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Question 1
Correct
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You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and intermittent pain. The ultrasound shows a complex ovarian cyst and the radiologist who reported the results has advised urgent consultation with a gynaecologist. Upon breaking the news to Mrs Aciman you learn that she recently had a blood test done that was normal. You explain it to her that the test performed (Ca-125) is not always perfect and is only able to detect 80% of the cancer cases while the remaining 20% go undetected.
Which statistical term appropriately explains the 80% in this example.Your Answer: Sensitivity
Explanation:Tests are used to confirm the presence of a particular disease. However the results can be misleading at times since most of the tests have some limitations associated with them.
Sensitivity is the correct term that refers to the probability of a positive test. The others are explained below:False Positive rates refer to the proportion of the patients who don’t have the condition being detected as positive.
False Negative rates refer to the proportion of the patients who have the condition being detected as negative (like the 20% of the patients that went undetected by the Ca-125 test).
Specificity describes the ability of a test to detect and pick up people without the disease. Absolute risk ratio compares the rate of two separate outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 2
Correct
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You are approached by a drug rep who tells you about a new drug. The dosage and side effects of the drug are being determined in a trial. The representative asks you to refer participants for the trial.
What type of participants should you refer? In which phase of trials is the drug currently in?Your Answer: Healthy participants, Phase 1
Explanation:Phase 2 trials involve patients that are suffering from the disease under study and are associated with determining the efficiency and the optimum dosage of the drug.
Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.
Phase 1 is associated with assessing whether a drug is safe to use or not. The process is extensive and can take up to several months. It also involves healthy participants (less than 100) that are paid to take part in the study. The side effects upon increasing dosage are also addressed by the study. The effects the drug has on humans including how its absorbed, metabolized and excreted are studied. Approximately 70% of the drugs pass this phase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 3
Correct
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Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male for emergency appendicectomy. The patient weight was 70 kg and a failed intubation indicated immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade.
Which of the following is the correct dose of sugammadex for this patient?Your Answer: 1120 mg
Explanation:Sugammadex is used for immediate reversal of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade.
It is used at a dose of 16 mg/kg.Since the patient in the question is 70 kg, the required dose of sugammadex can be calculated as:
16×70 = 1120 mg.Sugammadex selectively binds rocuronium or vecuronium, thereby reversing their neuromuscular blocking action. Due to its 1:1 binding of rocuronium or vecuronium, it can reverse any depth of neuromuscular block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 61-year-old woman with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the ER with type II respiratory failure. There is a suspicion of myasthenic crisis.
She is in a semiconscious state. Her blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, pulse is 110 beats per minute, temperature is 37°C, and oxygen saturation is 84 percent.
With a PaCO2 of 75 mmHg (10 kPa) breathing air, blood gas analysis confirms she is hypoventilating.
Which of the following values is the most accurate representation of her alveolar oxygen tension (PAO2)?Your Answer: 7.3
Explanation:The following is the alveolar gas equation:
PAO2 = PiO2 − PaCO2/R
Where:
PAO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.
PiO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen inhaled.
PaCO2 stands for partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arteries.
The amount of carbon dioxide produced (200 mL/minute) divided by the amount of oxygen consumed (250 mL/minute) equals R = respiratory quotient. With a normal diet, the value is 0.8.By subtracting the partial pressure exerted by water vapour at body temperature, the PiO2 can be calculated:
PiO2 = 0.21 × (100 kPa − 6.3 kPa)
PiO2 = 19.8Substituting:
PAO2 = 19.8 − 10/0.8
PAO2 = 19.8 − 12.5
PAO2 = 7.3k Pa -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets for the next eight hours. Urine samples will be taken during the 8-hour course, which will undergo analysis via liquid chromatography.
Given the following metabolites, which one would have the highest analgesic property?Your Answer: Tri-N, O-desmethyl-tramadol
Correct Answer: Mono-O-desmethyl-tramadol
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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Work is underway to devise a new breast cancer screen testing method that doesn’t involve mammography which is in contrast to the prevailing standard. The initial numbers look promising and are indicating that the new testing method is better able to pick up early stage cancer. There, however, is not substantial difference in survival rates.
Which of the following term can be used to describe this?Your Answer: Lead-time bias
Explanation:Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.
Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.
Not publishing the results of a valid study just because they are negative or uninteresting can be termed as publication bias.
When information gathering is ill suited with respect to time i.e. collecting the data regarding a fatal disease many years after the death of its patients, it is termed as Late – look bias.
The case in point is an instance of lead time bias when upon comparing two tests, one is able to detect the condition earlier than the other but the overall outcome doesn’t change. There is a possibility that this will make the survival rates for the newer test look more promising.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which one of the following factor affects the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)?
Your Answer: Gender
Correct Answer: Hypoxaemia
Explanation:The minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is the concentration of an inhalation anaesthetic agent in the lung alveoli required to stop a response to the surgical stimulus in 50% of the patient.
Following factors don’t affect the MAC of the inhaled anaesthetic agents:
Gender, acidosis, alkalosis, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, body weight, serum potassium level, and the duration of the anaesthesia.
MAC increase in children, elevated temperature, high metabolic rate, sympathetic increase and chronic alcoholism.
MAC decrease in low temperature, low oxygen level, old age, hypotension (<40 mmHg), depressant drugs e.g. opioids and low level of catecholamines; alpha methyl dopa. Carbon dioxide O2 at the pressure > 120mmHg is being used in anesthetic-Hinkman as an additive effect to decrease MAC, however, increase concentration of CO2 activates the sympathetic system resulting the MAC increases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly
Your Answer: Sodium
Explanation:The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:
ATP
AMP
Potassium
Phosphate, and
Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant hepatic failure in halothane administration?
Your Answer: Obesity
Correct Answer: Multiple exposure
Explanation:Hepatotoxicity due to halothane administration is relatively common and is a major factor in its rapidly declining use. Type 1 hepatotoxicity has an incidence of 20% to 30%. A comprehensive report in 1969 demonstrated an incidence of type 2 hepatotoxicity (hepatitis) of 1 case per 6000 to 20000 cases, with fatal cases occurring approximately once in 35000 patients following a single exposure to the anaesthetic. This incidence of fatal cases increases to approximately 1 in 1000 patients following multiple exposures. Following this study was a large-scale review in the United Kingdom, which showed similar results. To put this into perspective, there is only a single case of hepatotoxicity confirmed after the administration of desflurane and 2 cases per 1 million after enflurane. By the 1970s, halothane was the most common cause of drug-induced liver failure.
Halothane-induced hepatotoxicity has a female to male ratio of two to one. Younger patients are less likely to be affected; 80% of the cases are typically in patients 40 years or older. Other risk factors include obesity and underlying liver dysfunction. Medications such as phenobarbital, alcohol, and isoniazid may play a role in affecting CYP2E1 metabolism, increasing one’s risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 25 year-old female came to the out-patient department with complaints of vaginal discharge with a distinct fishy odour. She was later diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis and was prescribed to take metronidazole.
The mechanism of action of metronidazole is?Your Answer: Interferes with bacterial DNA synthesis
Explanation:Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole antiprotozoal drug that is selectively absorbed by anaerobic bacteria and sensitive protozoa. Once taken up be anaerobes, it is nonenzymatically reduced by reacting with reduced ferredoxin. This reduction results in products that accumulate in and are toxic to anaerobic cells. The metabolites of metronidazole are taken up into bacterial DNA, forming unstable molecules. This action occurs only when metronidazole is partially reduced, and, because this reduction usually happens only in anaerobic cells, it has relatively little effect on human cells or aerobic bacteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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With regards to the internal carotid artery, which of these statements is correct.
Your Answer: Enters the skull and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries
Explanation:The internal carotid artery passes through the carotid canal in the petrous part of the temporal bone into the cranial cavity. It does NOT groove the sphenoid bone.
The internal carotid artery gives off no branches in the neck and is a terminal branch of the common carotid artery.
These structures pass between the external and internal carotid arteries: the styloglossus and stylopharyngeus muscles, the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), and the pharyngeal branch of the vagus.
Accompanied by its sympathetic plexus, the internal carotid artery, passes through the cavernous sinus and is crossed by the abducent nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Correct
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An study on post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV) among paediatric patients who underwent tonsillectomy showed a decrease in incidence from 10% to 5% following a new management protocol.
Which of the following best estimates the numbers needed to treat (NNT) for one additional patient to benefit from the new management of PONV?Your Answer: 20
Explanation:The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is the number of patients you need to treat to prevent one additional bad outcome. For example, if a drug has an NNT of 5, it means you have to treat 5 people with the drug to prevent one additional bad outcome.
To calculate the NNT, you need to know the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR); the NNT is the inverse of the ARR:
NNT = 1/ARR
Where ARR = CER (Control Event Rate) – EER (Experimental Event Rate).
NNTs are always rounded up to the nearest whole number.
In this case, the NNT can be computed as follows:
ARR = 10% – 5% = 0.05
NNT = 1/0.05 = 20
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 13
Correct
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A 32-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit. He has suffered a heroin overdose and requires intubation and ventilatory support.
What would be his predicted total static compliance (lung and chest wall) measurements.Your Answer: 100 ml/cmH2O
Explanation:Static lung compliance refers to the change in volume within the lung per given change in unit pressure. It is usually measured when air flow is absent, such as during pauses in inhalation and exhalation.
It is a combination of:
Chest wall compliance: normal value is 200 mL/cmH2O
Lung tissue compliance: normal value is 200 mL/ cmH2OIt is represented mathematically as:
1/Crs = 1/Cl + 1/Ccw
Where,
Crs = total compliance of the respiratory system
Cl = compliance of the lung
Ccw = compliance of the chest wallTherefore in this case:
1/Crs = 1/200 + 1/200
1/Crs = 0.005 + 0.005 = 0.01
1/Ct = 0.01
Rearranging equation gives:
Ct = 1/0.01 = 100 mL/cmH2O.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 14
Incorrect
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While inspecting the caecum, what structure will be identified at the point at which all the taeniae coli converge?
Your Answer: Ileocaecal valve
Correct Answer: Appendix base
Explanation:The taeniae coli are the three outer muscular bands of the cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, and descending colon.
The taeniae coli converge at the base of the appendix in the cecum where they form a complete longitudinal layer. In the ascending and descending colon, the bands are located anteriorly, posteromedially, and posterolateral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine infusions?
Your Answer: At lower rates of infusion, there is increased contractility, heart rate, cardiac output and coronary blood flow
Correct Answer: Decreasing gastric transit time
Explanation:Moderately high doses of dopamine produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to Noradrenaline release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is admitted in hospital. Over four hours, he produces 240 mL of urine and has a plasma creatinine concentration is 10 mcg/mL. The normal concentration of creatinine in urine is 1.25 mg/mL.
Calculate his approximate creatinine clearance.Your Answer: 24 ml/minute
Correct Answer: 125 ml/minute
Explanation:Creatinine clearance is a test used to approximate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) as an assessment of kidney function.
Creatinine is formed during the breakdown of dietary sources of meat and skeletal muscle. It is secreted at a consistent concentration and pace into the body’s circulation, and is easily filtered across the glomerulus without being reabsorbed or metabolized by the kidney.
It is represented mathematically as:
Creatinine clearance (CL) = U x V/P
where,
U: Urinary creatinine concentration (mg/mL)
V: Volume of urine (mL/min)
P: Plasma creatinine concentration (mg/mL)Therefore, in this case:
CL: 1.25 x 1 = 125mL/min
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following can be evaluated by the Delphi method?
Your Answer: Expert consensus
Explanation:The Delphi method relies on expert consensus. This method kicks off with an open ended questionnaire and uses its responses as a survey instrument for the next round in which each of the participants is asked to rate the items that the investigators have summarized on the basis of the data collected in the first round. Any disagreement is further discussed in phases to come on the basis of information obtained from previous phases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 18
Correct
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A 30-year old lady has a sub total thyroidectomy. On the 5th post-operative day, the wound becomes erythematous and there is a purulent discharge. The most likely organism causing this is:
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.
Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressingIn contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.
2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intentionUse of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 19
Correct
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After consuming 12 g of paracetamol, a 37-year-old man is admitted to the medical admissions unit. He has hepatocellular necrosis in both clinical and biochemical aspects.
The most significant reason for paracetamol causing toxicity is?Your Answer: Glutathione is rapidly exhausted
Explanation:Phase I and phase II metabolism are used by the liver to break down paracetamol.
1st Phase:
Prostaglandin synthetase and cytochrome P450 (CYP1A2, CYP2E2, CYP3A4 and CYP2D6) to N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI) and N-acetylbenzo-semiquinoneimine. NAPQI is a toxic metabolite that binds to the sulfhydryl groups of cellular proteins in hepatocytes, making it toxic. This can result in centrilobular necrosis.
Glutathione and glutathione transferases prevent NAPQI from binding to hepatocytes at low paracetamol doses by preferentially binding to these toxic metabolites. The cysteine and mercapturic acid conjugates are then excreted in the urine. Depletion of glutathione occurs at higher doses of paracetamol, resulting in high levels of NAPQI and the risk of hepatocellular damage. Hepatotoxicity would not be an issue if the body’s glutathione stores were sufficient.
N-acetylcysteine is a precursor for glutathione synthesis and is the drug of choice for the treatment of paracetamol overdose.
Phase II:
Conjugation with glucuronic acid to paracetamol glucuronide is the most common method of metabolism and excretion, accounting for 60% of renally excreted metabolites. Paracetamol sulphate (35%), unchanged paracetamol (5%), and mercapturic acid are among the other renally excreted metabolites (3 percent ). The capacity of conjugation pathways is limited. The capacity of the sulphate conjugation pathway is lower than that of the glucuronidation pathway.
Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is extremely high, approaching 100%.
As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an injury is important. Peak plasma concentrations are reached after 30-60 minutes, with a volume of distribution of 0.95 L/kg. It binds to plasma proteins at a rate of 10% to 25%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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During a stabbing incident, a 30-year-old injured his inferior vena cava. What number of functional valves can be usually found in this vessel?
Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 0
Explanation:The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins. The inferior vena cava has no functional valves like the one-way valves commonly found in many veins. The forward flow to the heart is driven by the differential pressure created by normal respiration.
The absence of functional valves has an important clinical role when cannulating during cardiopulmonary bypass.
There is a valve that is non-functioning called the eustachian valve that lies at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium. This valve has a role to help direct the flow of oxygen-rich blood through the right atrium to the left atrium via the foramen ovale during fetal life. It has no specific function in adult life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Correct
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Following are some examples of induction agents. Which one has the longest elimination half-life?
Your Answer: Thiopental
Explanation:Thiopental has the longest elimination half-life of 6-15 hours.
Elimination half-life of other drugs are given as:
– Propofol: 5-12 h
– Methohexitone: 3-5 h
– Ketamine: 2 h
– Etomidate: 1-4 h -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Correct
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All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except
Your Answer: Potency is directly related to lipid solubility
Explanation:The potency of local anaesthetics is directly proportional to lipid solubility because they need to penetrate the lipid-soluble membrane to enter the cell.
Protein binding has a direct relationship with the duration of action because the higher the ability of the drug to bind with membrane protein, the higher is the duration of action.
Higher the pKa of a drug, slower the onset of action. Because a drug with higher pKa will be more ionized than the one with lower pKa at a given pH. Local anaesthetics are weak bases, and unionized form diffuses more rapidly across the nerve membrane than the protonated form. As a result drugs with higher pKa will be more ionized will diffuse less across the nerve membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result in an inaccurate blood pressure reading, including the damping of an arterial waveform.
How does a damped arterial waveform affect blood pressure measurements?Your Answer: The systolic pressure is lower and the diastolic pressure higher with the same mean
Explanation:Damping is the reduction of energy in a system achieved by reducing the amplitude of oscillations. It is necessary to some degree to prevent wave overshoots.
Critical damping usually causes the system to be slow, so optimal damping is normally applied to provide a balance between speed and distortion.
Damping can cause errors if excessive (overdamping) or inadequate (Underdamping). The amount of damping in a system can be determined using the damping coefficient (D), where:
Undamped: 0
Critically damped: 1
Optimally damped: 0.64An overdamped system will cause an artificial decrease in the systolic blood pressure, and an artificial increase in the diastolic blood pressure.
An underdamped system will cause an artificial increase in systolic blood pressure and an artificial decrease in diastolic blood pressure.
Damping can be caused by a number of factors affecting different parts of the system, including:
The tubing/cannula: The presence of air bubbles, increased blood viscosity or formation of blood clots.
The diaphragm/tubing: Increased malleability/compliance
The tubing: Presence of kinks, narrowing or too many ports of injection.The answer here is a damped system will have a low systolic pressure, a high diastolic pressure with a normal mean pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old woman, present to her general practitioner. She complains of a severe lancinating pain in her forehead that only last a few seconds, possibly triggered by washing her face, occurring over the previous six weeks.
On examination, she is normal with no other signs or symptoms.
Which nerve is the most likely cause of her pain?Your Answer: Auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve
Correct Answer: Sensory branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
Explanation:Her symptoms are suggestive of trigeminal neuralgia which is a short, sudden, severe sharp unilateral pain in the facial region. The pain often follows the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve (CN V).
The trigeminal nerve gives rise to 3 sensory and 1 motor nuclei. Neuralgia can arise from any of the 3 sensory divisions.
The ophthalmic division gives rise to 3 further sensory branches, which are the frontal, lacrimal and nasociliary.
The frontal branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve is responsible for the innervation of the area in question.
The superior alveolar dental, zygomatic and sphenopalatine nerves are all branches arising from the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.
The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation. The sensory innervation is carried out by the auriculotemporal nerve which supplies the lower third of the face, while the motor fibres are responsible for controlling the muscles of mastication.
The somatic sensory branches of the vagus nerve are responsible for sensory innervation of the external acoustic meatus and tympanic membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 25
Correct
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What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism?
Your Answer: Transoesophageal echocardiogram
Explanation:An intra-operative air embolism occurs when air becomes trapped in the blood vessels during surgery.
A transoesophageal echocardiography (OE) uses invasive echocardiography to monitor the integrity and performance of the heart. It is the gold standard as it provides real-time imaging of the heart to enable early diagnosis and treatment.
Precordial doppler ultrasonography can also be used to detect into-operative air emboli. It is non-invasive and more practical, but is less sensitive.
A change in end-tidal CO2 could be indicative of and increase in physiological dead-space, but could also be indicative of any processes that reduces the excretion or increases the production of CO2, making it non-specific.
A transoesophageal stethoscope can be used to listen for the classic mill-wheel murmur produced by a large air embolus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following options will likely play a major role in falling coronary blood flow?
Your Answer: Peripheral venous infusion of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)
Correct Answer: Intracoronary artery infusion of endothelin-1
Explanation:Endothelin-1 is considered as a powerful coronary vasoconstrictor, produced by the endothelium. It acts to counter the effects of Nitric oxide (NO).
Neuropeptide-Y, angiotensin1, cocaine, vasopressin, and nicotine are some other coronary vasoconstrictors.Chronotrophy and inotrophy occur after the activation of sympathetic nerve fibres, which in turn results in increasing the myocardial oxygen consumption, leading to increased coronary blood flow via local metabolic processes.
An alpha-receptor mediated coronary vasoconstrictor effect is also initiated that usually competes with vasodilation, resulting in decreased coronary vascular resistance. Some of the other dilators include hydrogen ions, CO2, potassium, and lactic acid. The action of endothelial NO synthase (eNOS) on L-arginine results in the formation of NO. This messenger also plays a vital role in the regulation of coronary blood flow via vasodilation, inhibition of platelet aggression, and decreasing vascular resistance.
Adenosine is considered as purine nucleoside that forms after the breakdown of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Adenosine binds to adenosine type 2A (A2A) receptors in coronary vascular smooth muscles. These are coupled to the Gs protein. This mechanism leads to hyperpolarisation of muscle cells, resulting in relaxation and increased coronary blood flow.GTN is an veno and arteriolar dilator, which behaves as pro-drug with NO.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The muscle that lies behind the first part of the axillary nerve is?
Your Answer: Pectoralis major
Correct Answer: Subscapularis
Explanation:The axillary nerve lies behind the axillary artery initially, and in front of the subscapularis. It passes downward to the lower border of the subscapularis muscle.
In company with the posterior humeral circumflex artery and vein, it winds backward through a quadrilateral space bounded above by the subscapularis (anterior) and teres minor (posterior), below by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps brachii, and laterally by the humerus (surgical neck).
It then divides into an anterior and a posterior part. The anterior division supplies the deltoid (anterior and middle heads) while the posterior division supplies the teres minor and posterior part of deltoid
The posterior division terminates as the superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true about data analysed from a new drug trial?
Your Answer: The data could be evaluated using the chi square test
Explanation:The data is ideal for chi square test evaluation as it will help determine if observed outcomes are in line with expected outcomes, and also if results are significant or due to chance.
The student’s t test is not ideal as it requires comparison of means from different populations, rather than proportions.
Pearson’s coefficient of linear regression is not ideal as it requires the plotting of a linear regression.
The numbers should be analysed before determining if there are any statistical conclusions that can be drawn from the population.
Statistical analysis is always required to determine the performance of any treatment during a clinical drug trial. Conclusions cannot be drawn simply by looking at the data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements below would best describe the receptor response to an opioid mu receptor agonist such as fentanyl?
Your Answer: The relationship between the dose and response plotted graphically is sigmoid
Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:Agonists activate the receptor as a direct result of binding to it with a characteristic affinity. Moreover, intrinsic activity of an agonist to its receptor determines the ability to create a maximal response.
Responses to low doses of a drug usually increase in direct proportion to dose. As doses increase, however, the response increment diminishes; finally, doses may be reached at which no further increase in response can be achieved. The relationship formed between the dose and response when plotted graphically is hyperbolic. This also shows that even at low receptor occupancy, a maximal response may be produced.
Antagonists bind to receptors in the same affinity as agonists, but they have no intrinsic efficacy. They do not activate generation of signal. Instead, they interfere with the ability of the agonist to activate the receptor.
Partial agonists are similar to full agonists in that they have similar affinity to the target receptor, but they produce a lower response than full agonists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 68-year-old man has suffered a myocardial infarction. He has a heart rate of 40 beats per minute currently.
Your senior attending explains that the slow heart rate is due to the damage to the conduction pathways between the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes. His ventricles are being paced by the AV node alone.
What artery supplies the AV node in the majority of patients?
Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:The AV node has an intrinsic firing rate of 40-60 beats per minute which is clinically significant in cases of damage to the conducting pathways as patients continue to have a ventricular rate of 40-60. Patients who have an AV node supplied by the right coronary are said to be right dominant. The remaining 10% are left dominant and supplied by the left circumflex.
The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.
The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.
The left main coronary artery branches into:
1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septumThe right coronary artery branches into:
1. Right marginal artery
2. Posterior descending artery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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