answer: Plasmodium falciparum has the longest incubation period

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobinuria and renal failure following treatment is suggestive of Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      Malaria results from infection with single-celled parasites belonging to the Plasmodium genus. Five species of Plasmodium are known to cause disease in humans: P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, and P. knowlesi.

      Chloroquine remains the mainstay of treatment for uncomplicated vivax malaria.

      The female Anopheles mosquito serves as the biologic vector and definitive host.

      A complication of infection with P. falciparum is blackwater fever, a condition characterized by haemoglobinuria.

      Plasmodium ovale has the longest incubation period, which can be up to 40 days. Plasmodium falciparum has a shorter incubation period of 7-14 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 33-year-old female, who recently returned from a trip to Bangladesh, presents to...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old female, who recently returned from a trip to Bangladesh, presents to the infectious diseases clinic with complaints of productive cough with blood-stained sputum, night sweats, and weight loss for the past one month. Based on the history and examination findings, you suspect pulmonary tuberculosis.

      Which ONE of the following investigations is most appropriate to make a diagnosis of active tuberculosis?

      Your Answer: Sputum for acid-fast bacilli smear

      Explanation:

      Multiple investigations may be done to establish a diagnosis of active tuberculosis. In this case, sputum for acid-fast bacilli would be the best option as it can be done immediately, give fast results, and promptly initiate treatment. Three-morning sputum samples are collected and tested for acid-fast bacilli using gram staining.

      Blood culture would yield results in tuberculous bacteraemia and would be less sensitive than sputum testing.

      A chest X-ray would not differentiate active tuberculosis from an old infection in which the Ghon complex has formed, and the body’s immune reaction contains the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria.

      Mantoux test shows the presence of antibodies to tuberculosis and may be positive if the patient has had a previous infection or been vaccinated against tuberculosis.

      A CT chest would also be unable to differentiate between an active infection and the findings of old tuberculosis infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding Legionella species which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Legionella species which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: They are transmitted via the respiratory droplet route.

      Correct Answer: They are Gram-negative organisms.

      Explanation:

      Legionella pneumophilais a Gram negative bacterium that is found in natural water supplies and in the soil, transmitted predominantly via inhalation of aerosols generated from contaminated water (direct person-to-person spread of infected patients does not occur). It is the cause of Legionnaires’ disease. Outbreaks of Legionnaires’ disease have been linked to poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas and hot tubs.

      The clinical features of the pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease include:
      Mild flu-like prodrome for 1-3 days
      Cough (usually non-productive and occurs in approximately 90%)
      Pleuritic chest pain
      Haemoptysis
      Headache
      Nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea
      Anorexia
      Legionella pneumophilainfections can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used.
      The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) can occur with Legionnaires’ disease and will result in hyponatraemia as is seen in this case.
      Legionella pneumophilainfections are resistant to amoxicillin but can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used. The majority of cases of Legionnaires’ disease are caused by Legionella pneumophila, however many other species of Legionella have been identified.
      Legionella longbeachae is another less commonly encountered species that has also been implicated in outbreaks. It is predominantly found in soil and potting compost, and has caused outbreaks of Pontiac fever, the non-respiratory and less severe variant of Legionnaires’ disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following best describes a natural killer cell: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes a natural killer cell:

      Your Answer: A large phagocyte that is part of the innate immune system.

      Correct Answer: A large granular lymphocyte that kills by inducing target cell apoptosis.

      Explanation:

      Natural killer (NK) cells are cytotoxic CD8 positive cells that lack the T-cell receptor. They are large cells with cytoplasmic granules. NK cells are designed to kill target cells that have a low level of expression of HLA class I molecules, such as may occur during viral infection or on a malignant cell. NK cells do this by displaying several receptors for HLA molecules on their surface. When HLA is expressed on the target cell these deliver an inhibitory signal into the NK cell. When HLA molecules are absent on the target cell this inhibitory signal is lost and the NK cell can then kill its target. In addition, NK cells display antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity. In this, antibody binds to antigen on the surface of the target cell and then NK cells bind to the Fc portion of the bound antibody and kill the target cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient presents with epistaxis. She tells you that she has a rare...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with epistaxis. She tells you that she has a rare platelet disorder and gives you her haematology outpatient letter that contains information about it. You learn that her disorder is caused by low levels of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Von Willebrand disease

      Correct Answer: Glanzamann’s thromboasthenia

      Explanation:

      Glanzmann’s thromboasthenia is a rare platelet disorder in which platelets contain defective or low levels of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in...

    Incorrect

    • What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in a lesion of the parietal optic radiation:

      Your Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia

      Correct Answer: Contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia

      Explanation:

      A lesion of the parietal optic radiation will result in a contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia.
      A lesion of the temporal optic radiation will result in a contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      93.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 66-year-old female who is a known case of atrial fibrillation comes to...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old female who is a known case of atrial fibrillation comes to the Emergency Department with the complaint of fever and vomiting for the past two days. When her medical chart is reviewed, you see that she takes Warfarin for her arrhythmia.

      Which ONE of the following medications cannot be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Like other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, Ibuprofen cannot be given with Warfarin as it would increase the bleeding risk of this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      65.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - All of the following statements are considered true regarding likelihood ratios, except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements are considered true regarding likelihood ratios, except:

      Your Answer: If less than one, indicates that the information increases the likelihood of the suspected diagnosis

      Explanation:

      The Likelihood Ratio (LR) is the likelihood that a given test result would be expected in a patient with the target disorder compared to the likelihood that that same result would be expected in a patient without the target disorder.

      The LR is used to assess how good a diagnostic test is and to help in selecting an appropriate diagnostic tests or sequence of tests. They have advantages over sensitivity and specificity because they are less likely to change with the prevalence of the disorder, they can be calculated for several levels of the symptom/sign or test, they can be used to combine the results of multiple diagnostic test and they can be used to calculate post-test probability for a target disorder.

      A LR greater than 1 produces a post-test probability which is higher than the pre-test probability. An LR less than 1 produces a post-test probability which is lower than the pre-test probability. When the pre-test probability lies between 30 and 70 per cent, test results with a very high LR (say, above 10) rule in disease. An LR below 1 produces a post-test probability les than the pre-test probability. A very low LR (say, below 0.1) virtually rules out the chance that the patient has the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements is correct with regards to insulin receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct with regards to insulin receptors?

      Your Answer: Insulin has its intracellular effects via the increased production of cAMP.

      Correct Answer: Insulin has its intracellular effects via activation of tyrosine kinase.

      Explanation:

      Most cells have insulin receptors present on them which can be sequestered into the cell to inactivate them. These receptors consist of two extracellular alpha subunits which contain the insulin-binding site and two transmembrane beta subunits. Because insulin is a polypeptide hormone, it must act via cell surface receptors as it is unable to readily cross the cell membrane. On binding to the receptor, the beta subunit of insulin autophosphorylation, which activates tyrosine kinase. As a result, there is an intracellular cascade of phosphorylation, causing a translocation of the glucose transporter GLUT4 and GLUT-1 to the plasma membrane of the affected cell. This facilitates glucose entry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      63.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Ca 2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is stimulated directly by a Na + influx.

      Correct Answer: In relaxation, Ca 2+ is transported out of the cell using energy from a Na + gradient.

      Explanation:

      During the AP plateau, Ca2+enters the cell and activates Ca2+sensitive Ca2+release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum allowing stored Ca2+to flood into the cytosol; this is called Ca2+-induced Ca2+release. In relaxation, about 80% of Ca2+is rapidly pumped back into the SR (sequestered) by Ca2+ATPase pumps. The Ca2+that entered the cell during the AP is transported out of the cell primarily by the Na+/Ca2+exchanger in the membrane which pumps one Ca2+ion out in exchange for three Na+ions in, using the Na+electrochemical gradient as an energy source. Increased heart rate increases the force of contraction in a stepwise fashion as intracellular [Ca2+] increases cumulatively over several beats; this is the Treppe effect. Factors that affect intracellular [Ca2+] and hence cardiac contractility are called inotropes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      94
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Regarding the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle, which of the following statements is true?...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: It assists with the abduction of the hand at the wrist joint

      Correct Answer: It receives its blood supply from the ulnar artery

      Explanation:

      Extensor carpi ulnaris is a fusiform muscle in the posterior forearm. It spans between the elbow and base of the little finger. This muscle belongs to the superficial forearm extensor group, along with anconaeus, brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor digitorum and extensor digiti minimi muscles.

      Like all the muscles of this compartment, extensor carpi ulnaris works as an extensor of the wrist. Moreover, due to its specific course, this muscle also acts to adduct the hand.

      Extensor carpi ulnaris is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve (C7, C8), a branch of the deep division of the radial nerve. The radial nerve stems from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.

      Blood supply to the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle is provided by branches of the radial recurrent and posterior interosseous arteries, which stem from the radial and ulnar arteries, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      103.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A patient presents with a necrolytic migratory rash. Her blood serum glucagon concentration...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a necrolytic migratory rash. Her blood serum glucagon concentration is 1246 pg/mL. Following further investigations, she is diagnosed with glucagonoma.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding glucagon is true?

      Your Answer: It stimulates glycolysis

      Correct Answer: It makes fatty acids available for oxidation

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      91.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following leukaemias is most common in children in the UK:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following leukaemias is most common in children in the UK:

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is caused by an accumulation of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and is the most common malignancy of childhood. The incidence of ALL is highest at 3 – 7 years, with 75% of cases occurring before the age of 6. There is a secondary rise after the age of 40 years. 85% of cases are of B-cell lineage and have an equal sex incidence; there is a male predominance for the 15% of T-cell lineage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Following a decrease in extracellular volume, which of the following is a reaction...

    Correct

    • Following a decrease in extracellular volume, which of the following is a reaction to enhanced sympathetic innervation of the kidney:

      Your Answer: Release of renin

      Explanation:

      The RAS pathway begins with renin cleaving its substrate, angiotensinogen (AGT), to produce the inactive peptide, angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by endothelial angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). ACE activation of angiotensin II occurs most extensively in the lung. Angiotensin II mediates vasoconstriction as well as aldosterone release from the adrenal gland, resulting in sodium retention and increased blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      92.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of lithium toxicity: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of lithium toxicity:

      Your Answer: Miosis

      Explanation:

      Features of toxicity include:
      Increasing gastrointestinal disturbances (vomiting, diarrhoea, anorexia)
      Visual disturbances
      Polyuria and incontinence
      Muscle weakness and tremor
      Tinnitus
      CNS disturbances (dizziness, confusion and drowsiness increasing to lack of coordination, restlessness, stupor)
      Abnormal reflexes and myoclonus
      Hypernatraemia
      With severe overdosage (serum-lithium concentration > 2 mmol/L) seizures, cardiac arrhythmias (including sinoatrial block, bradycardia and first-degree heart block), blood pressure changes, electrolyte imbalance, circulatory failure, renal failure, coma and sudden death may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old female is referred to the Oncology clinic due to the presence...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old female is referred to the Oncology clinic due to the presence of lumps in her neck. There is a non-tender enlargement of several groups of cervical lymph nodes on examination. She is sent for a lymph node biopsy. The results show the presence of lymphoma cells, but there are no Reed-Sternberg cells.

      Which one is most appropriate for this case out of the following diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL) causes neoplastic transformation of both B cell (85%) and T cell (15%) lines.

      The most common presentation is with enlarged, rubbery, painless lymph nodes. The patient may also have B symptoms which consist of night sweats, weight loss and fevers. Multiple myeloma most commonly presents with bone pain, especially in the back and ribs.

      The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells characterises Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia will present with features of anaemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. The most common symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia are fatigue, night sweats and low-grade fever.

      The peak incidence of NHL is in the 50-70 years age group, it affects men and women equally, but affects the Caucasian population more commonly than black and Asian ethnic groups.
      The following are recognised risk factors for NHL:
      Chromosomal translocations and molecular rearrangements
      Epstein-Barr virus infection
      Human T-cell leukaemia virus type-1 (HTLV-1)
      Hepatitis C
      Congenital and acquired immunodeficiency states
      Autoimmune disorders, e.g. Sjogren’s syndrome and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man comes for a visit at the clinic with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes for a visit at the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. On inquiring about drug history, you find out that he has been taking around 8-10 paracetamol to help relieve the pain.

      Out of the following, which one is believed to be the main mechanism of action for paracetamol?

      Your Answer: Selective inhibition of COX-3 receptors

      Explanation:

      The FDA categorizes Paracetamol as an NSAID (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug) as it is believed to selectively inhibit cyclo-oxygenase 3 (COX-3) receptors in the brain and spinal cord.

      COX-3 is a unique variant of the more known COX-1 and COX-2. It is responsible for the production of prostaglandins in central areas, which sensitizes free nerve endings to the chemical mediators of pain. Therefore, by selectively inhibiting COX-3, paracetamol effectively reduces pain sensation by increasing the pain threshold.
      Acetaminophen does not inhibit cyclooxygenase in peripheral tissues and, therefore, has no peripheral anti-inflammatory effects.
      The antipyretic actions of acetaminophen are likely attributed to direct action on heat-regulating centres in the brain, resulting in peripheral vasodilation, sweating, and loss of body heat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 74-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease and heart failure...

    Correct

    • A 74-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease and heart failure is complaining of worsening oedema, bloating, and a loss of appetite. She has ascites and peripheral oedema on examination. Her oedema is being controlled by an oral diuretic, but it appears that this is no longer enough. You discuss her care with the on-call cardiology registrar, who believes she is very likely to have significant gut oedema that is interfering with her diuretic absorption and that she will need to change her medication.

      Which of the following oral diuretics is most likely to help you overcome this problem?

      Your Answer: Bumetanide

      Explanation:

      Bumetanide is primarily used in patients with heart failure who have failed to respond to high doses of furosemide. Bumetanide and furosemide differ primarily in terms of bioavailability and pharmacodynamic potency. In the intestine, furosemide is only partially absorbed, with a bioavailability of 40-50 percent. Bumetanide, on the other hand, is almost completely absorbed in the intestine and has a bioavailability of about 80%. As a result, when it has a better bioavailability than furosemide, it is commonly used in patients with gut oedema.

      When taken alone, Bendroflumethiazide is a moderately potent diuretic that is unlikely to control her oedema.

      Mannitol is a type of osmotic diuretic used to treat cerebral oedema and high intracranial pressure.

      Acetazolamide is a weak diuretic that inhibits carbonic anhydrase. It’s a rare occurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 31-year-old man with sickle-cell disease receives a blood transfusion for symptomatic anaemia....

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man with sickle-cell disease receives a blood transfusion for symptomatic anaemia. He presents to the Emergency Department three weeks later with a rash, fever, and diarrhoea. He has pancytopenia and abnormal liver function results on blood tests.

      Which of the transfusion reactions is most likely to have happened?

      Your Answer: Delayed haemolytic reaction

      Correct Answer: Graft-vs-host disease

      Explanation:

      Blood transfusion can be a life-saving treatment with significant clinical benefits, but it also comes with a number of risks and potential complications, including:
      Immunological side effects
      Errors in administration (episodes of ‘wrong blood’)
      Viruses and Infections (bacterial, viral, possibly prion)
      Immunodilution

      A culture of better safety procedures as well as steps to reduce the use of transfusion has emerged as a result of growing awareness of avoidable risk and improved reporting systems. Transfusion errors, on the other hand, continue to occur, and some serious adverse reactions go unreported.

      Transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD) is a rare blood transfusion complication that causes fever, rash, and diarrhoea 1-4 weeks after the transfusion. Pancytopenia and liver function abnormalities are common laboratory findings.

      TA-GVHD, unlike GVHD following allogeneic marrow transplantation, causes profound marrow aplasia with a mortality rate of >90%. Survival is uncommon, with death occurring within 1-3 weeks of the onset of symptoms.

      Because of immunodeficiency, severe immunosuppression, or shared HLA antigens, viable T lymphocytes in blood components are transfused, engraft, and react against the recipient’s tissues, and the recipient is unable to reject the donor lymphocytes.
      The following is a list of the most common transfusion reactions and complications:

      1) Reaction to a febrile transfusion
      The temperature rises by one degree from the baseline. Chills and malaise are also possible symptoms.
      The most common response (1 in 8 transfusions).
      Cytokines from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components are usually to blame.
      Only supportive. The use of paracetamol is beneficial.

      2) Acute haemolytic reaction is a type of haemolytic reaction that occurs when the
      Fever, chills, pain at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and dark urine are all symptoms of a transfusion reaction.
      Early on, many people report a sense of ‘impending doom.’
      The most serious reaction. ABO incompatibility is frequently caused by a clerical error.
      STOP THE TRANSFUSION OF INFORMATION. IV fluids should be given. It’s possible that diuretics will be required.

      3) Haemolytic reaction that is delayed
      It usually happens 4 to 8 days after a blood transfusion.
      Fever, anaemia, jaundice, and haemoglobinuria are all symptoms that the patient has.
      Positive Coombs test for direct antiglobulin.
      Because of the low titre antibody, it is difficult to detect in a cross-match, and it is unable to cause lysis at the time of transfusion.
      The majority of delayed haemolytic reactions are harmless and do not require treatment.
      Anaemia and renal function should be monitored and treated as needed.

      4) Reaction to allergens
      Foreign plasma proteins are usually to blame, but anti-IgA could also be to blame.
      Urticaria, pruritus, and hives are typical allergic reactions. It’s possible that it’s linked to laryngeal oedema or bronchospasm.
      Anaphylaxis is a rare occurrence.
      Antihistamines can be used to treat allergic reactions symptomatically. It is not necessary to stop transfusions.
      If the patient develops anaphylaxis, the transfusion should be stopped and the patient should be given adrenaline and treated according to the ALS protocol.

      5) TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury)
      Within 6 hours of transfusion, there was a sudden onset of non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema.
      It’s linked to the presence of antibodies to recipient leukocyte antigens in the donor blood.
      The most common cause of death from transfusion reactions is this.
      STOP THE TRANSFUSION OF INFORMATION. Oxygen should be given to the patient. Around 75% of patients will require aggressive respiratory support.
      The use of diuretics should be avoided.

      6) TACO (Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload)
      Acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of a large blood transfusion. Fluid overload and pulmonary and peripheral oedema can be seen. Rapid blood pressure rises are common. BNP is usually 1.5 times higher than it was before the transfusion. It is most common in the elderly and those who have chronic anaemia.

      Blood transfusions should be given slowly, over the course of 3-4 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration...

    Correct

    • A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration is 1246 pg/mL.
      Glucagon is produced in which of the following cells? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Alpha-cells in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Approximately how long is the duration of a lidocaine block (when given with...

    Correct

    • Approximately how long is the duration of a lidocaine block (when given with adrenaline):

      Your Answer: 90 minutes

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is a tertiary amine that is primarily used as a local anaesthetic but can also be used intravenously in the treatment of ventricular dysrhythmias.
      Lidocaine works as a local anaesthetic by diffusing in its uncharged base form through neural sheaths and the axonal membrane to the internal surface of the cell membrane sodium channels. Here it alters signal conduction by blocking the fast voltage-gated sodium channels. With sufficient blockage, the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron will not depolarise and will be unable to transmit an action potential, thereby preventing the transmission of pain signals.
      Each 1 ml of plain 1% lidocaine solution contains 10 mg of lidocaine hydrochloride. The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg/kg. When administered with adrenaline 1:200,000, the maximum safe dose is 7 mg/kg. Because of the risk of vasoconstriction and tissue necrosis, lidocaine should not be used in combination with adrenaline in extremities such as fingers, toes, and the nose.
      The half-life of lidocaine is 1.5-2 hours. Its onset of action is rapid within a few minutes, and it has a duration of action of 30-60 minutes when used alone. Its duration of action is prolonged by co-administration with adrenaline (about 90 minutes).
      Lidocaine tends to cause vasodilatation when used locally. This is believed to be due mainly to the inhibition of action potentials via sodium channel blocking in vasoconstrictor sympathetic nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is NOT a notifiable disease: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a notifiable disease:

      Your Answer: Chickenpox

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is not a notifiable disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - All of the following statements regarding metronidazole are correct except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements regarding metronidazole are correct except:

      Your Answer: Dose-dependent gastrointestinal upset is a common adverse effect.

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole reduces the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.

      Explanation:

      The anticoagulant effect of warfarin is enhanced by metronidazole. If use of both cannot be avoided, one must consider appropriately reducing the warfarin dosage. With alcohol, metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction, with symptoms like flushing, headaches, dizziness, tachypnoea and tachycardia, nausea and vomiting. The common side effects of metronidazole include a metallic taste and gastrointestinal irritation, in particular nausea and vomiting. These side effects are more common at higher doses. This drug has high activity against anaerobic bacteria and protozoa, and is well absorbed orally. For severe infections, the intravenous route is normally reserved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      84.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 17-year-old type I diabetic patient presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. Measurement...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old type I diabetic patient presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. Measurement of her blood glucose level is done and found to be grossly elevated. She is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. A fixed rate insulin infusion is given as part of her treatment.

      Which of these is an action of insulin?

      Your Answer: Stimulates lipogenesis

      Explanation:

      Insulin is an anabolic hormone. Its actions can be broadly divided into:
      Lipid metabolism
      Protein metabolism and
      Carbohydrate metabolism

      For lipid metabolism, insulin:
      Stimulates lipogenesis
      Inhibits lipolysis by lipase

      For carbohydrate metabolism, insulin:
      Decreases gluconeogenesis
      Stimulates glycolysis
      Promotes glucose uptake in muscle and adipose tissue
      Promotes glycogen storage
      Increases glycogenesis
      Decreases glycogenolysis

      Protein metabolism:
      Stimulates protein synthesis
      Accelerates net formation of protein
      Stimulates amino acid uptake
      Inhibits protein degradation
      Inhibits amino acid conversion to glucose

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 60 -year-old man is tested to have low calcium levels . After...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 -year-old man is tested to have low calcium levels . After additional questioning, it becomes clear that he has a calcium-deficient diet.

      What is the daily calcium intake recommendation for a healthy adult?

      Your Answer: 650 mg

      Correct Answer: 1300 mg

      Explanation:

      A daily calcium intake of 1,000 to 1,300 mg is advised for adults. Women have a slightly higher calcium need than men and are at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis as they age.

      Calcium-rich foods include the following:
      Milk, cheese, and butter as dairy products.
      Broccoli, spinach, and green beans as green veggies.
      Bread, rice, and cereals as whole grain foods.
      Sardines, salmon, and other bony fish
      Eggs
      Nuts
      The following foods have the least calcium:
      Carrot
      Fruits such as kiwis, raspberries, oranges, and papaya
      Chicken and pork in meats.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      22.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (1/4) 25%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Head And Neck (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/4) 25%
Pathogens (0/2) 0%
Endocrine (1/2) 50%
Physiology (4/8) 50%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (7/8) 88%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/2) 50%
Immune Responses (0/1) 0%
Pathology (1/5) 20%
Haematology (1/4) 25%
Central Nervous System (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Endocrine Physiology (2/4) 50%
Renal (1/1) 100%
CNS Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Anaesthesia (1/1) 100%
Infections (1/2) 50%
Passmed